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Question 2601Question →

A maternity nurse is caring for clients from diverse cultural and religious backgrounds. Match each specific family request or behavior observed in the perinatal setting to the corresponding religious or cultural tradition.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

The father avoids all physical contact with his spouse during the labor and birth process.
The parents ask for privacy to whisper the call to prayer into the newborn's right ear shortly after birth.
The family requests an emergency baptism for a critically ill newborn who is not expected to survive.
The family requests that the placenta be saved and returned to them for a ceremonial burial.

Matches

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Answer

The father avoiding contact matches Orthodox Judaism; whispering the call to prayer matches Islam; emergency baptism matches Roman Catholicism; returning the placenta matches Traditional Navajo Culture.
Each nursing observation matches a specific cultural or spiritual perinatal practice. Orthodox Judaism observes Niddah, which prohibits physical contact during childbirth. Islam practices whispering the Adhan to newborns. Roman Catholicism prioritizes emergency baptism for critically ill infants. Traditional Navajo culture involves the ceremonial burial of the placenta.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the request regarding the father avoiding physical contact during labor.
This matches Orthodox Judaism.
This behavior aligns with the strict observance of Niddah (laws of family purity) in Orthodox Judaism.
2
Analyze the request to whisper a call to prayer into the newborn's ear.
This matches Islam.
Whispering the Adhan into a newborn's ear is a fundamental Islamic perinatal tradition.
3
Analyze the request for an emergency baptism for a critically ill infant.
This matches Roman Catholicism.
Emergency baptism is heavily emphasized in Roman Catholicism to ensure the spiritual salvation of a dying infant.
4
Analyze the request to keep the placenta for ceremonial burial.
This matches Traditional Navajo Culture.
Burying the placenta is a deeply rooted spiritual practice in Navajo and other Indigenous cultures to ground the child to their ancestral land.

Key Concept

Understanding and accommodating specific religious and cultural practices during the perinatal period is essential for providing culturally competent nursing care.
Question 2602Question →

A nurse is planning basic care and comfort measures for an older adult client who is restricted to bed rest. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees or less when the client is resting.; Place a pillow under the client's lower legs to suspend the heels off the mattress.; Use a friction-reducing device, such as a draw sheet, when moving the client up in bed.

Answer

The correct interventions are elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees or less, placing a pillow under the lower legs to suspend the heels, and using a friction-reducing device when moving the client.
Appropriate basic care for an immobile client involves interventions that proactively minimize pressure, friction, and shear. Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees or less reduces shearing forces on the sacrum. Suspending the heels with a pillow relieves all pressure on the heels. Using a draw sheet or slider board prevents friction injuries when repositioning the client.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the client's primary risk factor based on the scenario.
The client is on bed rest and is at high risk for complications of immobility, specifically pressure injuries and skin breakdown.
Recognizing the risks of immobility guides the selection of appropriate basic care and comfort interventions.
2
Evaluate each intervention for its effectiveness in promoting skin integrity and safety.
Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees or less, floating the heels, and using friction-reducing devices are all evidence-based practices.
These actions directly minimize pressure, friction, and shearing forces on vulnerable skin.
3
Evaluate the incorrect interventions for scope of practice and safety contraindications.
Delegating initial assessments to a UAP, maintaining a continuous supine position, and using restraints for itching are inappropriate and unsafe actions.
The RN must perform assessments; clients must be repositioned frequently to restore circulation; and restraints are a last resort for severe safety risks.

Key Concept

Immobility Management and Pressure Injury Prevention
Question 2603Question →

A community health nurse evaluates an 81-year-old client whose primary caregiver reports that the client has exhibited a sudden onset of anorexia, increased daytime somnolence, and two episodes of new-onset urinary incontinence over the past 24 hours. The client's baseline cognitive status is alert and oriented. Current vital signs are: temperature 97.6°F (36.4°C), heart rate 92 beats/min, respiratory rate 22 breaths/min, and blood pressure 118/70 mm Hg. Based on the physiological principles of the aging process, which clinical interpretation and corresponding action represent the most accurate nursing judgment?

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Answer: Acknowledge that normal age-related blunting of the thermoregulatory response can mask a fever, and interpret the acute cognitive and functional decline as an atypical presentation of pathology; prioritize obtaining a urine specimen and notifying the provider.

