A 64-year-old man with a history of heart failure, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and chronic kidney disease stage 5 on hemodialysis is brought to the emergency department by his family due to worsening confusion and unsteadiness over the past two days. His medications include lisinopril, amlodipine, and phenytoin, which he takes for a history of remote post-traumatic seizures. Two weeks ago, a routine chemistry panel showed a blood urea nitrogen of , serum creatinine of , and serum albumin of . At that same visit, his total serum phenytoin level was (therapeutic range: ). Believing the level was subtherapeutic, the physician increased his daily phenytoin dose. Physical examination today reveals bilateral horizontal nystagmus, wide-based gait ataxia, and dysarthria. A repeat total serum phenytoin level today is . Which of the following pharmacokinetic principles best explains why the patient is experiencing neurotoxicity despite a total drug level within the normal therapeutic range?
- Decreased drug-protein affinity and low albumin increase the unbound fraction of the drugCevap
- BSaturation of hepatic metabolizing enzymes causes a non-linear increase in total drug concentration
- CConcurrent amlodipine use competitively inhibits the cytochrome P450-mediated clearance of the drug
- DSevere renal impairment leads to the accumulation of a renally excreted neurotoxic metabolite
- EHeart failure reduces hepatic blood flow, significantly decreasing the clearance of the drug