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Question 261Question →

A public health nurse is designing a comprehensive community health initiative aimed at reducing the burden of type 2 diabetes mellitus in a disproportionately affected urban neighborhood. Which of the following planned interventions is the best example of a secondary prevention strategy?

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Answer: Partnering with local pharmacies to offer free hemoglobin A1c testing to adults over age 45.

Answer

The best example of a secondary prevention strategy is partnering with local pharmacies to offer free hemoglobin A1c testing to adults over age 45.
Secondary prevention focuses on early detection, screening, and prompt intervention for a disease or condition. Offering free hemoglobin A1c testing is a screening activity designed to identify individuals with prediabetes or early-stage type 2 diabetes before severe complications arise, making it a classic example of secondary prevention.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the core objective of the question.
Determine which of the listed community interventions represents secondary prevention.
Accurate classification of prevention levels is essential for community health planning and evaluation.
2
Define the characteristics of secondary prevention.
Secondary prevention focuses on early detection, screening, and prompt treatment to halt disease progression before it becomes symptomatic or causes irreversible damage.
Comparing each option against the definition of secondary prevention will isolate the correct answer.
3
Evaluate each intervention against the levels of prevention.
Advocating for fresh produce and educating adolescents are primary prevention (preventing disease). The insulin support group is tertiary prevention (managing existing disease). The hemoglobin A1c testing is a screening tool.
Screening activities are the hallmark of secondary prevention, making the hemoglobin A1c testing the correct choice.

Key Concept

Levels of Disease Prevention
Question 262Question →

A client recovering from abdominal surgery reports a pain level of 8 on a 0-to-10 scale. The healthcare provider has ordered 2 mg2 \text{ mg} of morphine sulfate to be administered via intravenous push over 4 minutes. The client currently has a continuous infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride0.9\% \text{ sodium chloride} running at 75 mL/hr75 \text{ mL/hr} through a peripheral catheter. The nurse accesses the injection port closest to the client. Which technique represents the safest method for administering this medication?

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Answer: Pinch the primary tubing above the injection port, inject a small increment of the medication, release the tubing to allow the primary fluid to flow, and repeat this process over 4 minutes.

Answer

The safest method is to sequentially pinch the primary tubing, inject a small increment, release the tubing, and repeat the process over the required duration.
The correct answer utilizes the 'pinch-push-release' method. By pinching the tubing above the port, the nurse prevents the medication from flowing backward up the primary line. Injecting a small increment and then releasing the pinch allows the continuous sodium chloride infusion to flush that fraction of the medication directly into the vein. Repeating this cycle over the prescribed 4 minutes ensures a safe, steady delivery and prevents a sudden bolus effect.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the prescribed administration rate and the existing intravenous setup.
The medication must be given slowly over 4 minutes into a line with a continuous carrier fluid.
Rapid administration of opioids can cause severe adverse effects, such as respiratory depression and severe hypotension (speed shock).
2
Evaluate the mechanics of intravenous fluid dynamics when injecting into a continuous line.
Medication injected into a port will follow the path of least resistance. Without pinching the tubing above the port, the medication may travel upward into the primary tubing.
Preventing retrograde flow ensures the entire dose goes toward the client.
3
Determine the effect of dead space in the intravenous tubing between the port and the insertion site.
If the primary line is pinched continuously or stopped, the injected medication stays in this dead space.
To ensure the medication actually reaches the systemic circulation progressively over the 4 minutes, the carrier fluid must be intermittently allowed to flow and flush the small increments into the vein.

Key Concept

Intravenous Push Administration via Continuous Infusion
Question 263Question →

A young adult client is brought to the emergency department experiencing a severe asthma exacerbation. Initially, the client is restless, using accessory muscles to breathe, and has loud, widespread expiratory wheezes. The initial arterial blood gas (ABG) reveals a pH of 7.487.48, PaCO2\text{PaCO}_2 of 30 mm Hg30\text{ mm Hg}, and PaO2\text{PaO}_2 of 64 mm Hg64\text{ mm Hg}. One hour later, following continuous bronchodilator therapy, the nurse notes that the client has become drowsy and the wheezing is now barely audible. A repeat ABG shows a pH of 7.317.31, PaCO2\text{PaCO}_2 of 54 mm Hg54\text{ mm Hg}, and PaO2\text{PaO}_2 of 56 mm Hg56\text{ mm Hg}. Which of the following interventions should the nurse anticipate implementing? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Prepare equipment for immediate endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation; Notify the rapid response team or healthcare provider immediately; Gather a bag-valve-mask (BVM) resuscitator and ensure it is connected to a high-flow oxygen source

