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Question 221Question →

A nurse is caring for a client with cervical cancer who is receiving intracavitary brachytherapy with a sealed radioactive implant. Upon entering the room, the nurse discovers that the radioactive applicator has dislodged and is lying on the bed linens. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?

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Answer: Use long-handled forceps to retrieve the applicator and place it into the lead-lined container.

Answer

The priority action is to use the long-handled forceps to retrieve the applicator and place it into the lead-lined container.
The correct answer is to use the long-handled forceps to place the implant into the lead-lined container. When a client receives sealed internal radiation therapy (brachytherapy), a lead-lined container and long-handled forceps must be kept in the client's room at all times. If the implant becomes dislodged, the priority action is to minimize radiation exposure by immediately utilizing the principles of distance and shielding. The nurse should use the forceps to pick up the radioactive source and place it in the lead container, never touching it directly.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the immediate environmental hazard.
An unshielded, sealed radioactive source is exposed on the bed linens.
A dislodged radioactive implant continuously emits ionizing radiation, posing an immediate exposure risk to the client, the nurse, and other personnel.
2
Determine the standard safety protocol for a dislodged radioactive source.
The protocol requires securing the source using specific radiological safety equipment rather than biological hazard protocols.
Rooms for clients undergoing brachytherapy are mandated to be equipped with long-handled forceps and a lead-lined container (pig) at all times for this exact emergency.
3
Select the priority nursing intervention based on time and distance principles of radiation safety.
The nurse must immediately use the forceps to place the implant into the lead-lined container.
This action safely contains the radiation using distance (forceps) and shielding (lead container), which protects everyone from ongoing exposure.

Key Concept

Management of a dislodged sealed radioactive source (Brachytherapy)
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 222Question →

An 81-year-old client with bulbar amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is admitted for treatment of aspiration pneumonia. The client has a newly inserted percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube for continuous enteral feeding, a Stage II sacral pressure injury, and exhibits intermittent periods of profound disorientation. Which nursing interventions are appropriate for this client's basic care and comfort? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Ensure the upper body remains inclined at a 30-degree to 45-degree angle during active administration of the prescribed enteral nutrition.; Position the client using a 30-degree lateral tilt, alternating between the left and right sides, to alleviate direct mechanical pressure on the sacral region.

Answer

The correct interventions are maintaining the upper body at a 30-to-45-degree angle during feedings and utilizing a 30-degree lateral tilt to offload sacral pressure.
Clients receiving continuous enteral nutrition are highly susceptible to aspiration; keeping the upper body elevated at 30 to 45 degrees utilizes gravity to reduce this risk. Furthermore, for clients with existing sacral pressure injuries, a 30-degree lateral tilt is the optimal, evidence-based position to offload direct pressure from the bony prominences of the coccyx while avoiding the excessive trochanteric pressure caused by full 90-degree side-lying.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical profile and associated risks.
The client has a high risk for aspiration (bulbar ALS, previous aspiration pneumonia, continuous PEG feeding), impaired tissue integrity (Stage II sacral injury), and acute confusion.
Identifying overlapping acute and chronic issues dictates the prioritization of safe basic care interventions.
2
Evaluate interventions related to enteral feeding safety.
Positioning the client at a 30-45 degree angle is standard safe practice to prevent aspiration. Lowering the bed to a flat position without stopping the continuous infusion is highly contraindicated.
Gravity is necessary to prevent reflux of enteral formula from the stomach into the esophagus and airway.
3
Determine the appropriate intervention for the sacral pressure injury.
A 30-degree lateral tilt alternates pressure off the sacrum without causing new pressure injuries on the hip bones, making it the optimal evidence-based positioning strategy.
Traditional 90-degree side-lying positions create intense pressure over the trochanter, exacerbating skin breakdown rather than preventing it.
4
Critique the remaining options regarding delegation, safety, and cognitive assessment.
UAP cannot evaluate wounds, restraints are a last resort (not an immediate solution), and sudden confusion is a pathological symptom, not normal aging.
Nursing care must adhere to legal scopes of practice, prioritize least-restrictive safety environments, and accurately distinguish between senescence and acute disease processes.

Key Concept

Basic Care and Comfort: Positioning, Skin Integrity, and Safe Care Environment
Question 223Question →

An occupational health nurse is developing a comprehensive lifestyle modification plan for a 65-year-old night-shift security guard who has newly diagnosed primary hypertension and a body mass index (BMI) of 31 kg/m². Which of the following nursing interventions are appropriate? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Advise the client to install blackout window shades and maintain a consistent daytime sleep schedule, even on days off.; Collaborate with the client to establish a goal of at least 150 minutes of moderate-intensity aerobic exercise per week.; Educate the client on the Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension (DASH) eating plan, emphasizing a daily sodium limit of less than 2,300 mg.

