A 68-year-old woman is evaluated in the emergency department for severe, diffuse abdominal pain that began suddenly 3 hours ago. She has a history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and paroxysmal atrial fibrillation for which she takes apixaban, though she admits to missing several doses recently. On physical examination, her temperature is 37.8°C (100°F), blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, pulse is 118/min and irregularly irregular, and respiratory rate is 22/min. The abdomen is soft and non-distended, with mild diffuse tenderness but no rebound, guarding, or rigidity. Bowel sounds are decreased. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 18,000/mm³ and a serum lactate of 5.2 mmol/L. An unenhanced CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis is performed. The radiologist reports focal areas of small bowel wall thickening, mesenteric fat stranding, branching radiolucencies in the liver periphery, and linear gas collections parallel to the small bowel lumen. Based on these imaging findings, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- ABroad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics and serial abdominal examinations
- BCT angiography of the abdomen and pelvis
- Emergent exploratory laparotomyCevap
- DSystemic anticoagulation with intravenous heparin
- EColonoscopy