A 67-year-old woman comes to the clinic for a routine health maintenance examination. She has no acute symptoms and feels well. Her medical history is notable for hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and a total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy performed at age 52. A review of her surgical pathology report from that time confirms the procedure was a treatment for persistent cervical intraepithelial neoplasia grade 3 (CIN 3). She has no history of invasive cervical cancer. Her mother was diagnosed with ovarian cancer at age 65, and her father died of a myocardial infarction at age 70. The patient smoked 1.5 packs of cigarettes daily from age 20 to age 50 (a 45 pack-year history) but quit completely 17 years ago. She occasionally drinks wine.
Recent screening history is as follows:
- Screening mammogram 6 months ago: normal
- Screening colonoscopy 6 years ago: normal, no polyps
- Vaginal cuff cytology and HPV co-testing 6 years ago: negative
- Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) 1 year ago: T-score of -1.5 at the lumbar spine
Her most recent comprehensive metabolic panel and lipid panel, obtained 6 months ago, were within normal limits. Her vaccinations are up to date.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in this patient's preventive care?
- ALow-dose computed tomography of the chest
- Vaginal cuff cytology and human papillomavirus co-testingCevap
- CTransvaginal ultrasonography and serum CA-125 measurement
- DFecal immunochemical testing
- EDual-energy x-ray absorptiometry