Answer

The correct interventions are advising the client on shift-worker sleep hygiene (blackout shades, consistent schedule), establishing a goal of 150 minutes of weekly aerobic exercise, and educating on the DASH diet with sodium restriction.
Appropriate lifestyle modifications for this client include addressing sleep disturbances common in night-shift workers by promoting a dark sleeping environment and a consistent daytime sleep schedule. Furthermore, evidence-based cardiovascular risk reduction requires participating in at least 150 minutes of moderate aerobic exercise weekly and adhering to the DASH eating plan, which includes a sodium limit of less than 2,300 mg per day to effectively manage primary hypertension.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical profile and risk factors.
The client is a 65-year-old night-shift worker with primary hypertension and obesity.
Identifying specific physiological and occupational risk factors is necessary to individualize lifestyle modifications.
2
Evaluate appropriate evidence-based lifestyle interventions for the identified risk factors.
Targeted interventions must address sleep hygiene (for the night shift), safe exercise parameters (for obesity), and dietary modifications (DASH diet for hypertension).
Comprehensive health promotion requires addressing multiple domains of lifestyle behavior simultaneously.
3
Identify and eliminate inappropriate or unsafe nursing actions from the choices.
Options involving improper delegation, dismissing hypertension as a normal aging process, and using confrontational communication are eliminated.
These actions violate standards of practice, demonstrate a misunderstanding of developmental pathophysiology, and utilize non-therapeutic communication blocks.

Key Concept

Comprehensive lifestyle modification for cardiovascular risk reduction and occupational sleep hygiene.
Question 224Question →

A nurse is planning care for an older adult client who is on strict bed rest due to severe generalized weakness. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the client's plan of care? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Place a pillow between the client's knees and ankles when turning them to a side-lying position; Apply a moisture-barrier ointment to the perineal skin after cleansing following an incontinence episode

Answer

The correct interventions are placing a pillow between the knees and ankles when side-lying, and applying a moisture-barrier ointment to the perineal skin.
Appropriate basic care for an immobile older adult prioritizes the prevention of pressure injuries and the maintenance of skin integrity. Placing a pillow between the knees and ankles when the client is side-lying prevents bony prominences from rubbing together, which reduces friction and pressure. Applying a moisture-barrier ointment after incontinence protects the epidermis from maceration and chemical irritation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary risks for an older adult client on strict bed rest.
The client is at high risk for skin breakdown, pressure injuries, and joint contractures.
Immobility limits circulation to dependent areas and causes continuous pressure on bony prominences.
2
Select interventions that directly mitigate these risks while adhering to nursing scope of practice.
Pillows between joints prevent friction, and moisture barriers prevent maceration. Both are essential basic care actions.
These proactive measures maintain physiological integrity without violating safety or delegation guidelines.

Key Concept

Basic care and comfort principles for immobile clients focus on maintaining skin integrity, preventing pressure injuries, and promoting proper body alignment.
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 225Question →

A nurse is removing a non-tunneled central venous access device (CVAD) from a client's right subclavian vein. Immediately after the catheter is withdrawn, the client exhibits sudden, severe dyspnea, diaphoresis, and a loud, continuous "churning" murmur over the precordium. To mitigate the risk of fatal hemodynamic collapse, arrange the following nursing actions in the priority order they should be performed. (Place the first action at the top and the last action at the bottom.)

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Answer

The correct priority sequence is: 1) Occlude the insertion site, 2) Position the client in left lateral Trendelenburg, 3) Administer 100% oxygen, 4) Activate the rapid response team, and 5) Ensure availability of the emergency crash cart.
An air embolism is a critical complication characterized by sudden respiratory distress and a 'mill wheel' (churning) murmur. The highest priority is to stop the entry of air by sealing the site. Following this, the left lateral Trendelenburg position uses gravity to keep the air bubble away from the right ventricular outflow tract. Administering oxygen is next to combat hypoxia and shrink the embolus. Once the client is temporarily protected from immediate death, calling for emergency assistance and preparing for a potential code are the next logical steps.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Occlude the insertion site immediately with an occlusive dressing.
Further entrainment of air into the venous circulation is halted.
Air embolism is driven by negative intrathoracic pressure pulling air into the unsealed vein tract. Stopping the source is the single most critical intervention.
2
Place the client in the left lateral Trendelenburg position.
The air bubble is mechanically trapped in the right atrium and the apex of the right ventricle.
This prevents the air from advancing into the pulmonary vasculature, which would block blood flow to the lungs and cause immediate cardiovascular collapse.
3
Administer 100% oxygen via a non-rebreather mask.
Systemic hypoxia is mitigated and the size of the air embolus begins to decrease.
High-flow oxygen facilitates nitrogen washout from the embolus, accelerating its resorption into the bloodstream.
4
Activate the facility's rapid response team.
Advanced care providers are mobilized to the client's bedside.
After the nurse has stabilized the immediate physiological threat, medical intervention is required for definitive care (e.g., inotropes, potential aspiration of air).
5
Ensure immediate availability of the emergency crash cart.
Resuscitation equipment is placed on standby.
Despite initial interventions, a massive air embolism has a high risk of progressing to cardiac arrest, requiring immediate defibrillation and advanced airway management.

