Physiological Integrity

1313 questions

Question 861Question →

A client is transferred to the clinical unit after undergoing a lumbar puncture. Which resting position should the practical nurse encourage the client to maintain to minimize the risk of a spinal headache?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Supine with the bed completely flat

Answer

Supine with the bed completely flat
Following a lumbar puncture, the primary goal of positioning is to prevent a spinal headache, which occurs due to the leakage of cerebrospinal fluid from the puncture site. Keeping the client in a flat, supine position minimizes pressure and gravity at the site, reducing this leakage.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the procedure the client underwent.
The client had a lumbar puncture.
Different procedures require specific post-operative positioning to prevent complications and ensure comfort.
2
Determine the primary post-procedure complication associated with a lumbar puncture.
Spinal headache caused by the leakage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
Understanding the risk guides the appropriate nursing intervention for comfort and safety.
3
Select the position that minimizes this complication.
The supine (flat) position.
Lying flat reduces pressure on the dural puncture site, decreasing the likelihood of CSF leakage.

Key Concept

Post-procedure Positioning
Question 862Question →

A practical nurse is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of gabapentin 300 mg300\text{ mg} PO to a client with neuropathic pain. The medication is supplied as an oral solution with a concentration of 250 mg/5 mL250\text{ mg}/5\text{ mL}. How many milliliters should the nurse administer? (Record answer as a whole number. Do not include units in answer.)

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 6

Answer

6
To determine the correct volume to administer, the nurse uses the formula: (Desired / Have) \times Quantity. The desired dose is 300 mg300\text{ mg}, the available dose (Have) is 250 mg250\text{ mg}, and the Quantity is 5 mL5\text{ mL}. Therefore, (300 mg/250 mg)×5 mL=1.2×5 mL=6 mL(300\text{ mg} / 250\text{ mg}) \times 5\text{ mL} = 1.2 \times 5\text{ mL} = 6\text{ mL}. The practical nurse should administer 6 mL6\text{ mL} of the gabapentin oral solution.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the prescribed dose and the available concentration.
Prescribed dose = 300 mg300\text{ mg}; Available concentration = 250 mg250\text{ mg} in 5 mL5\text{ mL}.
These values are required to set up the dosage calculation formula accurately.
2
Apply the basic dosage calculation formula: (Desired / Have) \times Quantity.
(300 mg250 mg)×5 mL\left( \frac{300\text{ mg}}{250\text{ mg}} \right) \times 5\text{ mL}
This formula determines the correct volume of medication to administer to achieve the prescribed dose.
3
Perform the calculation.
1.2×5 mL=6 mL1.2 \times 5\text{ mL} = 6\text{ mL}.
Mathematical computation provides the final volume in milliliters to administer.

Key Concept

Oral Dosage Calculation
Question 863Question →

During afternoon rounds on a rehabilitation unit, a practical nurse observes a client who is 72 hours post-transfemoral amputation of the right leg. The client is resting with the head of the bed elevated to 90 degrees, and the right residual limb is supported on two stacked pillows. The client states, 'My right hip feels extremely tight and stiff.' Which action should the practical nurse implement?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Remove the pillows from beneath the residual limb and assist the client into a prone position.

Answer

The practical nurse should remove the pillows from beneath the residual limb and assist the client into a prone position.
Following a transfemoral amputation, preventing a hip flexion contracture is a primary nursing priority. After the initial 24 to 48 hours, the residual limb should never be elevated on pillows, and sitting in high-Fowler's position should be minimized. Removing the pillows and assisting the client into a prone position actively stretches the shortened hip flexor muscles, preventing contracture formation and ensuring the client can eventually be fitted for a prosthesis.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the postoperative timeframe.
The client is 72 hours post-transfemoral (above-the-knee) amputation.
Post-amputation positioning guidelines change drastically after the first 24 to 48 hours.
2
Analyze the mechanical effects of the client's current position.
Sitting at 90 degrees with the limb on pillows forces the hip joint into extreme and prolonged flexion.
Prolonged hip flexion rapidly leads to debilitating flexion contractures, making future prosthetic fitting impossible.
3
Interpret the client's symptom of 'tight and stiff' hip.
The stiffness is a physiological warning sign that the hip flexor muscles are shortening due to the improper positioning.
Connecting patient symptoms to physical alignment allows the nurse to prioritize structural correction over secondary interventions.
4
Select the appropriate therapeutic positioning intervention.
Remove all elevation under the limb and place the client flat or prone.
The prone position (usually implemented for 20-30 minutes, 3 to 4 times daily) actively extends and stretches the hip flexor muscles, countering the risk of contracture.