Answer

The correct action is to recognize that older adults often do not mount a fever due to thermoregulatory changes, and that sudden cognitive and functional decline indicates an atypical presentation of an acute illness requiring diagnostic evaluation.
The correct choice accurately applies the physiological principles of aging by recognizing that an older adult's thermoregulatory center is less responsive, often resulting in an absent or blunted febrile response during an active infection. Furthermore, it correctly identifies that acute, sudden changes in mentation and continence are the primary, albeit atypical, manifestations of acute illness in this population, requiring immediate diagnostic action.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's baseline versus current presentation.
The client has a sudden onset of somnolence, anorexia, and incontinence, which is a significant deviation from their baseline alert and oriented status.
Identifying acute changes in condition is the first step in differentiating normal aging from acute pathology.
2
Evaluate the vital signs in the context of the aging process.
The temperature is normal (97.6°F / 36.4°C), but heart rate and respiratory rate are slightly elevated.
Normal aging causes a decreased ability to mount a fever due to hypothalamic changes; therefore, a normal temperature does not rule out infection in an older adult.
3
Synthesize the findings to form a clinical judgment.
The acute changes in mentation and continence, despite the absence of a fever, strongly suggest an atypical presentation of an acute infection (such as a urinary tract infection).
Older adults frequently present atypically; recognizing these subtle signs prevents delayed treatment.
4
Determine the priority nursing action based on the clinical interpretation.
The nurse must prioritize obtaining diagnostic data (like a urinalysis) and collaborating with the healthcare provider for prompt medical treatment.
Early intervention for suspected atypical infections reduces morbidity and mortality in the geriatric population.

Key Concept

Atypical Presentation of Illness in the Older Adult
Question 2604Question →

A registered nurse is dispensing morning medications from the hallway cart when a loud altercation erupts in the adjacent television room. A client is demanding that peers relinquish their personal snack items, claiming to be the facility's new dietary director. Two other individuals have stood up and are shouting back, visibly clenching their fists. Which action should the nurse prioritize?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Call the demanding client by name and instruct them to step out into the hallway for a private discussion.

Answer

The nurse should prioritize calling the demanding client by name and instructing them to step out into the hallway for a private discussion.
The primary goal when managing escalating tension in a shared psychiatric setting is to maintain physical safety while adhering to the principle of least restrictive intervention. By directly addressing the instigating client by name and providing clear, firm direction to move to a private space, the nurse immediately interrupts the conflict. This effectively removes the 'audience' (which can reinforce grandiose or agitated behavior) and provides an opportunity to de-escalate the situation privately without prematurely resorting to restrictive measures.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the clinical scenario to determine the immediate threat.
An escalating verbal altercation is occurring in a shared milieu space, creating a risk of physical violence among multiple clients.
Identifying the primary source of milieu disruption is essential for targeted intervention.
2
Evaluate the available interventions against the principle of least restrictive care.
Verbal redirection is less restrictive than seclusion. Retaining assessment duties is legally required over delegating to UAP. Direct instruction is more therapeutic than asking defensive 'why' questions.
Nursing standards mandate that the least restrictive, most therapeutic methods be utilized first to manage behavioral crises.
3
Select the optimal action to secure the therapeutic environment.
Instructing the instigating client to step into the hallway.
This action immediately separates the involved parties, removes the 'audience' effect which often fuels agitation, and preserves client dignity.

Key Concept

Therapeutic Environment
Question 2605Question →

A client who is experiencing continuous seizure activity requires an urgent intravenous (IV) dose of phenytoin. The client has a single peripheral IV access site that is currently infusing 5% dextrose in water (D5W). Which action should the nurse take to safely administer the prescribed medication?

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Answer: Stop the primary fluid, flush the line with 0.9% sodium chloride, administer the medication, and flush again with 0.9% sodium chloride.

Answer

Stop the primary fluid, flush the line with 0.9% sodium chloride, administer the medication, and flush again with 0.9% sodium chloride.
Phenytoin is physically incompatible with all dextrose-containing solutions and will rapidly precipitate if they mix. Because the client has only one IV site and requires urgent medication to stop the seizures, the nurse must temporarily pause the D5W infusion, thoroughly flush the line with 0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline) to clear any residual dextrose, administer the phenytoin safely, and then flush again with normal saline before restarting the primary fluid.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the compatibility of the prescribed medication (phenytoin) with the currently infusing IV fluid (D5W).
Phenytoin is highly incompatible with all dextrose-containing solutions.
Mixing phenytoin with dextrose causes rapid precipitation, forming solid crystals that destroy the medication and can cause a fatal embolism.
2
Determine the safest method to administer the medication through the single available IV line.
The nurse must clear the IV line of all dextrose before and after the phenytoin is given.
Flushing the line with a compatible fluid, specifically 0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline), ensures that the two incompatible fluids never mix in the tubing.