Key Concept

Management of a suspected air embolism requires immediate source control (occlusion), specific physiological positioning (left lateral Trendelenburg) to prevent pulmonary outflow obstruction, and rapid oxygenation before delaying care to summon help.
Question 226Question →

A 15-year-old client is receiving treatment in the emergency department for injuries sustained in a sports accident. The client's divorced parents are arguing loudly in the hallway outside the room regarding the proposed treatment plan, which is visibly upsetting the conscious client. In what order should the nurse perform the following actions to de-escalate the family crisis and establish boundaries? Arrange the nursing actions from first to last.

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Answer

The nurse must first ensure the adolescent's emotional safety, separate the arguing parents from the clinical area, validate their feelings to de-escalate the situation, set behavioral limits, and finally address the administrative issue of consent.
When managing acute family conflict and dysfunctional dynamics in a clinical setting, the nurse must apply Maslow's hierarchy and crisis intervention principles. The priority is the direct client's safety and psychological well-being, achieved by ensuring a staff member remains with the adolescent. Next, the nurse must protect the unit milieu by relocating the disruption to a private area. Once in a private setting, de-escalation begins with therapeutic validation of the parents' feelings, followed by setting firm behavioral limits. Only after the emotional crisis is managed should the nurse address the specific logistical cause of the argument, which in this case is determining legal consent authority.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Ensure the client has immediate support by assigning a colleague to the bedside.
The client is emotionally supported and protected from further immediate distress.
The client's immediate psychological and physical safety is always the highest nursing priority.
2
Direct the parents to a private room away from the clinical area.
The argument is removed from the unit milieu.
Separating the conflicting parties from the stressor (the treatment area) is the first physical step in crisis de-escalation.
3
Validate the parents' underlying concerns using therapeutic communication.
The parents feel heard, which lowers their emotional reactivity and defensiveness.
De-escalation requires establishing a baseline of empathy before rules can be enforced or problems can be solved.
4
Set clear limits on acceptable behavior.
Therapeutic boundaries are established for the remainder of the hospital stay.
Clear boundaries maintain a safe environment for care delivery and prevent a recurrence of the crisis.
5
Check the medical record for legal guardianship and consent authority.
The clinical dispute is resolved using objective legal documentation.
Administrative conflict resolution cannot succeed while the parties are in an acute state of emotional dysregulation.

Key Concept

Family crisis de-escalation and therapeutic boundary setting
Question 227Question →

A nurse is providing care for a client who has a heavily draining wound infected with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). When handling the infectious materials, laboratory specimens, and waste in this room, which of the following actions by the nurse are correct? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Disposing of wound dressings that are saturated with purulent drainage into a red biohazard bag.; Enclosing the sealed wound culture tube inside a secondary biohazard transport bag before sending it to the laboratory.; Placing soiled linens into a designated, leak-proof laundry bag before exiting the client's room.

Answer

The correct actions include disposing of saturated dressings in a red biohazard bag, using a secondary biohazard bag for laboratory specimens, and placing soiled linens in a leak-proof bag inside the client's room.
The correct actions align with established infection control protocols for handling infectious materials. Saturated dressings pose an exposure risk and belong in a red biohazard bag. All laboratory specimens require a secondary biohazard transport bag to prevent leaks during transit. Soiled linens must be bagged inside the client's room in a leak-proof container to prevent cross-contamination of the hospital environment.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the requirements for disposing of saturated infectious waste.
Dressings saturated with blood or purulent drainage (body fluids) meet the criteria for regulated medical waste and must be placed in a red biohazard bag.
This safely contains the infectious material and alerts waste handlers to the presence of biohazardous waste.
2
Determine the correct procedure for handling and transporting laboratory specimens.
All laboratory specimens must be placed in a sealed primary container and then placed into a secondary sealable biohazard bag.
The secondary bag prevents environmental contamination and protects transport personnel in the event that the primary container leaks.
3
Evaluate the protocol for handling soiled linens.
Linens should be placed directly into a designated, leak-proof laundry bag at the site of use (inside the room).
Bagging linens at the point of origin prevents the dispersal of pathogens into the environment during transport.

Key Concept

Proper containment, handling, and disposal of hazardous and infectious materials
Question 228Question →

A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who is 2 hours postoperative following a total thyroidectomy. Which of the following nursing actions are appropriate to reduce the risk of postoperative complications? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Maintain the client in a semi-Fowler's position with pillows supporting the head and neck.; Keep a tracheostomy tray, suction equipment, and supplemental oxygen readily available at the bedside.; Ask the client to speak briefly every 1 to 2 hours to monitor for changes in voice quality.

Answer

The appropriate actions include maintaining a semi-Fowler's position with neck support, keeping emergency airway equipment at the bedside, and assessing voice quality frequently.
The correct actions actively prevent or prepare for life-threatening complications. Semi-Fowler's positioning minimizes airway edema and suture tension. Bedside emergency equipment ensures immediate readiness for airway obstruction. Periodic voice assessments effectively monitor for laryngeal nerve damage.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the surgical procedure and its specific high-risk complications.
A total thyroidectomy carries significant risks of airway obstruction, hemorrhage, hypocalcemia, and laryngeal nerve damage.
Anticipating specific surgical complications is the foundation of effective risk reduction.
2
Evaluate positioning strategies for the post-thyroidectomy client.
Semi-Fowler's position is indicated; the supine position is contraindicated.
Elevating the head reduces neck edema, and supporting the neck prevents tension on the surgical incision.
3
Determine appropriate assessment and monitoring responsibilities.
The nurse must monitor early signs of shock (tachycardia) rather than late signs (hypotension), and must independently assess the surgical site.
Early recognition prevents severe physiological decompensation, and clinical assessments cannot be delegated to assistive personnel.