Key Concept

Post-operative positioning to prevent hip flexion contractures following transfemoral amputation
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 864Question →

A practical nurse is caring for an adult client who weighs 143 lb143\text{ lb} and is prescribed cyclosporine oral solution. The prescribed dosage is 8 mg/kg/day8\text{ mg/kg/day} divided into two equal doses. The pharmacy dispenses cyclosporine oral solution 100 mg/mL100\text{ mg/mL}. How many mL should the nurse administer for one dose?

Record your answer using one decimal place. Do not include units in your answer.

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 2.6

Answer

The practical nurse should administer 2.6 mL per dose.
To determine the correct volume, the client's weight must first be converted to kilograms (143 lb÷2.2=65 kg143\text{ lb} \div 2.2 = 65\text{ kg}). The total daily dose is calculated by multiplying the weight by the prescribed rate (65 kg×8 mg/kg=520 mg/day65\text{ kg} \times 8\text{ mg/kg} = 520\text{ mg/day}). Because the medication is divided into two equal doses, the single dose is 260 mg260\text{ mg} (520 mg÷2520\text{ mg} \div 2). Finally, using the available concentration of 100 mg/mL100\text{ mg/mL}, the required volume is 2.6 mL2.6\text{ mL} (260 mg÷100 mg/mL260\text{ mg} \div 100\text{ mg/mL}).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Convert pounds to kilograms.
143 lb÷2.2=65 kg143\text{ lb} \div 2.2 = 65\text{ kg}.
The prescribed dose is weight-based in kg, so the client's weight must first be converted.
2
Calculate the total daily dose.
65 kg×8 mg/kg=520 mg/day65\text{ kg} \times 8\text{ mg/kg} = 520\text{ mg/day}.
To find the total amount of medication required for a 24-hour period.
3
Determine the single dose amount.
520 mg÷2 doses=260 mg/dose520\text{ mg} \div 2\text{ doses} = 260\text{ mg/dose}.
The prescription states the daily dose is divided into two equal doses.
4
Calculate the liquid volume to administer.
(260 mg÷100 mg)×1 mL=2.6 mL260\text{ mg} \div 100\text{ mg}) \times 1\text{ mL} = 2.6\text{ mL}.
To determine how many mL provide the required single dose of 260 mg using the available concentration.

Key Concept

Weight-based dosage calculation and administration of divided doses.
Question 865Question →

A practical nurse (PN) is caring for a client being treated for a pulmonary embolism. The client is receiving a continuous intravenous heparin infusion. The health care provider prescribes oral warfarin 5 mg5\text{ mg} daily to begin today. The client's morning laboratory results show an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 115 seconds115\text{ seconds} (control: 30 seconds30\text{ seconds}) and an International Normalized Ratio (INR) of 1.11.1. The PN assesses the client and notes a blood pressure of 98/62 mm Hg98/62\text{ mm Hg} (baseline 136/84 mm Hg136/84\text{ mm Hg}) and a heart rate of 108 bpm108\text{ bpm} (baseline 74 bpm74\text{ bpm}).

Which of the following is the priority action for the practical nurse to take?

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Answer: Notify the registered nurse immediately of the assessment findings and laboratory results, and remain with the client.

Answer

The correct action is to immediately notify the registered nurse of the assessment findings and laboratory results while remaining with the client.
The correct answer involves immediately notifying the registered nurse. The client's aPTT is critically elevated at 115 seconds (therapeutic range is generally 1.5 to 2.5 times the control of 30 seconds), indicating profound anticoagulation. Combined with the sudden drop in blood pressure and increase in heart rate, the client is exhibiting early signs of internal hemorrhage. Because managing a circulatory crisis and altering a continuous intravenous infusion of a high-alert medication are outside the practical nurse's scope of practice, the immediate priority is to escalate the situation to the RN while ensuring client safety.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the laboratory values to determine the client's coagulation status.
The aPTT of 115 seconds is critically elevated (therapeutic range is 45-75 seconds), indicating a severe risk for bleeding. The INR of 1.1 is expected because oral warfarin therapy is just being initiated.
Heparin therapy is monitored via aPTT, and warfarin therapy is monitored via INR. Recognizing toxic levels is essential for medication safety.
2
Evaluate the client's vital signs compared to their baseline.
The client has developed new-onset tachycardia (HR 108 bpm) and relative hypotension (BP 98/62 mm Hg).
In the context of a critically high aPTT, these borderline vital signs are early physiological indicators of active internal hemorrhage.
3
Determine the priority action within the practical nurse's scope of practice.
The PN must immediately escalate the findings to the registered nurse (RN).
The client is experiencing a circulatory emergency. Intervening on a continuous high-alert intravenous medication like heparin falls outside the PN scope of practice, making immediate RN notification the only safe priority action.

