A -year-old man presents to the clinic for a routine follow-up. He has a history of end-stage renal disease (ESRD) requiring hemodialysis three times a week, as well as diet-controlled type diabetes mellitus. Two weeks ago, the patient was hospitalized for a generalized tonic-clonic seizure, which was successfully treated. He was discharged on a maintenance regimen of oral phenytoin mg daily. Since discharge, he has had no further seizure activity and reports no side effects such as dizziness or unsteadiness.
Vital signs are within normal limits. Neurological examination reveals no nystagmus, normal tandem gait, and an intact Mini-Mental State Examination.
Recent laboratory studies reveal the following:
| Test | Result | Reference Range |
|---|---|---|
| Blood urea nitrogen | mg/dL | - mg/dL |
| Serum creatinine | mg/dL | - mg/dL |
| Serum albumin | g/dL | - g/dL |
| Total serum phenytoin | g/mL | - g/mL |
Based on these findings, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Continue the current phenytoin dosage and monitor the patient clinicallyCevap
- BIncrease the daily phenytoin dosage to target a total serum concentration of - g/mL
- CSchedule the phenytoin administration strictly after hemodialysis sessions
- DMeasure a peak total serum phenytoin concentration two hours after the next dose
- EAdd a second antiepileptic drug due to therapeutic failure of monotherapy