Key Concept

Reduction of Risk Potential: Postoperative Complications
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 229Question →

A nurse is caring for a client who underwent a percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) via the right femoral artery 3 hours ago. The client's current vital signs are: blood pressure 104/62 mmHg (baseline 128/78 mmHg) and heart rate 102 bpm (baseline 76 bpm). The client reports new-onset moderate right flank pain. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial nursing action?

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Answer: Assess the client's retroperitoneal area for firmness or ecchymosis and maintain strict supine positioning.

Answer

The most appropriate initial action is to assess the client's retroperitoneal area for firmness or ecchymosis and maintain strict supine positioning.
The client's decreasing blood pressure, increasing heart rate, and new-onset flank pain strongly suggest retroperitoneal bleeding, a life-threatening complication of femoral artery access. The immediate priority is to assess for further signs of bleeding (such as ecchymosis or a hematoma) while keeping the client strictly supine to prevent tension on the arterial puncture site.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation.
The client exhibits hypotension, tachycardia, and new flank pain following a femoral artery catheterization.
These findings are classic indicators of retroperitoneal hemorrhage, a serious complication of femoral access.
2
Determine the safest and most effective immediate intervention.
The nurse must visually and physically assess for internal bleeding while keeping the affected extremity straight and flat.
Early identification of retroperitoneal bleeding allows for rapid risk mitigation, and keeping the client flat prevents disruption of the arterial puncture site.

Key Concept

Early recognition and risk mitigation of retroperitoneal hemorrhage following femoral artery catheterization.
Question 230Question →

A nurse is removing a central venous catheter from a client's subclavian vein. Immediately after the catheter is withdrawn, the client suddenly gasps for air, reports sharp chest pain, and becomes severely dyspneic and pale. Suspecting an air embolism, arrange the following nursing actions in the priority order they should be performed to reduce the risk of a fatal cardiopulmonary complication.

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Answer

The correct priority sequence is: first, apply a sterile occlusive dressing; second, position the client in the left lateral Trendelenburg position; third, administer 100% oxygen; fourth, activate the rapid response system; and finally, initiate continuous monitoring.
In the event of a suspected air embolism during central line removal, the nurse's immediate goal is risk reduction through sequential mechanical and physiological interventions. Applying an occlusive dressing stops further air entrainment. The left lateral Trendelenburg position then traps the air in the right ventricle, preventing a catastrophic pulmonary artery occlusion. High-flow oxygen is administered to treat tissue hypoxia and accelerate nitrogen resorption from the embolus. Only after these immediate, life-saving bedside steps are taken should the nurse activate the rapid response team, followed by continuous hemodynamic monitoring to evaluate the client's status.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Apply a sterile occlusive dressing firmly over the insertion site.
Further air entry into the venous system is immediately halted.
Every second the site remains open allows more air to be entrained, rapidly worsening the embolus. Stopping the source is the immediate mechanical priority.
2
Place the client in the left lateral Trendelenburg position.
The air embolus is trapped in the apex of the right ventricle.
This specific position utilizes gravity to prevent the air from migrating into the pulmonary artery, which would cause an infarction and cardiopulmonary collapse.
3
Administer 100% oxygen via a non-rebreather mask.
Hypoxia is addressed and the size of the nitrogen-based air bubble begins to shrink.
High-flow oxygen creates a diffusion gradient that accelerates the resorption of nitrogen gas from the embolus into the bloodstream while treating tissue ischemia.
4
Activate the rapid response system and notify the healthcare provider.
Advanced medical assistance and diagnostic support are summoned to the bedside.
After stabilizing the client with immediate nursing interventions, advanced medical care is required for definitive treatment.
5
Initiate continuous monitoring of vital signs and oxygen saturation.
The client's physiological status is closely observed for further decompensation.
Ongoing assessment evaluates the effectiveness of the initial interventions and guides further resuscitation efforts by the medical team.

Key Concept

Emergency management and risk reduction of a central line-associated air embolism.
Question 231Question →

Following a precipitous vaginal birth of a macrosomic newborn, a client is transferred to the postpartum unit. During the initial assessment 45 minutes after delivery, the nurse observes a continuous, steady trickle of bright red vaginal blood. Palpation reveals the uterine fundus is midline and firmly contracted at the level of the umbilicus. The client's heart rate is 118 beats/minute, blood pressure is 90/58 mmHg, and respiratory rate is 22 breaths/minute. The client states, "I feel incredibly dizzy and my mouth is extremely dry." Which action is the highest priority for the nurse to perform?

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Answer: Initiate a rapid infusion of isotonic intravenous fluids and immediately notify the attending provider.

