A 42-year-old woman visits the outpatient clinic for a general wellness examination. She feels well and has no specific health concerns. Her medical history is unremarkable, and she takes no daily medications. Her family history is notable for a mother with cervical cancer at age 55, but there is no family history of breast, ovarian, or colon cancer. Menarche occurred at age 13, and she has regular menstrual cycles. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination, including a clinical breast examination, reveals no abnormalities. She has never undergone any breast imaging.
Based on current United States Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF) guidelines, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management for this patient?
- ADelay screening mammography until age 50
- BOrder a screening breast ultrasound
- Order a screening mammogramCevap
- DPerform screening with breast magnetic resonance imaging
- ERefer the patient for BRCA1 and BRCA2 genetic testing