A 26-year-old pregnant woman, gravida 1 para 0, presents to her obstetrician at 16 weeks gestation for evaluation of a new rash. Over the past week, she has noted the appearance of non-pruritic, pink macules and papules spreading across her trunk and involving her palms and soles. She also reports mild fatigue and subjective low-grade fevers. Her first prenatal visit was two weeks ago, but she missed her scheduled laboratory testing. Her medical history is notable only for a severe anaphylactic reaction to amoxicillin during childhood, which resulted in wheezing and hospital admission. She takes a daily prenatal vitamin. Vital signs are within normal limits. Fetal heart tones are 145/min. Rapid plasma reagin testing is reactive at a titer of 1:32. A confirmatory Treponema pallidum particle agglutination test is also positive. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in pharmacologic management?
- AOutpatient administration of oral doxycycline for 14 days
- BIntramuscular ceftriaxone administration for 14 days
- Inpatient penicillin desensitization followed by intramuscular benzathine penicillin GCevap
- DOral azithromycin administration as a single dose
- EObservation with repeat non-treponemal serologic testing in 4 weeks