A -year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his daughter after he vomited approximately mL of bright red blood. He has a history of nonvalvular atrial fibrillation, hypertension, and osteoarthritis. His medications include dabigatran, lisinopril, and ibuprofen. For the past days, he has had a diarrheal illness with poor oral intake. On presentation, he appears pale and diaphoretic. Blood pressure is mm Hg, and pulse is /min.
Laboratory results are as follows:
- Hemoglobin: g/dL
- Platelet count: /mm
- Creatinine: mg/dL (baseline mg/dL)
- Prothrombin time (PT): seconds
- Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT): seconds
The patient is given intravenous crystalloids and packed red blood cells. A specific pharmacologic antidote is administered to rapidly neutralize the circulating anticoagulant. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of this antidote?
- Binding and neutralization of the anticoagulant by a humanized monoclonal antibody fragmentCevap
- BSequestration of the anticoagulant by a catalytically inactive recombinant factor Xa analog
- CFormation of a stable, inactive salt complex via a highly positively charged peptide
- DPromotion of gamma-carboxylation of glutamic acid residues on specific coagulation factors
- ECompetitive inhibition of plasminogen activation to prevent fibrin degradation