Key Concept

Pharmacological Therapies, Adverse Effects, and Scope of Practice
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 866Question →

A client who is 12 hours postoperative following a lumbar spinal fusion is resting supine in bed. The client suddenly reports severe nausea and begins to actively vomit. Which action should the practical nurse implement first?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Request assistance to immediately logroll the client into a lateral position while maintaining straight spinal alignment.

Answer

Request assistance to immediately logroll the client into a lateral position while maintaining straight spinal alignment.
The immediate priority for an actively vomiting client is securing the airway to prevent aspiration. Because the client has undergone a lumbar spinal fusion, the spine must remain perfectly straight to prevent surgical failure and nerve injury. Logrolling the client as a single unit onto their side with assistance effectively clears the airway while maintaining the mandatory spinal alignment.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the immediate physiological threat.
The client is actively vomiting while lying supine, creating a high risk for aspiration and airway obstruction (an Airway priority).
According to the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation), clearing the airway takes precedence over all other assessments and interventions.
2
Recognize the specific postoperative physical constraints.
The client has undergone a lumbar spinal fusion, which requires the spine to remain perfectly straight at all times.
Bending, twisting, or flexing the spine (such as sitting up) can disrupt the surgical hardware and cause severe nerve damage.
3
Synthesize the airway need with the positioning constraints to determine the safest action.
The nurse must logroll the client to the side using assistance.
Logrolling is the only basic care mobility technique that safely turns the client to clear emesis from the airway without bending the spinal column.

Key Concept

Postoperative Positioning and Airway Prioritization
Question 867Question →

An adult client is receiving care on a medical unit shortly after undergoing a percutaneous liver biopsy. Upon entering the room, the practical nurse observes that the client is resting flat on their back and reporting mild soreness in the right upper abdomen. Which of the following positioning actions is the priority for the practical nurse to implement?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Assist the client to roll onto their right side and place a small towel under the biopsy site.

Answer

Assist the client to roll onto their right side and place a small towel under the biopsy site.
Following a percutaneous liver biopsy, the client is at significant risk for internal bleeding because the liver is a highly vascular organ. Assisting the client onto their right lateral decubitus position and placing a rolled towel directly under the puncture site applies localized pressure to the liver capsule against the chest wall. This mechanical pressure is critical for facilitating hemostasis and preventing hemorrhage, making it the highest priority action for basic care and comfort in this scenario.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the recent procedure and its most critical complication.
The client had a percutaneous liver biopsy, which carries a high risk of hemorrhage due to the liver's vascularity.
Understanding the primary risk determines the necessary nursing interventions.
2
Determine the anatomical location of the liver.
The liver is located in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen.
Knowing the location is essential to apply localized interventions.
3
Select the position that addresses the complication risk.
Applying direct pressure to the right side is required.
Direct pressure facilitates hemostasis (stopping blood flow) at the puncture site.
4
Evaluate the given options to find the correct positioning technique.
Rolling the client onto the right side with a towel underneath best applies the required pressure.
This specific position compresses the liver capsule against the chest wall, prioritizing circulatory safety over simple comfort.

Key Concept

Post-Procedure Positioning and Hemorrhage Prevention
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 868Question →

A practical nurse (PN) is performing a 2-hour post-procedure assessment on a client who underwent a left-sided thoracentesis with 1,200 mL of pleural fluid removed. The client's medical history includes hypertension managed with daily metoprolol. The client reports a new, persistent dry cough but denies dyspnea. Current vital signs are: heart rate 86 bpm (baseline 64 bpm), blood pressure 104/66 mm Hg (baseline 142/86 mm Hg), and respiratory rate 18 breaths/min. Which action should the PN take first?

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Answer: Notify the supervising registered nurse immediately regarding the vital sign trends and the onset of the cough.