Key Concept

Phenytoin IV compatibility and safe parenteral administration
Estimated Time:45s
Question 2606Question →

An adult client is receiving continuous total parenteral nutrition (TPN) through a dedicated single-lumen peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). The client now requires a scheduled dose of intravenous pantoprazole. Which action represents the safest practice for administering this medication?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Insert a new peripheral intravenous catheter to administer the pantoprazole.

Answer

The nurse should insert a new peripheral intravenous catheter to administer the pantoprazole.
Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is a complex, hypertonic solution that must be administered through a strictly dedicated central venous line. Because the client has a single-lumen PICC currently in use for TPN, the nurse must establish a separate peripheral IV site to safely administer the prescribed pantoprazole. This prevents drug-nutrient incompatibilities and reduces the risk of central line-associated bloodstream infections (CLABSI).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the type of continuous infusion the client is receiving.
The client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a single-lumen PICC.
Understanding current IV therapies dictates venous access requirements.
2
Recall the safety protocols for TPN administration.
TPN requires a strict, dedicated central line. No other medications or fluids should be administered through the same lumen.
Mixing medications with TPN increases the risk of precipitation, drug inactivation, and severe bloodstream infections.
3
Determine the appropriate route for the newly prescribed medication.
Since the single-lumen PICC is completely dedicated to TPN, alternative intravenous access must be obtained.
A peripheral IV catheter provides a safe, separate route for the intermittent medication.

Key Concept

Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) requires a dedicated central venous lumen to prevent physical or chemical incompatibilities and minimize infection risk.
Question 2607Question →

A nurse on a pediatric medical-surgical unit is developing a care plan for a 9-year-old client who requires a prolonged hospitalization for intravenous antibiotic therapy due to osteomyelitis. To best support the client's psychosocial development during this extended stay, which intervention should the nurse prioritize?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Coordinate with the hospital educator to ensure the client completes daily schoolwork.

Answer

Coordinate with the hospital educator to ensure the client completes daily schoolwork.
According to Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, a 9-year-old child is in the stage of Industry versus Inferiority. Children in this stage are highly focused on learning, mastering new skills, and completing tasks. A prolonged hospitalization can severely disrupt this development, leading to feelings of inadequacy or inferiority. By coordinating with a hospital educator to complete daily schoolwork, the nurse enables the child to continue achieving goals, thereby maintaining their sense of industry and competence despite the illness.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the client's developmental stage based on their age.
The client is 9 years old, placing them in the school-age developmental category.
Age is the primary clinical determinant for identifying the expected psychosocial developmental stage according to Erikson's theory.
2
Determine the primary psychosocial task for this developmental stage.
The primary task for a school-age child is Industry versus Inferiority.
School-age children need to engage in tasks, learn new skills, and achieve a sense of competence to successfully navigate this stage.
3
Select the nursing intervention that directly supports this specific developmental task.
Continuing schoolwork allows the child to remain productive, complete tasks, and feel a sense of achievement despite being hospitalized.
A prolonged hospitalization removes the child from their normal environment of achievement (school). Reintegrating educational tasks prevents feelings of inadequacy or inferiority.

Key Concept

Erikson's Stages of Psychosocial Development: Industry vs. Inferiority (School-Age)
Question 2608Question →

A nurse is preparing to transfer a non-weight-bearing client from the bed to a wheelchair using a mechanical floor lift equipped with a U-shaped (universal) sling. The client is currently lying supine in the center of the bed. In what chronological order should the nurse perform the following actions to safely complete the transfer?

