A -year-old man with a history of permanent atrial fibrillation, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia presents to the emergency department with sudden-onset, severe abdominal pain that began hours ago. He reports missing his last two doses of his prescribed direct oral anticoagulant. His temperature is (), blood pressure is mmHg, pulse is /min and irregularly irregular, and respiratory rate is /min. On physical examination, the abdomen is soft and non-distended. He has diffuse abdominal tenderness but no rebound guarding. Laboratory studies reveal a leukocyte count of and a serum lactate of mmol/L. A computed tomography (CT) angiography of the abdomen and pelvis is performed. The radiologist's report describes a focal filling defect in the proximal superior mesenteric artery, accompanied by dilated loops of small bowel showing absent wall enhancement. Additionally, there are distinct linear gas collections within the bowel wall of the affected segments. Based on these imaging findings, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- ASystemic anticoagulation with intravenous heparin
- BConventional catheter-based mesenteric angiography
- Emergent exploratory laparotomyCevap
- DCatheter-directed intra-arterial thrombolysis
- EBroad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics and serial abdominal examinations