Answer

The correct interventions are to prepare equipment for immediate endotracheal intubation, notify the rapid response team or healthcare provider immediately, and gather a bag-valve-mask (BVM) connected to high-flow oxygen.
The correct interventions focus on immediate life-saving airway management. The client's shift from respiratory alkalosis to respiratory acidosis, combined with lethargy and a sudden absence of wheezing, indicates profound respiratory muscle fatigue and impending respiratory arrest (silent chest). Preparing for intubation, obtaining a BVM with 100%100\% oxygen, and calling the rapid response team are the absolute priority actions to secure the client's airway and breathing.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the initial clinical presentation and ABG results.
The initial ABG (pH 7.487.48, PaCO2\text{PaCO}_2 30 mm Hg30\text{ mm Hg}) indicates respiratory alkalosis due to hyperventilation, a typical early compensatory response in an asthma attack.
Establishing a baseline is necessary to recognize subsequent clinical deterioration.
2
Evaluate the subsequent clinical changes and repeat ABG results.
The repeat ABG (pH 7.317.31, PaCO2\text{PaCO}_2 54 mm Hg54\text{ mm Hg}) reveals uncompensated respiratory acidosis. Combined with drowsiness and a 'silent chest' (diminished wheezing), this indicates severe air trapping and respiratory muscle fatigue.
Identifying the shift from respiratory alkalosis to acidosis is critical for diagnosing impending respiratory failure.
3
Determine the highest priority nursing interventions based on the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation).
The client requires immediate airway stabilization and ventilatory support, making intubation preparation, a rapid response call, and BVM readiness the priority actions.
Airway and breathing are the absolute top priorities in an actively decompensating respiratory client.

Key Concept

Status asthmaticus progressing to acute respiratory failure is characterized by a shift from respiratory alkalosis to respiratory acidosis, a decreasing level of consciousness, and the sudden absence of wheezing (silent chest), requiring immediate advanced airway management.
Question 264Question →

An older adult client is recovering on the surgical unit 48 hours after a right below-the-knee amputation. The nurse is updating the client's daily care plan. Which interventions should be included to promote comfort and prevent complications? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Wash the residual limb gently with mild soap and water, ensuring thorough drying.; Position the client prone for 20 to 30 minutes several times a day.; Provide prescribed oral analgesics approximately 30 minutes before physical therapy.

Answer

The correct interventions are: washing the residual limb with mild soap and water, positioning the client prone several times a day, and providing analgesics before physical therapy.
The correct interventions focus on maintaining skin integrity through proper hygiene, preventing debilitating joint contractures via prone positioning, and ensuring adequate pain control prior to exertion, all of which are fundamental to basic care and comfort for an amputee.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's specific clinical status and timeframe.
The client is an older adult, 48 hours post-below-the-knee amputation.
Timing post-surgery dictates which interventions are safe versus contraindicated.
2
Evaluate each intervention for safety, efficacy, and scope of practice.
Hygiene, prone positioning, and preemptive analgesia are safe and evidence-based. Continuous elevation, delegating assessments, and ignoring confusion are unsafe.
Nursing care must align with physiological principles, safety standards, and delegation laws.

Key Concept

Basic Care and Comfort Post-Amputation
Question 265Question →

A nurse is receiving a handoff report for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a dedicated lumen of a central venous catheter (CVC). Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the client's plan of care? (Select all that apply)

Select all that apply

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Answer: Verify the components of the newly prepared TPN solution against the provider's prescription with another registered nurse.; Assess the client's capillary blood glucose levels every 4 to 6 hours.; Hang an infusion of 10% dextrose in water (D10W) at the prescribed TPN rate if the current bag empties before the next one arrives.

Answer

The correct actions include verifying the TPN components with another registered nurse, assessing blood glucose levels every 4 to 6 hours, and hanging D10W if the TPN bag empties prematurely.
Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) is a high-alert medication that requires strict adherence to safety protocols. Because it is customized daily, two nurses must verify the prescription to prevent errors. The high dextrose concentration necessitates routine capillary blood glucose monitoring to detect and treat hyperglycemia. Furthermore, if the TPN infusion is interrupted abruptly, the client is at high risk for severe rebound hypoglycemia due to actively circulating insulin; therefore, infusing 10% dextrose in water (D10W) at the prescribed rate is a critical safety measure to maintain glycemic stability.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the requirement for medication verification.
Identify that TPN is a high-alert medication containing customized electrolytes and nutrients.
High-alert medications require independent double-checking by two registered nurses to ensure patient safety and correct formulation.
2
Analyze the metabolic complications associated with TPN.
Determine that the high dextrose concentration causes hyperglycemia, and abrupt cessation causes rebound hypoglycemia.
This establishes the critical need for routine blood glucose monitoring and the use of a D10W bridge if the TPN supply is interrupted.
3
Assess the safety of the proposed intravenous line management and delegation.
Identify that TPN lines must remain completely dedicated, infusion rates must not be artificially increased, and clinical site assessments cannot be delegated.
Adhering to these strict pharmacological and delegation protocols prevents severe complications like medication incompatibility, hyperosmolar states, and undetected central line infections.

Key Concept

Safe administration and monitoring of Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN)
Question 266Question →

A pediatric clinic nurse is planning care for a healthy 2-month-old infant presenting for a routine well-child visit. Which intervention should the nurse implement as a primary prevention strategy appropriate for this client?

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Answer: Administering the first doses of the rotavirus and diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis (DTaP) vaccines.