Answer

The practical nurse must immediately notify the supervising registered nurse about the vital sign changes and the new cough.
The client is exhibiting early, subtle signs of a severe post-procedure complication, such as a pneumothorax or re-expansion pulmonary edema. The rapid removal of a large volume of pleural fluid (greater than 1,000 mL) significantly increases this risk. A new, persistent dry cough is a key early clinical indicator of these complications. Furthermore, the client's vital signs demonstrate a significant drop in blood pressure and a relative increase in heart rate. Because the client takes metoprolol (a beta-blocker), the heart rate will not elevate as dramatically as expected during hypovolemia or shock, making an increase from 64 to 86 bpm highly concerning. The practical nurse must recognize these borderline changes as signs of clinical deterioration and immediately escalate the situation to the registered nurse.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's baseline vital signs compared to current readings, noting the pharmacological effect of the client's medication.
The heart rate has increased by 22 bpm and the blood pressure has dropped significantly. Because the client takes metoprolol (a beta-blocker), the normal compensatory tachycardic response to fluid loss or shock is blunted.
Recognizing relative tachycardia in a beta-blocked patient is essential for identifying early hemodynamic instability.
2
Correlate the vital sign changes with the clinical presentation and the specific risks of the recent procedure.
The rapid removal of a large volume of pleural fluid (1,200 mL) combined with a new, persistent cough points to a developing complication such as a pneumothorax or re-expansion pulmonary edema.
A persistent dry cough is a hallmark warning sign of a severe pulmonary complication following a thoracentesis.
3
Determine the appropriate scope of practice and priority nursing action for the practical nurse.
The PN must recognize this as an unstable, potentially life-threatening situation that requires immediate escalation to the registered nurse for further assessment and intervention.
Independent interventions or assuming the findings are benign exceeds the LPN/LVN scope of practice and delays critical medical care.

Key Concept

Early Recognition of Post-Thoracentesis Complications
Question 869Question →

A practical nurse is providing morning care for a client who is recovering from a right total hip arthroplasty performed one day ago. Which of the following basic care and comfort measures are appropriate for this client? (Select all that apply)

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Use an abduction wedge or pillow between the client's legs while resting in bed.; Provide a raised toilet seat or an elevated bedside commode when assisting with bowel elimination.; Assist the client with washing their upper body while maintaining the legs in a neutral alignment.

Answer

The correct actions include using an abduction wedge between the legs, providing a raised toilet seat for elimination, and maintaining neutral leg alignment during hygiene.
Following a total hip arthroplasty, safe basic care requires maintaining the hip in abduction and avoiding flexion greater than 90 degrees. Interventions such as using an abduction wedge, providing an elevated toilet seat, and keeping legs in neutral alignment during bathing ensure proper hygiene and elimination while actively preventing joint dislocation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary safety risks associated with a total hip arthroplasty.
The main risk during basic care is hip dislocation, which is prevented by avoiding leg adduction and severe hip flexion.
Understanding specific joint precautions is necessary to provide safe comfort care and hygiene.
2
Evaluate each basic care measure against the required hip precautions.
Using an abduction wedge, a raised toilet seat, and maintaining neutral alignment all comply with safety guidelines. Sitting at 90 degrees and turning on the operative side violate these guidelines.
Nursing actions must promote daily comfort and cleanliness without compromising the surgical repair.

Key Concept

Total Hip Arthroplasty Positioning and Comfort Care
Question 870Question →

Upon entering a client's room to administer a prescribed oral analgesic, the practical nurse observes that the client is awake and watching television. Which action must the nurse take to correctly identify this client before giving the medication?

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Answer: Ask the client to state their full name and date of birth while checking their identification band.

Answer

Ask the client to state their full name and date of birth while checking their identification band.
The correct answer involves actively asking the client to provide two distinct identifiers (such as full name and date of birth) and comparing this information against their physical identification band and the medication administration record. This active verification process is a fundamental safety standard in pharmacological therapies to prevent administering medications to the wrong client.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Review the basic rights of medication administration.
Identified that verifying the 'Right Client' is the mandatory first step before dispensing any medication.
Ensures the prescribed pharmacological therapy is given to the intended person.
2
Determine the medically acceptable methods for client identification.
Recognized that standard practice requires using two distinct, client-specific identifiers (e.g., full name, date of birth, or medical record number).
Using two distinct identifiers significantly reduces the risk of wrong-patient errors.
3
Evaluate the given options to find the safest, most active identification method.
Selected the option where the client actively states their name and birth date while the nurse cross-checks the identification band.
This method avoids the pitfalls of yes/no questions and relies on approved, permanent identifiers rather than physical locations.

Key Concept

Client Identification Principles in Pharmacological Therapies
Question 871Question →

A practical nurse (PN) is preparing to administer morning medications to a client who is 2 days postoperative following a bowel resection. The client is receiving continuous intravenous (IV) fluids.

Current client data:

Assessment ParameterClient Result
Apical pulse54 beats/min
Blood pressure118/76 mm Hg
Respiratory rate16 breaths/min
Platelet count45,000/mm345,000/\text{mm}^3
Pain scale (0-10)6

Which of the following medication administration actions by the PN are appropriate? (Select all that apply.)

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Withhold the scheduled oral metoprolol and notify the registered nurse (RN) regarding the client's heart rate.; Administer the scheduled oral docusate sodium after verifying the client's name and date of birth on the identification band.; Reinforce the registered nurse's previous education regarding the expected side effects of the prescribed analgesic therapies.

