An asymptomatic 24-year-old female presents to her primary care provider to establish care and undergo a health maintenance visit. She reports feeling well overall. Her only regular medication is a combined oral contraceptive pill. She reports becoming sexually active with a new male partner three months ago, noting inconsistent use of barrier protection. She has a lifetime history of three sexual partners. She has never smoked cigarettes or used illicit drugs. She denies abnormal vaginal discharge, dyspareunia, or genital lesions. A review of her electronic medical record indicates that she underwent a normal cervical cytology (Pap smear) at age 21, but has not had any other preventive screenings since that time. Physical examination reveals a normal cervix with no cervical motion tenderness or adnexal masses. Based on current guidelines, which of the following is the most appropriate screening strategy for this patient today?
- Cervical cytology and nucleic acid amplification testing for Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeaeCevap
- BCervical cytology, human papillomavirus testing, and nucleic acid amplification testing for Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae
- CCervical cytology and human papillomavirus co-testing only
- DCervical cytology, nucleic acid amplification testing for Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae, and herpes simplex virus type 2 serology
- ENucleic acid amplification testing for Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae only, with cervical cytology deferred until age 25