A 42-year-old man is hospitalized for the treatment of acute myeloid leukemia. He develops a temperature of 39.1°C (102.4°F) and has an absolute neutrophil count of 150/mm³. The covering night-shift hospitalist orders empirical intravenous vancomycin and cefepime. The clinical pharmacist reviews the patient's electronic health record and notes a documented history of severe, IgE-mediated anaphylaxis to all cephalosporins. The pharmacist pages the hospitalist to recommend an alternative antipseudomonal agent. The hospitalist, who is currently managing a cardiac arrest on another floor, answers the call and states, 'I do not have time to review the allergy history right now. The febrile neutropenia protocol requires this regimen, so please verify the order immediately,' and abruptly hangs up. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step for the pharmacist?
- Withhold the cephalosporin and immediately escalate the safety concern to the supervising attending physician.Cevap
- BDispense the medication as ordered but include a prominent warning label regarding the potential for anaphylaxis.
- CVerify the ordered regimen to ensure rapid treatment, assuming the hospitalist has weighed the risks.
- DDelay all empirical antibiotic therapy until the hospitalist is available to discuss alternative agents.
- ERecommend transferring the patient to the intensive care unit so the medication can be administered under continuous monitoring.