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

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Answer

The correct sequence requires the nurse to first position the sling beneath the client using a side-to-side rolling technique, secure and cross the leg straps under the thighs, attach the fitted sling to the mechanical lift, and finally hoist the client into the wheelchair.
Safely transferring a dependent client using a mechanical floor lift requires systematic preparation. First, the nurse must position the sling beneath the client using a side-to-side log-rolling technique. Tucking the folded sling behind the client's back while in a lateral recumbent position, then rolling them to the contralateral side to pull it flat ensures the client is centered on the device. Next, threading the leg straps under the thighs and crossing them over the midline is a critical safety step; crossing the straps cradles the pelvis and prevents the client from slipping out of the bottom of the sling. Once the sling is completely and safely fitted around the client, the nurse positions the mechanical lift chassis under the bed and attaches the loops to the spreader bar. Finally, the client is hoisted just high enough to clear the bed and gently guided into the wheelchair.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Roll the client laterally and tuck the folded sling behind their back.
Positions one half of the sling under the client's body.
This technique utilizes the client's body weight to hold the sling in place and minimizes manual lifting strain on the nurse.
2
Roll the client to the opposite side and pull the sling flat.
Centers the client squarely on the fully opened sling.
Ensures the fabric is smooth and correctly positioned to safely distribute the client's weight during the transfer.
3
Thread and cross the leg straps under the client's thighs.
Secures the lower body within the sling apparatus.
Crossing the straps over the midline is a mandatory safety measure that prevents the client's legs from splaying and stops them from sliding out of the bottom of the sling.
4
Bring the lift over the bed and attach the sling loops to the spreader bar.
Connects the safely secured client to the lifting mechanism.
The lift chassis should only be positioned over the client once the sling is fully prepared, preventing entanglement or premature lifting.
5
Elevate the lift and guide the client into the wheelchair.
Completes the mechanical transfer safely.
Moves the dependent client to the new surface while maintaining safety, skin integrity, and proper body mechanics for the staff.

Key Concept

Safe application and operation of a mechanical floor lift for dependent client transfers
Question 2609Question →

A client admitted to an oncology unit is found vigorously pacing the main corridor. The client is clenching their jaw, breathing heavily, and loudly accusing a dietary aide of intentionally withholding their breakfast. What is the priority nursing action to manage this behavior safely?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Acknowledge the client's distress and offer a choice of returning to their room or going to the consultation lounge to discuss the issue.

Answer

The priority action is to acknowledge the client's distress and offer them a choice of locations to talk, effectively de-escalating the situation using the least restrictive approach.
The correct action applies core de-escalation techniques: validating the client's emotional state, offering autonomy through choices, and moving the client away from the triggering stimulus (the dietary aide and the busy hallway) to a quieter environment. This represents the least restrictive, most therapeutic initial approach.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the client's behavior and level of escalation.
The client is highly anxious and verbally aggressive, but has not yet committed physical violence.
Accurate assessment determines whether verbal de-escalation is appropriate or if immediate physical safety measures are required.
2
Apply the principle of least restrictive intervention.
Identify verbal de-escalation as the first-line approach for a client who is agitated but not physically violent.
Nurses are required to use the least restrictive measures possible to manage behavioral crises before escalating to security, restraints, or seclusion.
3
Select the specific de-escalation techniques.
Choose to validate the client's feelings, adopt a non-threatening posture, and offer choices to move to a less stimulating environment.
Offering choices empowers the client and reduces feelings of helplessness, which are common drivers of aggressive behavior.

Key Concept

Verbal De-escalation and Least Restrictive Interventions
Question 2610Question →

A nurse is providing discharge education to a client who sustained a right tibial fracture and has a strict non-weight-bearing order for the right lower extremity. The client must learn how to ascend a flight of stairs using axillary crutches. Arrange the following actions in the exact order the client should perform them.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

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Answer

The correct sequence is to establish a tripod position, transfer weight to the crutches, step up with the unaffected leg, shift weight to the unaffected leg, and finally bring the crutches and affected leg up.
When teaching a client to ascend stairs with crutches, the nurse should emphasize the clinical principle of 'up with the good.' The client must first establish a stable tripod position and transfer weight to the crutches. This securely anchors the body, allowing the client to lift the unaffected, strong leg up to the next step. Once the unaffected leg is securely planted on the step above, the client shifts their body weight onto that strong leg. The strong leg then provides the necessary power and stability to lift the affected leg and the crutches simultaneously to the same step.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assume the tripod position.
Establishes a stable base of support.
Safety and balance must be secured before initiating any vertical movement on a staircase.
2
Transfer weight fully to the crutches.
Offloads the unaffected leg.
The unaffected leg must bear zero weight momentarily so it can be lifted up to the next stair tread.
3
Advance the unaffected left leg onto the stair.
The strong leg is positioned on the higher elevation.
The strong leg must step up first to provide the muscular power needed to lift the rest of the body.
4
Shift weight onto the unaffected left leg.
The body is completely supported by the strong leg on the stair tread.
This weight shift frees the crutches and the injured leg so they can be lifted without compromising balance.
5
Bring the crutches and affected right leg up.
The client completes one full stair ascent.
The affected limb and assistive devices safely follow the body's upward movement while protected from bearing weight.