Answer

The appropriate actions are to withhold the metoprolol due to bradycardia, administer the docusate after checking two distinct identifiers, and reinforce previous medication education.
The correct actions align with the practical nurse scope of practice and safe medication administration principles. Withholding the beta-blocker is clinically necessary because the client is bradycardic. Verifying the client's name and date of birth on the identification band fulfills the strict requirement for two unique identifiers. Finally, reinforcing prior education provided by the RN is a fundamental responsibility of the practical nurse.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the client's vital signs against the scheduled medications.
The apical pulse is 54 beats/min.
Beta-blockers like metoprolol decrease heart rate and are typically withheld if the pulse is less than 60 beats/min.
2
Evaluate the client's laboratory data against the scheduled medications.
The platelet count is critically low at 45,000/mm345,000/\text{mm}^3.
Anticoagulants (such as enoxaparin) are contraindicated with severe thrombocytopenia due to the extreme risk of hemorrhage.
3
Determine which medication administration tasks are within the practical nurse scope of practice.
Oral medication administration and teaching reinforcement are permitted, while IV push administration is generally not.
The PN must practice safely within legal and procedural boundaries, escalating advanced tasks like IV push to the RN.
4
Verify the correct procedure for client identification prior to administration.
Two distinct identifiers must be used (e.g., full name and date of birth).
Using only a first name risks administration errors; strict adherence to the rights of medication administration is required.

Key Concept

Safe medication administration, including evaluating clinical data, adhering to the scope of practice, and applying the rights of medication administration.
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 872Question →

An older adult with a history of heart failure received a scheduled dose of an intravenous loop diuretic at 08000800. By 10001000, the urinary catheter drainage bag contains 850 mL850\text{ mL} of clear yellow urine. The latest laboratory report indicates a serum potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L3.1\text{ mEq/L} (3.1 mmol/L3.1\text{ mmol/L}). Current vital signs include a blood pressure of 102/58 mm Hg102/58\text{ mm Hg}, a heart rate of 110 beats per minute110\text{ beats per minute}, and respirations of 18 per minute18\text{ per minute}. Based on these findings, which action should the practical nurse take first?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Report the physiological parameters and laboratory results to the supervising registered nurse.

Answer

Report the physiological parameters and laboratory results to the supervising registered nurse.
The client is exhibiting massive diuresis (850 mL850\text{ mL} in two hours), critical hypokalemia (3.1 mEq/L3.1\text{ mEq/L}), and borderline vital signs (tachycardia) indicative of early hypovolemic shock. To reduce the risk of severe cardiac dysrhythmias or cardiovascular collapse, the practical nurse must immediately escalate these critical findings to the registered nurse so the provider can be notified and the care plan adjusted.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical data and laboratory results.
Identified a critically low potassium level (3.1 mEq/L3.1\text{ mEq/L}) and signs of early hypovolemia (tachycardia, borderline hypotension, massive diuresis).
To evaluate the client's physiological response to the potent diuretic therapy.
2
Determine the risk potential and immediate clinical priorities.
Recognized that the client is at high risk for fatal cardiac dysrhythmias and hypovolemic shock.
Hypokalemia combined with rapid, excessive fluid depletion creates an unstable hemodynamic state.
3
Select the appropriate practical nursing intervention.
Escalate the critical findings to the registered nurse immediately.
Complex assessment, hemodynamic stabilization, and modification of the treatment plan fall outside the practical nurse scope of practice and require RN or provider intervention.

Key Concept

Reduction of Risk Potential: Complications of Diuretic Therapy
Question 873Question →

A practical nurse is assisting with the monitoring of a client who recently underwent a bedside thoracentesis to remove pleural fluid. Which of the following post-procedure assessment findings require immediate escalation to the registered nurse? (Select all that apply)

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The client exhibits asymmetrical chest wall expansion during inspiration.; The client's resting heart rate increases from 8282 to 124124 beats per minute with a blood pressure of 88/5688/56 mmHg.; The client reports sudden, severe chest pain accompanied by new-onset tachypnea.