Answer

Initiate a rapid infusion of isotonic intravenous fluids and immediately notify the attending provider.
The clinical presentation of a continuous trickle of bright red blood alongside a firm, midline fundus strongly suggests a genital tract laceration (trauma) rather than uterine atony (tone). The client's tachycardia, hypotension, dizziness, and extreme thirst are early physiological indicators of hypovolemic shock. Because a laceration requires surgical repair, the immediate priority is to support the client's circulating volume with intravenous fluids and notify the provider for definitive intervention.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the physical assessment findings of the uterus.
The uterine fundus is firm and midline, indicating the uterus is well-contracted. Uterine atony and bladder distention are ruled out as primary causes of the bleeding.
Establishing the tone of the uterus is the crucial first step in differentiating the etiology of postpartum hemorrhage (the 4 Ts: Tone, Trauma, Tissue, Thrombin).
2
Interpret the characteristics of the vaginal bleeding.
A continuous, steady trickle of bright red blood in the presence of a firmly contracted uterus strongly points to trauma, such as a cervical, vaginal, or perineal laceration.
Lacerations are common following precipitous births or the delivery of a macrosomic infant, causing persistent arterial or venous bleeding despite a firm fundus.
3
Evaluate the client's vital signs and reported symptoms.
Tachycardia (118 bpm), hypotension (90/58 mmHg), dizziness, and extreme thirst indicate decreasing intravascular volume and the onset of early hemorrhagic shock.
Recognizing early shock is critical for initiating timely resuscitation before severe end-organ perfusion deficits occur.
4
Select the priority nursing intervention.
The nurse must simultaneously initiate intravenous fluid resuscitation to stabilize hemodynamics and notify the obstetric provider for surgical repair of the laceration.
Genital tract lacerations cannot be managed with standard nursing interventions like fundal massage or medications; they require definitive surgical repair by a healthcare provider.

Key Concept

Differentiation and management of postpartum hemorrhage etiologies (Atony vs. Laceration)
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 232Question →

During the immediate postoperative period following a coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) procedure, the client's mediastinal chest tube drainage abruptly stops. The client becomes increasingly restless and diaphoresis is noted. Which of the following subsequent clinical findings support a developing complication of cardiac tamponade? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Paradoxical blood pressure drop of 15 mm Hg during inspiration; Distant, muffled heart tones upon auscultation; Jugular venous distention while the head of the bed is elevated at 45 degrees

Answer

The clinical findings that support a diagnosis of cardiac tamponade are a paradoxical blood pressure drop of 15 mm Hg during inspiration, distant and muffled heart tones, and jugular venous distention.
Cardiac tamponade is an acute obstructive shock state caused by fluid accumulation in the pericardium. It restricts ventricular filling, leading to a drop in systolic blood pressure during inspiration greater than 10 mm Hg (pulsus paradoxus). The fluid insulates the heart, causing muffled heart tones. Furthermore, elevated right-sided heart pressures back up into the systemic circulation, causing jugular venous distention.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the clinical scenario of abrupt chest tube cessation after open-heart surgery.
The abrupt cessation suggests that blood is no longer draining and is instead accumulating in the pericardial space.
Retained blood in the mediastinum can quickly compress the heart muscle, severely restricting ventricular filling.
2
Identify the classic physiological indicators of an obstructive shock state.
The nurse must recognize the components of Beck's triad (hypotension, muffled heart sounds, jugular venous distention) alongside pulsus paradoxus.
These specific signs directly reflect the mechanical compression of the heart and the subsequent backup of systemic venous return.
3
Differentiate the expected findings from incorrect compensatory mechanisms.
Confirm pulsus paradoxus, muffled tones, and JVD. Reject widening pulse pressure, bradycardia, and metabolic alkalosis.
Shock induces compensatory tachycardia (not bradycardia), a narrowing pulse pressure (not widening), and metabolic acidosis due to tissue hypoxia (not alkalosis).

Key Concept

Cardiac Tamponade and Obstructive Shock
Question 233Question →

An occupational health nurse at an industrial manufacturing plant is reviewing proposed employee wellness initiatives for the upcoming quarter. Which of the following activities accurately represent secondary disease prevention measures? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Performing routine blood lead level evaluations for workers handling battery components.; Conducting audiometric hearing examinations for employees exposed to high-decibel machinery.; Measuring blood pressure and fasting blood glucose during the annual employee health fair.

Answer

The secondary prevention activities include performing routine blood lead level evaluations, conducting audiometric hearing examinations, and measuring blood pressure and fasting blood glucose.
The correct answers all describe screening activities designed to detect disease or injury in its earliest, asymptomatic stages. By identifying elevated lead levels, early hearing loss, or abnormal vital signs and glucose levels, the occupational health nurse can intervene promptly to prevent further deterioration, fulfilling the core goal of secondary prevention.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Define the three levels of disease prevention.
Primary prevention prevents disease onset. Secondary prevention focuses on early detection and screening. Tertiary prevention focuses on rehabilitation and preventing complications of an established disease.
Establishing clear definitions is necessary to accurately categorize each proposed nursing intervention.
2
Evaluate the activities involving screening and testing.
Blood lead evaluations, audiometric exams, and blood pressure/glucose measurements are all screening tools used to detect conditions early.
Early detection identifies subclinical disease or injury before symptoms appear, which is the hallmark of secondary prevention.
3
Evaluate the remaining activities against prevention definitions.
Ergonomic modifications and vaccines prevent disease or injury before they occur (primary). Return-to-work programs manage recovery from an existing cardiovascular event (tertiary).
Interventions aimed at removing risk factors or rehabilitating known conditions do not qualify as secondary prevention.

