A -year-old female patient arrives at the acute care clinic reporting the abrupt onset of a headache that she describes as exploding in her head, reaching maximal intensity within seconds. The onset occurred two hours ago, shortly after she ingested a pseudoephedrine-based decongestant for a mild upper respiratory infection. She has a past medical history significant for major depressive disorder managed with fluoxetine.
Upon evaluation, her blood pressure is mm Hg and heart rate is /min. Neurological examination demonstrates symmetric hyperreflexia in all four extremities, but no focal sensory or motor deficits, and no nuchal rigidity.
An initial unenhanced computed tomography (CT) scan of the head reveals no abnormalities. Subsequent lumbar puncture demonstrates crystal-clear fluid, opening pressure of cm H O, red blood cells/mm , white blood cell/mm , and normal protein and glucose levels.
Because of persistent pain, advanced imaging is obtained. A CT angiogram of the head and neck reveals multifocal, diffuse segmental narrowing interspersed with dilated segments involving the bilateral middle and posterior cerebral arteries. A brain magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan shows bilaterally symmetric hyperintense areas on T2-weighted fluid-attenuated inversion recovery (FLAIR) sequences within the parieto-occipital subcortical white matter. No restricted diffusion is present.
Based on the interpretation of these imaging findings, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Administration of oral verapamilCevap
- BAdministration of high-dose intravenous methylprednisolone
- CSubcutaneous injection of sumatriptan
- DConventional catheter cerebral angiography
- EStereotactic brain biopsy