Key Concept

Safe use of assistive devices and body mechanics for stair climbing (axillary crutches)
Question 2611Question →

A registered nurse is caring for a client who is receiving an intravenous infusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs). Fifteen minutes into the transfusion, the client reports sudden lower back pain, chills, and shortness of breath. Arrange the following nursing actions in the correct priority order.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

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Answer

Stop the blood transfusion, disconnect the blood tubing and connect new tubing with normal saline, assess vital signs, notify the healthcare provider and blood bank, and finally send the blood bag and tubing to the blood bank.
When a client experiences an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction, the nurse's first action is always to stop the transfusion. Next, the nurse must maintain a patent IV line with normal saline using completely new tubing to avoid pushing residual blood into the client. Only after the client is secured from further harm and the line is patent should the nurse assess the client's vital signs. This assessment data is then communicated to the healthcare provider and blood bank. Finally, as part of the post-reaction protocol, the remaining blood, tubing, and labels are sent to the blood bank for analysis.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Recognize the signs of a transfusion reaction and immediately stop the infusion.
Further administration of the incompatible blood product is halted.
Lower back pain, chills, and shortness of breath indicate a potentially fatal acute hemolytic reaction. Stopping the source is the top priority.
2
Maintain IV access using a new tubing setup primed with normal saline.
A patent IV line is established for emergency drug administration.
Using the existing blood tubing to flush the line would push the remaining hemolyzed blood into the client's circulation, worsening the reaction.
3
Assess the client to gather baseline data.
The nurse obtains current vital signs, oxygen saturation, and lung sounds.
The healthcare provider will need this critical assessment data to prescribe appropriate emergency interventions.
4
Notify the healthcare provider and the blood bank.
The medical team is activated and the blood bank initiates their reaction protocol.
The provider must order specific treatments, and the blood bank must be alerted to a potential crossmatch error.
5
Return the blood product and equipment to the blood bank.
The blood bank receives the materials necessary for investigation.
Analyzing the remaining blood and tubing helps identify the specific cause of the reaction and prevents further errors.

Key Concept

Management of acute hemolytic transfusion reactions requires immediately stopping the transfusion and maintaining line patency with new tubing before assessing and reporting.
Question 2612Question →

A public health nurse is responding to a newly identified cluster of active tuberculosis (TB) cases within a crowded metropolitan homeless shelter. To effectively manage the outbreak and apply principles of disease prevention, arrange the following nursing actions in the most appropriate sequence of priority from first to last.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

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Answer

The correct sequence prioritizes immediate infection control, followed by legal reporting, targeted screening, prophylactic treatment, and finally, broad population-based education.
In an acute outbreak of a highly contagious airborne pathogen, the nurse must prioritize actions based on the severity of the immediate threat. The sequence begins with immediate source control (isolation) to halt transmission. Once the immediate environment is secured, legal mandates dictate reporting the outbreak to public health authorities. Subsequently, the focus shifts to secondary prevention (screening exposed individuals) and targeted intervention (treating latent infections). Finally, broad primary prevention strategies (education) are deployed to mitigate future risks.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Isolate the individuals demonstrating active respiratory symptoms.
Halts ongoing exposure to the airborne pathogen.
Immediate source control is the highest priority for public health safety and primary prevention of new cases.
2
Notify the local public health department.
Triggers an official epidemiological response.
Mandatory reporting ensures legal compliance and unlocks necessary resources for large-scale outbreak management.
3
Initiate contact tracing and administer screening tests.
Identifies individuals who have been exposed and infected.
Secondary prevention via early detection is necessary after the initial exposure source is contained.
4
Facilitate prophylactic therapy for latent infections.
Eradicates the dormant mycobacteria in exposed individuals.
Pharmacological intervention prevents latent TB from progressing to active disease, acting as a secondary/tertiary preventive measure.
5
Implement a shelter-wide educational campaign.
Increases community awareness and future prevention capabilities.
Primary health promotion is most effective and appropriate once the immediate acute outbreak is stabilized.

Key Concept

Prioritization of Disease Prevention and Outbreak Management
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 2613Question →

The nurse is preparing to administer a prescribed large-volume cleansing enema to an adult client to relieve severe constipation. To promote comfort and facilitate the downward flow of the solution into the sigmoid colon, in which position should the nurse place the client?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Left lateral with the right knee flexed

Answer

The left lateral position with the right knee flexed (Sims' position).
The left lateral position with the right knee flexed (often referred to as Sims' position) allows the enema solution to flow by gravity into the natural anatomical curve of the sigmoid and descending colon, which are located on the left side of the lower abdomen. This promotes fluid retention, reduces cramping, and maximizes the effectiveness of the procedure.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the anatomical route of the lower gastrointestinal tract.
The rectum connects to the sigmoid colon, which transitions into the descending colon on the left side of the abdomen.
Understanding anatomy is necessary to determine how gravity will affect the flow of instilled fluids.
2
Determine which client position utilizes gravity to assist the flow of fluid into these specific bowel structures.
Positioning the client on their left side allows gravity to pull the fluid downward into the descending colon.
Gravity promotes the safe and comfortable retention of the enema solution without causing excessive cramping or leakage.
3
Select the correct procedural position.
The left lateral position with the right knee flexed (Sims' position) is identified as the standard of care.
This position provides optimal anatomical alignment and exposure for safe insertion while maximizing client comfort.

