A 42-year-old woman presents to the ambulatory clinic for a routine wellness examination. She has not seen a physician in four years. The patient has no specific health complaints. Her medical history is significant only for mild allergic rhinitis, for which she takes over-the-counter cetirizine as needed. Menarche occurred at age 12, and she is nulliparous. She currently uses an oral contraceptive pill. Family history is notable for her maternal grandmother being diagnosed with breast cancer at age 78. She drinks one glass of wine on weekends and has never smoked. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination reveals soft, non-tender breasts with no palpable masses, skin dimpling, axillary lymphadenopathy, or nipple discharge. She has never undergone breast imaging. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in preventive care for this patient?
- Order a bilateral screening mammogramCevap
- BReassure the patient and defer screening mammography until age 50
- COrder a screening breast magnetic resonance imaging scan
- DPerform a clinical breast examination and defer radiographic imaging
- ERefer the patient for genetic counseling and BRCA mutation testing