A -year-old woman presents to the clinic with progressive ataxia, horizontal nystagmus, and confusion. She has a history of focal impaired awareness seizures that have been well-controlled for three years on a stable maintenance dose of phenytoin. Two weeks ago, valproic acid was added to her regimen by a different provider for worsening mood lability. Laboratory studies reveal a normal comprehensive metabolic panel and a serum albumin of g/dL. Her total serum phenytoin concentration is mcg/mL (reference range: - mcg/mL). Suspecting toxicity despite the reassuring total level, the physician orders a free serum phenytoin level, which returns markedly elevated at mcg/mL (reference range: - mcg/mL). Which of the following pharmacokinetic mechanisms best explains the discordance between the total and free serum drug concentrations in this patient?
- Competitive displacement from plasma proteins combined with inhibition of hepatic oxidative metabolismCevap
- BTransition to zero-order elimination kinetics causing disproportionate accumulation of the unbound drug fraction
- CDecreased renal clearance of the unbound drug secondary to competition for proximal tubular secretion
- DSynergistic pharmacodynamic enhancement at voltage-gated sodium channels leading to clinical toxicity
- EDisplacement of the primary drug from peripheral tissue binding sites leading to a decreased volume of distribution