Key Concept

Client Positioning for Enema Administration
Question 2614Question →

A client is receiving high-dose unsealed oral iodine-131 therapy for thyroid carcinoma and is in a private, lead-lined isolation room. The client experiences sudden nausea and vomits a large amount of liquid onto the floor. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial nursing action for handling this hazardous material?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Don appropriate personal protective equipment, cover the emesis with absorbent pads to prevent spreading, and immediately notify the Radiation Safety Officer.

Answer

The most appropriate action is to don personal protective equipment, cover the emesis with absorbent pads to contain it, and notify the Radiation Safety Officer.
The correct answer involves covering the emesis with absorbent pads and notifying the Radiation Safety Officer. Iodine-131 is an unsealed radioactive isotope, meaning the client's bodily fluids (including emesis, urine, and saliva) are highly radioactive. The immediate priority is to prevent the physical spread of the contamination by covering it, minimizing staff exposure time, and contacting the specialized officer who will oversee the safe cleanup and disposal using appropriate lead-lined containers.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the nature of the hazardous material.
Iodine-131 is an unsealed radioactive source, making all of the client's bodily fluids highly radioactive.
Understanding the specific hazard dictates the appropriate containment, cleanup, and disposal protocols.
2
Evaluate the options for immediate intervention.
Standard biological cleanup methods (red bags) and moving the client are contraindicated and dangerous.
Radioactive waste cannot go into standard biohazard streams, and moving the client spreads the contamination to clean areas of the facility.
3
Determine the safest initial action.
Contain the spill by covering it with absorbent pads and contact the Radiation Safety Officer.
The Radiation Safety Officer is required to oversee the cleanup of radioactive spills to ensure staff safety and proper decay-in-storage disposal.

Key Concept

Management of unsealed radioactive spills requires immediate containment to prevent spread and intervention by the Radiation Safety Officer, strictly differentiating it from standard biological hazard protocols.
Question 2615Question →

A nurse is providing night-shift care for an older adult client who is experiencing severe orthopnea and reports difficulty breathing while lying down. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to best promote the client's comfort?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Assist the client to sit upright and lean forward over an overbed table.

Answer

Assist the client to sit upright and lean forward over an overbed table.
Assisting the client to sit upright and lean forward over an overbed table, known as the orthopneic position, promotes maximum lung expansion. It uses gravity to pull the abdominal organs away from the diaphragm, which significantly reduces the work of breathing and increases comfort for a client experiencing orthopnea.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary physiological issue causing the client's discomfort.
The client is experiencing orthopnea, which is difficulty breathing when lying flat.
Accurately identifying the symptom is required to select the correct comfort and positioning intervention.
2
Select the nursing intervention that directly addresses the respiratory discomfort.
The orthopneic position is selected as the primary intervention.
Sitting upright and leaning forward uses gravity to pull abdominal organs down, allowing the diaphragm to expand fully and reducing the work of breathing.

Key Concept

Non-pharmacological comfort measures and positioning for clients experiencing orthopnea.
Question 2616Question →

A client is admitted to the intensive care unit with acute digoxin toxicity. Initial laboratory results reveal a serum digoxin level of 5.2 ng/mL5.2\text{ ng/mL} and a serum potassium level of 6.4 mEq/L6.4\text{ mEq/L}. The healthcare provider prescribes a continuous intravenous infusion of digoxin immune Fab. Which of the following assessment findings during the hours following administration requires the nurse's immediate intervention?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The appearance of prominent U waves and flattened T waves on the continuous electrocardiogram.

