A 55-year-old man presents to the emergency department with acute onset of severe, tearing back pain. His blood pressure is 190/110 mm Hg, and his heart rate is 105/min. An electrocardiogram shows normal sinus rhythm without ischemic changes. Computed tomography (CT) angiography of the chest and abdomen reveals an intimal flap that originates just distal to the left subclavian artery and extends into the descending thoracic aorta. The ascending aorta and aortic arch are completely unremarkable. There is no imaging evidence of bowel ischemia, and renal perfusion appears intact. Based on these specific imaging findings, which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in management?
- Initiation of an intravenous beta-blocker infusionCevap
- BEmergent open surgical repair of the aorta
- CImmediate endovascular stent grafting
- DAdministration of intravenous thrombolytic therapy
- EDischarge to home with oral antihypertensive medications
Cevap
Initiation of an intravenous beta-blocker infusion
The correct response is the initiation of an intravenous beta-blocker infusion. The CT angiography clearly demonstrates an intimal flap restricted to the descending thoracic aorta, distal to the left subclavian artery. This imaging finding definitively identifies a Stanford Type B aortic dissection. In the absence of complications such as end-organ malperfusion (e.g., bowel ischemia, renal failure) or impending aortic rupture, the standard initial management for Type B dissection is aggressive medical therapy. The primary goal is to reduce the shear stress on the aortic wall by lowering both the heart rate and blood pressure. Intravenous beta-blockers, such as esmolol or labetalol, are the agents of choice for this purpose and must be initiated promptly in a monitored setting.
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Uncomplicated Stanford Type B aortic dissections (involving only the descending aorta on imaging) are initially managed medically with strict heart rate and blood pressure control, typically using intravenous beta-blockers.