Answer

The findings that require immediate escalation are asymmetrical chest wall expansion, a significantly increased heart rate combined with hypotension, and sudden severe chest pain with new-onset tachypnea.
Following a thoracentesis, there is a risk of severe complications such as pneumothorax, hemothorax, or shock. Asymmetrical chest wall expansion, sudden severe chest pain, and new-onset tachypnea are classic clinical indicators of a pneumothorax (air entering the pleural space). A significant increase in heart rate combined with hypotension indicates potential hypovolemia, hemorrhage, or tension pneumothorax. These findings represent immediate threats to the client's airway, breathing, or circulation and require immediate escalation to the registered nurse or healthcare provider to initiate emergency interventions.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the clinical scenario and the recent procedure.
The client recently underwent a bedside thoracentesis, which carries inherent risks such as pneumothorax, hemothorax, and fluid shifts.
Understanding the risks of the procedure guides the nurse in what complications to monitor for.
2
Evaluate each assessment finding against normal post-procedure parameters.
Identify which findings represent expected outcomes versus life-threatening emergencies.
Expected findings (normal labs, stable SpO2, mild local pain) require routine monitoring, whereas abnormal findings indicate severe complications.
3
Select the findings that mandate immediate escalation to the registered nurse.
Asymmetrical chest expansion, tachycardia with hypotension, and sudden severe chest pain with tachypnea are selected.
These findings directly indicate airway, breathing, or circulation compromise (such as a pneumothorax or shock) requiring urgent intervention.

Key Concept

Reduction of risk potential following invasive procedures involves recognizing early clinical indicators of life-threatening complications, such as a pneumothorax or hypovolemic shock, and escalating these findings immediately.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 874Question →

An older adult client is receiving care for a history of peptic ulcer disease. The client suddenly appears pale and anxious. The practical nurse measures the client's vital signs and notes a heart rate of 124 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 96/52 mm Hg. Which of the following actions is the priority for the nurse?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Notify the registered nurse immediately regarding the client's condition.

Answer

Notify the registered nurse immediately regarding the client's condition.
Tachycardia, hypotension, pallor, and anxiety are classic early signs of hypovolemic shock, which is a life-threatening complication of bleeding from a peptic ulcer. Within the practical nurse's scope of practice, the priority is to immediately notify the registered nurse or healthcare provider so that emergency fluid resuscitation and interventions can begin.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation.
The client is pale, anxious, tachycardic (124 bpm), and hypotensive (96/52 mm Hg) with a history of peptic ulcer disease.
Recognizing abnormal assessment findings is the first step in clinical decision-making.
2
Correlate the findings to potential complications.
These vital signs and symptoms strongly indicate active internal bleeding and early hypovolemic shock.
Understanding the pathophysiology of peptic ulcer disease helps identify life-threatening risks.
3
Determine the practical nurse's scope of practice for this situation.
The nurse must immediately escalate the situation to the registered nurse or healthcare provider.
Timely communication is required to initiate emergency interventions and reduce the risk of severe harm.

Key Concept

Early recognition and escalation of hypovolemic shock
Question 875Question →

A practical nurse and an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) are preparing to reposition a client who is 24 hours postoperative following a right total hip arthroplasty (posterior approach). Arrange the following actions in the correct sequence to safely turn the client onto their left side.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct sequence is to first control pain and adjust the bed, then place the abduction pillow, prepare the client and draw sheet, log-roll onto the unaffected side, and finally support the new position with additional pillows.
Safe repositioning post-total hip arthroplasty requires meticulous joint protection. Pain management and caregiver ergonomics are the priority foundational steps. Most critically, the abduction wedge must be placed between the legs before any movement occurs to ensure the hip remains abducted. Preparing the draw sheet and arms follows joint stabilization. The client is then log-rolled as a single unit onto the unaffected side to maintain pelvic alignment, and finally, supportive pillows are placed to sustain the position and prevent internal rotation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Verify that the client's pain is adequately controlled and adjust the bed to a safe working height.
Ensures client comfort and caregiver safety.
Pain management ensures the client can tolerate movement, while proper ergonomics prevent injury to the nurse and UAP.
2
Place a foam abduction pillow or wedge securely between the client's legs.
Stabilizes the hip joint in a safe, abducted position.
Following a posterior approach total hip arthroplasty, adduction must be avoided. The pillow must be in place before turning to prevent dislocation during movement.
3
Instruct the client to cross their arms over their chest and gather the edges of the draw sheet.
Prepares the client's body and the friction-reducing device for the turn.
Crossing the arms keeps them out of the way, and gathering the draw sheet provides the caregivers with a firm grip to control the turn.
4
Log-roll the client as a single unit onto their left, unaffected side in one coordinated motion.
Moves the client without twisting the spine or pelvis.
Log-rolling keeps the body in alignment. Turning onto the left side avoids placing direct pressure on the newly operated right hip.
5
Tuck pillows behind the client's back and ensure the right leg remains abducted and supported.
Maintains the lateral position and ensures continued joint stability.
Back support prevents the client from rolling supine, and continuous support of the right leg prevents internal rotation and adduction.

Key Concept

Following a posterior total hip arthroplasty, the operative leg must be kept in abduction and neutral alignment to prevent dislocation, requiring an abduction pillow to be placed prior to log-rolling the client.
Question 876Question →

A practical nurse is preparing to administer a large-volume cleansing enema to an adult client who is experiencing constipation. Arrange the following actions in the correct sequence. (Place the first action at the top and the final action at the bottom.)

