A 38-year-old woman is evaluated in the emergency department for severe, progressive abdominal pain and an inability to pass flatus for the past 24 hours. She describes the pain as cramping and constant. Her past medical history is notable only for an uncomplicated appendectomy at age 18. Her temperature is 37.6°C (99.7°F), blood pressure is 112/74 mmHg, heart rate is 108/min, and respiratory rate is 18/min. Physical examination reveals a markedly distended and tympanitic abdomen with significant tenderness localized to the right lower quadrant. There is no rigidity or rebound tenderness. Laboratory studies are significant for a leukocyte count of . The patient receives intravenous fluid resuscitation, and a nasogastric tube is placed for decompression. A contrast-enhanced CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis is performed. The imaging demonstrates a massively dilated, ovoid segment of the large bowel with a 'coffee bean' appearance that extends from the right lower quadrant toward the left upper quadrant. A 'whirl sign' composed of twisted mesenteric vessels and surrounding fat is clearly identified in the right iliac fossa. The colon distal to this area is completely collapsed, and there is no evidence of pneumoperitoneum. Based on the interpretation of these imaging findings, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Urgent exploratory laparotomyCevap
- BFlexible sigmoidoscopy
- CIntravenous neostigmine administration
- DWater-soluble contrast enema
- EObservation with serial abdominal radiographs