An established 66-year-old female patient is evaluated in the ambulatory clinic for her annual health maintenance visit. She has no acute complaints and reports feeling well. Her medical history is notable for mild primary hypertension, which is well-controlled on amlodipine. She has never smoked cigarettes and consumes a glass of wine occasionally in social settings. She underwent a normal screening colonoscopy eight years ago and a normal screening mammogram three months ago. A fasting lipid panel performed last year was within normal limits. Her gynecologic history reveals negative cervical cytology and high-risk human papillomavirus (HPV) co-testing at ages 58 and 63, with no history of cervical dysplasia or immunocompromise. Her blood pressure is 124/78 mm Hg, and her body mass index is 23 kg/m². Physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in preventive care for this patient?
- APerform cervical cytology with high-risk human papillomavirus co-testing
- BSchedule a screening colonoscopy
- COrder a low-dose computed tomography scan of the chest
- Order a dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry scanCevap
- EObtain a screening ultrasound of the abdominal aorta