A 68-year-old female patient presents to a new primary care physician for a wellness visit after relocating to another state. She reports feeling completely well and has not sought medical care for the past 14 years. Her only daily medication is hydrochlorothiazide for hypertension. The patient went through menopause at age 52 and denies any postmenopausal bleeding. She has been in a monogamous marriage for over four decades. A thorough review of her limited medical records reveals that her last pelvic examination and Papanicolaou test were performed when she was 54 years old. That test was normal, and she has never had an abnormal cervical cancer screening result or a history of sexually transmitted infections. The patient asks if she needs any gynecologic tests today.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management regarding cervical cancer screening?
- Perform cervical cytology with high-risk human papillomavirus testingCevap
- BAdvise the patient that routine screening is no longer indicated due to her age
- CAdvise the patient that screening is unnecessary given her long-term monogamy
- DOrder a transvaginal ultrasound to screen for gynecologic malignancies
- EAdminister the human papillomavirus vaccine series