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct sequence is to first position the client, lubricate the tubing, insert the tubing into the rectum, elevate the enema bag to initiate flow, and finally, clamp the tubing if cramping occurs.
The proper sequence for administering an enema prioritizes anatomical alignment, safety, and client comfort. Placing the client in the left Sims' position uses gravity to aid fluid flow into the descending colon. Lubrication and proper insertion depth (3 to 4 inches) prevent tissue injury. Elevating the bag 12 to 18 inches ensures a controlled infusion rate. If cramping occurs, clamping the tubing is the correct immediate intervention to relieve spasms without aborting the care task.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Position the client appropriately.
Client is in the left Sims' position.
Aligns the anatomy for optimal fluid flow into the descending colon using gravity.
2
Prepare the equipment for insertion.
The enema tip is lubricated.
Prevents friction and mucosal trauma during insertion.
3
Insert the enema tubing.
Tubing is inserted 3 to 4 inches (7.5 to 10 cm).
Safely bypasses the anal sphincter to deliver fluid directly into the rectum and colon.
4
Initiate the fluid infusion.
The bag is elevated 12 to 18 inches (30 to 45 cm) above the anus.
Controls the rate of fluid flow and internal pressure to prevent rapid bowel distention.
5
Monitor client tolerance.
Tubing is clamped if cramping is reported.
Allows intestinal spasms to subside without needing to remove the tubing or abort the procedure entirely.

Key Concept

Basic Care and Comfort: Enema Administration Sequence and Safety
Question 877Question →

An adult client is resting in bed after undergoing a right modified radical mastectomy with axillary lymph node dissection. How should the nurse position the client's right arm to promote optimal comfort and reduce swelling?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Elevated on a pillow

Answer

Elevated on a pillow
Following a mastectomy with lymph node removal, the lymphatic drainage pathways in the affected arm are significantly compromised. Elevating the arm on a pillow uses gravity to promote lymphatic and venous return. This essential basic care measure prevents lymphedema (tissue swelling), decreases tension on the surgical site, and maximizes client comfort.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the surgical procedure and its associated risks.
The client had a right mastectomy with axillary lymph node dissection, which disrupts the normal lymphatic pathways and creates a high risk for fluid accumulation (lymphedema) in the right arm.
Understanding the physiological impact of the surgery guides proper postoperative care and positioning.
2
Determine the basic care intervention that mitigates this risk.
Gravity must be used to assist the compromised lymphatic system in draining fluid away from the distal part of the arm back toward the core circulation.
Edema prevention is a fundamental component of basic care and physical comfort for post-mastectomy clients.
3
Select the position that best supports this physiological goal.
Elevating the arm on a pillow achieves the necessary drainage angle while providing soft, supportive comfort.
This is the standard, evidence-based positioning technique for this specific client population.

Key Concept

Post-mastectomy arm positioning to prevent lymphedema
Question 878Question →

During a central venous access device tubing change, the catheter accidentally disconnects. The client immediately exhibits severe dyspnea, cyanosis, and tachycardia. In what order must the nurse perform the following emergency actions to mitigate the risk of a fatal air embolism?

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

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Answer

The correct emergency sequence for a suspected air embolism is to clamp the catheter, position the client in left lateral Trendelenburg, administer oxygen, activate the rapid response team, and then obtain vital signs.
In a life-threatening emergency where an active hazard is present, the first priority is to stop the source of harm (clamping the catheter). The next priority is immediate physiological stabilization to prevent the complication from becoming fatal (positioning to trap the air, followed immediately by oxygen to treat hypoxia). Once these rapid, life-saving physical actions are completed, the nurse must call for advanced medical help. Finally, continuous assessment (obtaining vital signs) is performed to monitor the client's baseline and response to treatment while waiting for the rapid response team to arrive.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Clamp the central venous catheter.
Stops further air from entering the circulatory system.
The absolute first step in any hazard is to halt the immediate source of harm.
2
Place the client in the left lateral Trendelenburg position.
Traps the air bubble in the right atrium and ventricle.
Gravity and positioning prevent the air embolus from traveling into the pulmonary circulation, which would cause a fatal obstruction.
3
Administer high-flow oxygen.
Increases blood oxygenation and accelerates nitrogen absorption.
Treats the immediate hypoxia caused by the embolism and helps shrink the size of the air bubble.
4
Activate the rapid response team.
Summons advanced medical providers.
The client requires critical care interventions that exceed the practical nurse's scope of practice.
5
Obtain vital signs.
Establishes a hemodynamic baseline.
Monitors the client's physiological stability and response to the initial emergency interventions.