Key Concept

Secondary prevention focuses on early detection, screening, and prompt intervention to halt the progression of an asymptomatic illness or injury.
Question 234Question →

A client arrives at a community health clinic reporting severe muscle aches, insomnia, stomach cramps, and a constantly runny nose that began early in the morning. During the interview, the nurse observes that the client is highly restless, yawning frequently, and has noticeably dilated pupils. The client insists on receiving a strong antibiotic to treat these "severe flu symptoms." Which response or action by the nurse is the priority?

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Answer: Inquire about the client's recent use of and potential sudden cessation of prescription or illicit opioids.

Answer

The priority action is to inquire about the client's recent use and potential cessation of opioids, as the symptom cluster strongly indicates opioid withdrawal.
The client's presentation of rhinorrhea, myalgia, insomnia, gastrointestinal distress, restlessness, yawning, and mydriasis (dilated pupils) are classic physiological signs of opioid withdrawal. Recognizing this specific cluster of symptoms is crucial for the nurse to initiate a targeted substance use history and appropriate interventions rather than mistakenly treating the presentation as a standard infectious disease.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's physical symptoms and behavioral cues.
The client presents with myalgia, insomnia, abdominal cramping, rhinorrhea, restlessness, yawning, and mydriasis.
Identifying the specific symptom cluster is necessary to differentiate between a standard infectious process and substance-related emergencies.
2
Synthesize the findings to formulate a clinical suspicion.
The combination of symptoms matches the classic clinical presentation of acute opioid withdrawal, not influenza.
Flu typically presents with fever, dry cough, and fatigue, whereas yawning, pupil dilation, and severe restlessness are hallmark indicators of opioid withdrawal.
3
Determine the priority nursing intervention based on the assessment.
The nurse must immediately assess for substance use history to confirm the suspicion and guide medical management.
Accurate identification of withdrawal is required to implement safety measures, prevent symptom escalation, and provide targeted pharmacological support.

Key Concept

Opioid Withdrawal Clinical Manifestations
Question 235Question →

A client on a medical-surgical unit is receiving an infusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) for symptomatic anemia. Ten minutes after the transfusion begins, the client reports sudden severe lower back pain, dyspnea, and chills. The nurse notes visible flushing and shivering. Place the following nursing interventions in the correct order of priority. (Arrange from first action to last action.)

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Answer

The correct sequence of actions for a suspected blood transfusion reaction is: 1) Stop the blood transfusion immediately. 2) Change the IV tubing and infuse 0.9% sodium chloride. 3) Assess the client's vital signs and clinical status. 4) Notify the primary healthcare provider and the blood bank. 5) Return the blood bag, attached tubing, and labels to the blood bank.
In any adverse transfusion reaction, the absolute first priority is to remove the source of harm (stop the transfusion). The second priority is to maintain an open venous access line for emergency medications using entirely new tubing and normal saline. Assessing the client follows securing the line, providing the necessary clinical data to report to the healthcare provider. The provider is then notified, and finally, administrative and diagnostic protocols such as returning the blood to the lab are completed.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Stop the transfusion immediately.
Halts the entry of incompatible blood into the client's systemic circulation.
Continuing the transfusion exacerbates the acute hemolytic reaction, increasing the risk of cardiovascular collapse and acute kidney injury.
2
Change IV tubing and run normal saline.
Maintains intravenous access without flushing the remaining blood product into the client.
If the existing tubing is used to flush normal saline, the client will receive the blood left in the line. A new line ensures safe access for emergency drugs.
3
Assess the client's vital signs and respiratory status.
Gathers objective data regarding the client's hemodynamic stability.
The nurse must have current vital signs (e.g., blood pressure, oxygen saturation) and clinical findings to accurately report the client's condition to the provider.
4
Notify the healthcare provider and blood bank.
Triggers medical intervention and laboratory investigation.
The provider will prescribe necessary emergency interventions, and the blood bank must initiate their transfusion reaction protocols.
5
Return the blood products and tubing to the blood bank.
Preserves the physical evidence of the reaction.
The blood bank must test the bag, tubing, and labels to determine if there was a crossmatching error or bacterial contamination.

Key Concept

Management of acute hemolytic transfusion reactions requires immediate cessation of the blood product, maintaining a patent IV with new tubing, and comprehensive client assessment before provider notification.
Question 236Question →

A client is recovering 24 hours post-operatively following an emergency repair of a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm. Due to significant intraoperative blood loss, the client required massive fluid and blood product resuscitation. The nurse assesses the client and notes a tensely distended abdomen, a sudden decrease in urine output to 12 mL/hr, and increasing peak inspiratory pressures on the mechanical ventilator. Current hemodynamic monitoring reveals a blood pressure of 84/46 mm Hg, a heart rate of 128 beats/min, and a central venous pressure (CVP) of 18 mm Hg. Which of the following is the nurse's MOST appropriate initial action?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Measure the client's intra-abdominal pressure using the indwelling urinary catheter.

