A 48-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of progressively worsening left lower quadrant abdominal pain, subjective fevers, and mild nausea. He has no significant past medical history and takes no medications. Vital signs include a temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F), blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg, pulse of 88/min, and respiratory rate of 16/min. Physical examination reveals focal tenderness to palpation in the left lower quadrant. There is no guarding, rigidity, or rebound tenderness. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 13,500/mm³. A contrast-enhanced computed tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen and pelvis is performed. The radiologist's report describes multiple mucosal outpouchings in the sigmoid colon accompanied by marked pericolic fat stranding and localized thickening of the bowel wall. The report specifically notes the absence of free intraperitoneal air, extravasation of oral contrast, and discrete organized fluid collections. Based on the interpretation of these imaging findings, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in patient management?
- Discharge the patient with a course of oral antibiotics and a clear liquid diet.Cevap
- BAdmit the patient to the hospital for intravenous antibiotics and serial abdominal examinations.
- CPerform an urgent diagnostic colonoscopy to evaluate the extent of inflammation and rule out malignancy.
- DConsult interventional radiology for image-guided percutaneous drainage of the affected area.
- EOrder a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan of the abdomen and pelvis to further characterize the inflammatory changes.