A 59-year-old woman is evaluated in the emergency department for severe, colicky left flank pain radiating to the left groin. Her medical history is notable for essential hypertension, for which she takes amlodipine. Her blood pressure is 144/88 mmHg, pulse is 86/min, and temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F). Laboratory studies show a serum potassium of 4.2 mEq/L and an otherwise normal basic metabolic panel.
A non-contrast CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis demonstrates a 4-mm radiopaque calculus in the left distal ureter. Incidentally, the radiologist notes a 3.2-cm, well-circumscribed, homogeneous mass in the right adrenal gland. The mass has an unenhanced attenuation value of 8 Hounsfield units (HU). The patient's pain is well controlled with intravenous ketorolac, and she is tolerating oral hydration.
Regarding the incidental adrenal finding, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Assess plasma free metanephrines, aldosterone-to-renin ratio, and perform a 1-mg dexamethasone suppression testCevap
- BOrder a dedicated adrenal CT with contrast washout protocol
- CSchedule a CT-guided percutaneous core biopsy of the right adrenal mass
- DMeasure plasma renin activity and aldosterone levels only if serum potassium falls below 3.5 mEq/L
- EDischarge with reassurance and schedule a repeat non-contrast CT scan in 12 months