Answer

The nurse should measure the intra-abdominal pressure using the indwelling urinary catheter.
The client's clinical presentation is the classic triad of Abdominal Compartment Syndrome (ACS): a tense abdomen, oliguria, and increased peak airway pressures following massive fluid resuscitation. The severe intra-abdominal edema increases intra-abdominal pressure, which pushes upward against the diaphragm (causing high peak airway pressures) and compresses the vena cava and renal veins (causing decreased venous return, hypotension, tachycardia, and oliguria). The increased intrathoracic pressure falsely elevates the central venous pressure (CVP). The priority initial nursing action is to objectively measure the intra-abdominal pressure, typically done by instilling sterile saline into the bladder via an indwelling catheter and connecting it to a pressure transducer, to confirm the diagnosis.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's multi-system clinical presentation.
The client has a tense abdomen, oliguria (12 mL/hr), high peak inspiratory pressures, hypotension (84/46 mm Hg), tachycardia (128 beats/min), and an elevated CVP (18 mm Hg) following massive fluid resuscitation.
Identifying abnormal and seemingly contradictory findings is the first step in advanced clinical reasoning.
2
Correlate the findings with a unifying pathophysiological mechanism.
Massive fluid resuscitation leads to severe bowel edema. The resulting increased intra-abdominal pressure compresses the renal veins (causing oliguria) and the inferior vena cava (decreasing venous return, leading to hypotension and tachycardia). It also pushes the diaphragm upward, causing high peak airway pressures and falsely elevating intrathoracic pressure (creating a high CVP artifact).
Connecting these specific respiratory, renal, and hemodynamic symptoms identifies Abdominal Compartment Syndrome (ACS).
3
Determine the priority diagnostic or therapeutic intervention.
Before definitive surgical decompression (laparotomy) can be performed, the nurse must confirm the diagnosis by objectively measuring the intra-abdominal pressure via the urinary bladder.
Measuring intra-abdominal pressure is the gold-standard initial diagnostic action for suspected ACS.

Key Concept

Abdominal Compartment Syndrome (ACS) Pathophysiology and Assessment
Question 237Question →

A client hospitalized with a massive pulmonary embolism is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of unfractionated heparin through a single-lumen peripheral catheter. The client develops a systemic bloodstream infection, and the healthcare provider prescribes an intermittent intravenous infusion of vancomycin to run over 90 minutes. Upon consulting the facility's parenteral drug reference, the nurse notes that heparin and vancomycin are physically incompatible. Which action represents the safest nursing practice in this situation?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Insert a second peripheral intravenous catheter to administer the vancomycin infusion.

Answer

The safest nursing action is to establish a second peripheral intravenous catheter to administer the vancomycin independently.
The safest approach when administering an incompatible prolonged intermittent infusion (such as a 90-minute vancomycin dose) to a client receiving a critical, short-acting continuous infusion (such as heparin for a pulmonary embolism) is to obtain a second intravenous access site. Heparin has a very short half-life (60 to 90 minutes). Pausing it for the duration of the vancomycin infusion would cause the client's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) to drop well below the therapeutic range, dangerously increasing the risk of pulmonary embolism extension. Therefore, both medications must run concurrently through completely separate vascular access lines.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the critical nature of the continuous heparin infusion.
Recognize that heparin is actively treating a life-threatening pulmonary embolism and has a very short pharmacokinetic half-life.
Continuous anticoagulation must be strictly maintained to prevent further clot extension.
2
Analyze the compatibility conflict and the duration of the secondary medication.
Heparin and vancomycin cannot mix in the same line, and the vancomycin infusion will take 90 minutes to complete.
Mixing them causes physical incompatibility, and pausing the heparin for 90 minutes would cause blood levels to drop below the therapeutic range.
3
Determine the safest administration route.
A second intravenous access point is required.
This allows both the critical continuous infusion and the necessary prolonged antibiotic infusion to run simultaneously and safely.

Key Concept

Management of Intravenous Incompatibilities with High-Alert Continuous Infusions
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 238Question →

An adult client who underwent a diagnostic lumbar puncture four hours ago is now complaining of a severe, throbbing headache that worsens upon sitting. When planning interventions to promote comfort and safety, which action should the nurse implement?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Keep the client in a flat, supine position while offering frequent oral fluids.

Answer

Keep the client in a flat, supine position while offering frequent oral fluids.
Post-lumbar puncture headaches are frequently caused by the leakage of cerebrospinal fluid from the dural puncture site. Keeping the client in a flat position minimizes this leakage and decreases the gravitational pull on the pain-sensitive meninges. Furthermore, encouraging oral fluid intake helps to actively replenish the lost cerebrospinal fluid volume, directly addressing the root cause of the client's discomfort.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation.
The client has a severe, throbbing headache that worsens when sitting up, four hours after a lumbar puncture.
Identifying the timing and characteristics of the symptom points to a post-dural puncture headache caused by cerebrospinal fluid leakage.
2
Determine the appropriate physiological intervention for a post-lumbar puncture headache.
The standard intervention is keeping the client flat and increasing hydration.
Lying flat reduces tension on the meninges by preventing gravity-induced downward displacement of the brain, while hydration helps restore cerebrospinal fluid volume.
3
Evaluate the other proposed nursing actions for safety and efficacy.
Elevating the head worsens the pain, delegating assessment is unsafe, and false reassurance is non-therapeutic.
Nursing actions must align with safety guidelines, proper delegation boundaries, and therapeutic communication standards.