Answer

The appearance of prominent U waves and flattened T waves on the continuous electrocardiogram.
The correct answer identifies the electrocardiogram signs of severe hypokalemia (prominent U waves and flattened T waves). In acute digoxin overdose, the Na+/K+ ATPase pump is paralyzed, resulting in extracellular potassium accumulation (hyperkalemia). When digoxin immune Fab is administered, the pump is rapidly reactivated, causing a massive and swift shift of potassium from the blood back into the cells. This can quickly precipitate severe, life-threatening hypokalemia. The nurse must immediately intervene by notifying the provider to initiate a potassium replacement protocol to prevent lethal ventricular dysrhythmias.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the pathophysiology of severe acute digoxin toxicity.
Acute digoxin overdose heavily poisons the Na+/K+ ATPase pump, preventing potassium from entering cells and leading to systemic hyperkalemia (initial level 6.4 mEq/L6.4\text{ mEq/L}).
Understanding the patient's baseline physiological state is necessary to predict the metabolic effects of the reversal agent.
2
Determine the physiological effect of digoxin immune Fab administration.
The antidote effectively binds to digoxin, neutralizing it and immediately reactivating the previously paralyzed Na+/K+ ATPase cellular pumps.
Reactivation of the cellular pumps alters the concentration gradients of major electrolytes in the bloodstream.
3
Identify the critical consequence of pump reactivation and recognize its clinical signs.
Reactivation causes a massive and rapid shift of extracellular potassium back into the intracellular space. This sudden shift frequently precipitates severe hypokalemia, which manifests on an electrocardiogram as prominent U waves and flattened T waves.
Severe hypokalemia can cause lethal ventricular dysrhythmias and requires immediate potassium replacement, making it the highest clinical priority.

Key Concept

Digoxin immune Fab rapidly reactivates the Na+/K+ ATPase pump, causing a massive intracellular shift of potassium. The nurse must prioritize monitoring for life-threatening hypokalemia (evidenced by U waves on an ECG) during and after administration.
Question 2617Question →

A gerontology nurse is performing a comprehensive physical assessment on a 78-year-old client during an annual wellness visit. The nurse is identifying physiological changes to determine the need for further intervention. Which of the following findings should the nurse recognize as expected age-related transitions rather than pathological concerns? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Decreased vital capacity and a diminished cough reflex; High-frequency hearing loss making it difficult to distinguish consonants; Stiffening of the arterial walls leading to a mild increase in systolic blood pressure

Answer

The expected age-related transitions are decreased vital capacity and diminished cough reflex, high-frequency hearing loss (presbycusis), and stiffening of the arterial walls causing a mild increase in systolic blood pressure.
Expected physiological transitions of aging involve gradual declines in systemic reserves. This includes the respiratory system (decreased chest wall compliance and vital capacity), the sensory system (presbycusis, or high-frequency hearing loss), and the cardiovascular system (arterial stiffening causing isolated systolic increases). These changes happen universally and progressively in the absence of disease.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's developmental stage and chronological age.
The client is a 78-year-old older adult in the late adulthood developmental stage.
Identifying the age group establishes the baseline for expected physiological transitions.
2
Evaluate each finding to distinguish between normal physiological aging and pathological disease processes.
Respiratory, sensory, and cardiovascular changes (decreased vital capacity, presbycusis, and arterial stiffening) are identified as normal. Severe memory loss and incontinence are identified as abnormal.
Nurses must differentiate expected changes from illness to avoid missing critical diagnoses and to provide appropriate anticipatory guidance.
3
Select the options that represent normal, expected age-related changes.
Selected the options describing respiratory changes, hearing loss, and arterial stiffening.
The question specifically asks for expected transitions rather than pathological concerns.

Key Concept

Distinguishing expected physiological age-related transitions from pathological conditions in the older adult.
Question 2618Question →

A nurse is preparing discharge teaching for a client who observes Orthodox Judaism and has been newly diagnosed with chronic pancreatitis. The healthcare provider has prescribed pancrelipase as an enzyme replacement therapy. Which of the following is the priority nursing action regarding this medication?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Inform the client that the medication is derived from pork and facilitate a discussion with the healthcare provider.