Key Concept

Emergency management and prioritization of an air embolism to reduce the risk of cardiopulmonary collapse.
Question 879Question →

A practical nurse (PN) is caring for an adult client who is receiving continuous enteral nutrition via a nasogastric (NG) tube. The client is scheduled to receive 300 mg300\text{ mg} of phenytoin. The pharmacy dispenses phenytoin oral suspension 125 mg/5 mL125\text{ mg}/5\text{ mL}. The client's morning laboratory results show a serum phenytoin level of 26 mcg/mL26\text{ mcg/mL}. During the morning assessment, the client exhibits involuntary, rapid eye movements and a noticeably unsteady gait when transferring to the chair. Which of the following actions should the PN take? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Withhold the scheduled dose of the phenytoin oral suspension.; Report the neurological assessment findings and laboratory results to the registered nurse (RN).; Implement strict fall precautions due to the client's current neurological status.

Answer

The practical nurse should withhold the dose of phenytoin, report the findings to the RN, and implement fall precautions.
The therapeutic serum level for phenytoin is 10 to 20 mcg/mL. A level of 26 mcg/mL is toxic and correlates directly with the client's clinical presentation of nystagmus (involuntary eye movements) and ataxia (unsteady gait). The practical nurse must prioritize safety by withholding the scheduled dose to prevent worsening toxicity, immediately reporting both the clinical findings and the critical laboratory value to the registered nurse, and initiating fall precautions to protect the neurologically impaired client.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the laboratory value.
The serum phenytoin level is 26 mcg/mL26\text{ mcg/mL}, which exceeds the normal therapeutic range of 10−20 mcg/mL10-20\text{ mcg/mL}.
Recognizing a toxic drug level is the first step in prioritizing medication safety.
2
Correlate the physical assessment findings with the medication profile.
Involuntary eye movements (nystagmus) and an unsteady gait (ataxia) are classic, direct manifestations of central nervous system toxicity from elevated phenytoin levels.
Connecting physiological symptoms to pharmacological effects determines whether a drug should be administered or withheld.
3
Determine the appropriate interventions within the practical nurse scope of practice.
The nurse must withhold the toxic medication, protect the client from physical harm (fall precautions), and communicate the critical data to the supervising RN.
Safe nursing practice requires recognizing out-of-scope tasks (like IV push meds) and prioritizing immediate patient safety and chain-of-command reporting.
4
Evaluate the mathematical calculation presented in the distractors.
Using the formula (Desired / Have) * Volume: (300 mg/125 mg)×5 mL=12 mL(300\text{ mg} / 125\text{ mg}) \times 5\text{ mL} = 12\text{ mL}. The distractor offering 24 mL24\text{ mL} is mathematically incorrect.
Identifying calculation errors prevents dangerous overdosing, reinforcing standard medication administration rights.

Key Concept

Phenytoin Toxicity and Practical Nurse Scope of Practice
Question 880Question →

A client who is unresponsive following a traumatic brain injury is receiving continuous enteral feedings via a gastrostomy tube. The health care provider prescribes scheduled liquid oral phenytoin for seizure prophylaxis. The practical nurse is preparing to administer the medication. Which action should the nurse take?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Stop the continuous enteral feeding for 1 to 2 hours before administering the phenytoin dose.

Answer

The correct action is to pause the continuous enteral feeding for 1 to 2 hours prior to administering the liquid phenytoin.
The correct action is to pause the continuous enteral feeding for 1 to 2 hours before administering the medication. Enteral feeding formulas significantly decrease the absorption of oral phenytoin in the gastrointestinal tract. If the feeding is not paused, the client may develop subtherapeutic phenytoin levels, increasing the risk of breakthrough seizures. The feeding should also remain paused for 1 to 2 hours after administration to allow for complete drug absorption.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Review the prescribed medication and the client's current nutritional therapy.
The client is prescribed oral phenytoin and is receiving continuous enteral formula via a gastrostomy tube.
Identifying concurrent therapies is essential to prevent drug-nutrient interactions.
2
Analyze the specific interactions between phenytoin and enteral feeding formulas.
Enteral formulas contain proteins and calcium that bind to phenytoin in the gastrointestinal tract, significantly decreasing drug absorption.
Understanding the pharmacokinetic interaction guides the administration protocol.
3
Implement the necessary safety intervention for administration.
The continuous enteral feeding is stopped for 1 to 2 hours before the medication is given.
Pausing the feeding creates an empty stomach environment, ensuring maximum absorption of the phenytoin to maintain therapeutic seizure prophylaxis.

Key Concept

Phenytoin Administration with Enteral Feedings
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