A 61-year-old man with a 15-year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and peripheral neuropathy is evaluated in the clinic for right foot swelling. Over the past three weeks, his right foot has become progressively swollen, erythematous, and warm. He reports minimal pain and has continued his daily walking routine. He has no history of recent trauma. His temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F). Examination of the right foot reveals a markedly swollen, warm, and erythematous midfoot with a collapsed longitudinal arch, creating a rocker-bottom appearance. Pedal pulses are bounding bilaterally. Monofilament testing demonstrates absent protective sensation in a stocking distribution. Careful skin examination reveals no ulcers, fissures, or draining sinuses.
Weight-bearing plain radiographs of the right foot reveal complete loss of the tarsometatarsal joint spaces, extensive bony fragmentation of the navicular and medial cuneiform, subchondral sclerosis, and multiple intra-articular loose bodies. There is no focal bone demineralization or periosteal reaction.
Based on the interpretation of these radiographic findings, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Application of a total contact castCevap
- BIntravenous vancomycin and piperacillin-tazobactam
- CMagnetic resonance imaging of the foot with contrast
- DPercutaneous bone biopsy and culture
- EMeasurement of serum uric acid levels