Answer

The priority nursing action is to inform the client that the medication is derived from pork and facilitate a discussion with the healthcare provider.
The correct action is to inform the client that the medication is derived from pork and facilitate a discussion with the healthcare provider. Pancrelipase is a porcine-derived medication. Clients observing Orthodox Judaism typically follow kosher dietary laws, which strictly prohibit the consumption of pork products. However, in Judaism, the principle of 'Pikuach Nefesh' (saving a life) can override most religious laws, including dietary restrictions, for medically necessary treatments. The nurse must support patient autonomy by providing full disclosure so the client can consult with their spiritual leader (rabbi) and make an informed, religiously congruent decision.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the origin and composition of the prescribed medication (pancrelipase).
Pancrelipase is a pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy that is derived from pork (porcine origin).
Nurses must be knowledgeable about the composition of medications, especially those derived from animal products, to ensure safe and culturally competent care.
2
Evaluate the client's cultural and religious dietary restrictions.
The client observes Orthodox Judaism, which mandates adherence to kosher dietary laws that strictly forbid the consumption of pork or porcine-derived products.
Individualized care requires aligning medical treatments with the client's deeply held religious beliefs and ethical values.
3
Determine the priority nursing intervention that respects patient autonomy and religious beliefs.
The nurse must inform the client about the medication's porcine origin and facilitate a discussion with the healthcare provider and potentially the client's rabbi.
Clients have the right to informed consent. They may choose to take the medication under the principle of saving a life (Pikuach Nefesh) or seek an alternative, but the decision must be autonomously made by the client.

Key Concept

Providing culturally competent care involves full disclosure of medication ingredients (such as porcine derivatives) to support the informed consent and religious autonomy of clients with specific dietary laws.
Question 2619Question →

A 72-year-old male client presents to a primary care clinic for an annual wellness visit. He has a history of hypertension and osteoarthritis. During the initial interview, the client remarks that he has been forgetting appointments recently and occasionally leaks urine, stating, "I suppose this is just what happens when you get old." The nurse is prioritizing the health screening components of the visit. Which of the following is the most appropriate action by the nurse?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Perform a standardized cognitive screening and investigate the urinary symptoms to rule out acute or pathological conditions.

Answer

The most appropriate action is to perform a standardized cognitive screening and investigate the urinary symptoms to identify potential underlying conditions.
Cognitive impairment and urinary incontinence are not expected physiological changes of aging. They may indicate acute issues, such as a urinary tract infection causing delirium, or chronic conditions, such as dementia or prostate enlargement. The nurse must perform secondary prevention by utilizing standardized cognitive screening tools and investigating the urinary symptoms to ensure early detection and prompt treatment.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's reported symptoms.
The client reports new onset memory issues and urinary incontinence.
Identifying changes in baseline functional and cognitive status is the first step in determining appropriate geriatric screening needs.
2
Differentiate between normal physiological aging and potential pathology.
Memory loss affecting daily life and urinary incontinence are not normal parts of aging; they are abnormal findings that require further investigation.
A core component of geriatric health screening is detecting cognitive decline and functional impairments early rather than dismissing them.
3
Select the appropriate nursing intervention based on screening guidelines.
The nurse should implement secondary prevention measures by conducting a formal cognitive screening (e.g., Mini-Mental State Examination) and evaluating the etiology of the urinary symptoms.
Standardized screenings provide objective clinical data to guide further diagnostic workup and medical treatment.

Key Concept

Geriatric Health Screening and Secondary Prevention
Question 2620Question →

A registered nurse is preparing to administer a prescribed dose of intravenous (IV) phenytoin to an adult client who recently experienced a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. The client has a single peripheral IV line with a continuous infusion of 5%5\% dextrose in water (D5W) infusing at 75 mL/hr75\text{ mL/hr}. Which of the following is the safest and most appropriate action by the nurse?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Pause the continuous infusion and flush the IV line with 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride before and after administering the phenytoin.

Answer

Pause the continuous infusion and flush the IV line with 0.9% sodium chloride before and after administering the phenytoin.
Phenytoin is highly incompatible with dextrose-containing solutions and will form a precipitate if mixed. Because the client has only one IV line, the nurse must pause the D5W infusion and thoroughly flush the line with 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride (normal saline) both before and after administration. This maintains line patency, prevents crystal formation, and ensures safe delivery of the medication.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the prescribed medication and the client's current IV fluids.
The medication to be administered is phenytoin, and the primary IV fluid is D5W.
Identifying potential drug-solution incompatibilities is a critical safety check before any IV medication administration.
2
Recall the compatibility guidelines and safe administration limits for intravenous phenytoin.
Phenytoin is incompatible with dextrose solutions and must be administered at a rate no faster than 50 mg/min.
Administering incompatible medications can cause crystallization in the tubing, and pushing the drug too fast causes cardiovascular collapse.
3
Determine the correct procedural steps for administration through a single IV line.
The nurse must pause the D5W, flush the line with 0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline), administer the phenytoin slowly, and flush again with normal saline before restarting the D5W.
Flushing clears the line of incompatible fluids and ensures the medication is safely and entirely delivered into the bloodstream without precipitating.

Key Concept

Phenytoin Intravenous Administration and Compatibility
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