Key Concept

Post-Lumbar Puncture Comfort and Positioning
Question 239Question →

During a routine assessment on the surgical unit, a nurse evaluates a client who underwent an open splenectomy earlier in the day. The client's spouse reports that the client has suddenly become restless and anxious. A review of the electronic health record reveals the following vital sign trends:

TimeBlood PressureHeart RateRespiratory RatePulse Oximetry
14:00134/72 mm Hg82 beats/min14 breaths/min99% on room air
15:00126/78 mm Hg94 beats/min18 breaths/min97% on room air
16:00112/86 mm Hg118 beats/min24 breaths/min94% on room air

The client's urine output for the past hour is 15 mL. Based on these findings, which action is the priority to prevent further physiological deterioration?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Initiate a rapid infusion of isotonic crystalloid fluids and notify the surgical provider immediately.

Answer

The priority action is to initiate a rapid infusion of isotonic crystalloid fluids and immediately notify the surgical provider, as the client is exhibiting signs of early hemorrhagic shock.
The client is exhibiting classic signs of early compensatory hemorrhagic shock, including a narrowing pulse pressure (from 62 to 26 mm Hg), tachycardia, tachypnea, oliguria, and restlessness (cerebral hypoxia). Because the client had a highly vascular organ removed (splenectomy), internal bleeding is a high-risk complication. The immediate priority is to restore intravascular volume and tissue perfusion by administering isotonic crystalloids and notifying the surgeon for potential surgical re-exploration.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the vital sign trends over the past two hours.
The pulse pressure has narrowed significantly (from 62 mm Hg to 26 mm Hg), accompanied by tachycardia (82 to 118 beats/min) and tachypnea (14 to 24 breaths/min).
Identifying subtle changes in vital signs is crucial for detecting early physiological deterioration.
2
Correlate vital signs with clinical symptoms and surgical history.
The narrowed pulse pressure, tachycardia, oliguria (15 mL/hr), and new-onset restlessness following a highly vascular surgery (splenectomy) indicate compensatory hemorrhagic shock.
Internal bleeding is a major postoperative risk; the body compensates by vasoconstricting (raising diastolic BP) and increasing heart rate to maintain cardiac output.
3
Determine the priority nursing intervention based on the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation).
The primary threat to life is circulatory collapse from hypovolemia.
Restoring intravascular volume with isotonic fluids is the immediate life-saving intervention before surgical correction of the hemorrhage.
4
Evaluate and eliminate the alternative interventions.
Elevating the head of the bed or administering sedatives are contraindicated and could precipitate cardiovascular collapse.
High-Fowler's position decreases venous return, and sedatives mask critical signs of cerebral hypoxia while potentially causing vasodilation.

Key Concept

Early recognition of postoperative hypovolemic (hemorrhagic) shock through subtle indicators such as a narrowing pulse pressure, tachycardia, and altered mental status.
Question 240Question →

A nurse is caring for an alert and oriented client with diabetes mellitus who reports feeling shaky and sweaty. The client's capillary blood glucose level is 55 mg/dL. Arrange the following nursing interventions in the correct order of priority.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct sequence follows the 'Rule of 15' for managing hypoglycemia: administer 15 grams of simple carbohydrates, wait 15 minutes, reassess blood glucose, and finally provide a sustaining snack.
The 'Rule of 15' is the standard protocol for managing mild to moderate hypoglycemia in a conscious client. It begins with the immediate administration of 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate to rapidly raise blood glucose. The nurse then waits 15 minutes to allow for absorption before reassessing the blood glucose level. If the level remains below 70 mg/dL, the process is repeated. Once the level normalizes (above 70 mg/dL), a complex carbohydrate and protein snack is provided to maintain blood glucose stability.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Administer a fast-acting carbohydrate.
The client consumes 15 grams of simple carbohydrates.
Immediate treatment is necessary to raise the blood glucose level rapidly and prevent neurological deterioration in a conscious, hypoglycemic client.
2
Wait for 15 minutes.
Time is provided for digestion and absorption.
It takes roughly 15 minutes for the simple carbohydrates to be absorbed into the bloodstream and effectively raise the blood glucose.
3
Reassess blood glucose.
The blood glucose is checked to evaluate the client's response.
Reassessment determines if the initial intervention was successful (glucose is > 70 mg/dL) or if the 15-gram carbohydrate dose needs to be repeated.
4
Provide a sustaining snack.
The client eats a snack with complex carbohydrates and protein.
This prevents secondary hypoglycemia by providing a slower, sustained release of glucose into the bloodstream.

Key Concept

Hypoglycemia Management (Rule of 15)
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