During a scheduled annual health review, a 46-year-old female patient voices deep concerns about her familial cancer risk. She notes that her mother received a diagnosis of epithelial ovarian cancer one month ago at the age of 68. Furthermore, her maternal aunt was treated for breast cancer diagnosed at age 52. Her medical background includes uncomplicated essential hypertension managed with lisinopril. Preventive care records demonstrate a negative screening colonoscopy performed 14 months ago, a negative digital mammogram completed 3 months ago, and a normal cervical cytology with negative high-risk human papillomavirus (HPV) co-testing conducted 2 years prior. Today's physical assessment, including a comprehensive clinical breast examination, reveals no abnormalities. Vital signs are within normal limits. Based on current evidence-based guidelines, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Provide a referral for familial cancer susceptibility genetic counselingCevap
- BOrder a transvaginal ultrasound and serum cancer antigen 125 (CA-125) level
- CSchedule an immediate screening magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan of the breasts
- DRepeat cervical cytology with human papillomavirus (HPV) co-testing today
- EReassure the patient that specialized assessment is unnecessary because her mother's diagnosis occurred after age 65