A 33-year-old woman comes to the clinic to discuss her medication regimen. She was recently diagnosed with estrogen receptor-positive breast cancer and underwent a lumpectomy with sentinel lymph node biopsy two weeks ago. Her oncologist plans to initiate adjuvant tamoxifen therapy next week. The patient has a 5-year history of major depressive disorder, which has been well controlled for the past two years with daily paroxetine. She reports that her mood is currently stable and she has no neurovegetative symptoms of depression, though she is mildly anxious about starting her new cancer treatment. She has no other medical conditions and takes no other medications. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination reveals a healing surgical incision on the right breast, with no erythema or discharge. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the pharmacologic management of this patient's depression?
- AContinue paroxetine at the current dosage
- BDiscontinue paroxetine and initiate fluoxetine
- CDiscontinue paroxetine and initiate bupropion
- Discontinue paroxetine and initiate venlafaxineCevap
- EContinue paroxetine and increase the planned dosage of tamoxifen