Answer

Administering the first doses of the rotavirus and diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis (DTaP) vaccines.
The correct answer involves administering immunizations, which is a quintessential example of primary prevention. Primary prevention aims to prevent disease or injury before it ever occurs by reducing exposure to hazards or enhancing physiological resistance. Furthermore, the first doses of the rotavirus and DTaP vaccines are standard, developmentally appropriate immunizations scheduled for a 2-month-old infant.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's developmental stage.
The client is a healthy 2-month-old infant presenting for routine care.
Nursing interventions must be developmentally appropriate for the client's specific age group.
2
Identify the requested level of prevention.
The question specifically asks for a 'primary prevention' strategy.
Accurately matching the intervention to the correct level of prevention (primary, secondary, or tertiary) is essential for prioritizing care.
3
Evaluate the options against primary prevention criteria and infant age requirements.
Administering the 2-month routine vaccines (rotavirus, DTaP) provides specific protection to prevent disease before it occurs, perfectly matching both criteria.
Primary prevention involves health promotion and specific protection against illness, while eliminating options that focus on screening (secondary), treatment (tertiary), or inappropriate milestones.

Key Concept

Primary Prevention and Infant Immunization
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 267Question →

A nurse is caring for a client who sustained a severe traumatic brain injury and is receiving mechanical ventilation. The client's continuous intracranial pressure (ICP) reading is 24 mm Hg24\text{ mm Hg}. The most recent arterial blood gas (ABG) results reveal a pH\text{pH} of 7.317.31, a PaCO2\text{PaCO}_2 of 56 mm Hg56\text{ mm Hg}, a PaO2\text{PaO}_2 of 88 mm Hg88\text{ mm Hg}, and an HCO3−\text{HCO}_3^- of 24 mEq/L24\text{ mEq/L}. To reduce the risk of secondary brain injury, which action should the nurse implement first?

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Answer: Verify that the client's head is in a neutral, midline position and notify the provider to adjust the ventilator.

Answer

The most appropriate action is to verify that the client's head is in a neutral, midline position and notify the provider to adjust the ventilator settings.
The correct answer addresses two critical aspects of care for a client with elevated intracranial pressure (ICP). First, ensuring the head is in a neutral, midline position prevents occlusion of the jugular veins, facilitating venous blood drainage from the brain. Second, the client's arterial blood gas results indicate uncompensated respiratory acidosis with hypercapnia (PaCO2\text{PaCO}_2 of 56 mm Hg56\text{ mm Hg}). Carbon dioxide is a potent cerebral vasodilator; an elevated PaCO2\text{PaCO}_2 increases cerebral blood flow, which dramatically increases ICP. Notifying the provider to adjust the ventilator settings (such as increasing the respiratory rate) will help the client 'blow off' excess carbon dioxide, thereby causing cerebral vasoconstriction and reducing intracranial pressure.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's intracranial pressure (ICP) reading.
The ICP is 24 mm Hg24\text{ mm Hg}, which is significantly elevated above the normal range of 55 to 15 mm Hg15\text{ mm Hg}.
Identifying intracranial hypertension is critical to prioritizing interventions that prevent secondary brain injury and herniation.
2
Interpret the arterial blood gas (ABG) results.
The results show an uncompensated respiratory acidosis (low pH\text{pH} of 7.317.31, elevated PaCO2\text{PaCO}_2 of 56 mm Hg56\text{ mm Hg}, and a normal HCO3−\text{HCO}_3^- of 24 mEq/L24\text{ mEq/L}).
Understanding the acid-base imbalance helps determine the physiological cause contributing to the increased ICP.
3
Determine the physiological relationship between the ABG results and the elevated ICP.
Hypercapnia (elevated PaCO2\text{PaCO}_2) is a potent cerebral vasodilator. This vasodilation increases cerebral blood volume, subsequently raising the intracranial pressure.
Connecting the respiratory status to the neurological status guides the choice of the most effective risk-reduction intervention.
4
Select the most appropriate nursing intervention to mitigate the risk.
The nurse must ensure proper venous drainage by keeping the head midline and collaborate with the provider to increase ventilation (e.g., increase respiratory rate or tidal volume) to blow off excess CO2\text{CO}_2.
These actions directly address the root causes of the elevated ICP without introducing harmful, noxious stimuli.

Key Concept

Management of Intracranial Pressure and Respiratory Acidosis
Question 268Question →

A nurse is performing wound care for a client and removes an abdominal dressing that is completely saturated with blood and purulent drainage. Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take when disposing of the soiled dressing?

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Answer: Discard the dressing in a designated red biohazard waste receptacle

Answer

Discard the dressing in a designated red biohazard waste receptacle.
The correct action is to discard the heavily soiled dressing in a red biohazard waste receptacle. According to standard precautions and occupational safety standards, items that are saturated, dripping, or caked with blood or potentially infectious body fluids must be placed in a clearly marked red biohazard bag. This ensures the waste receives specialized processing and protects healthcare workers and environmental staff from exposure to bloodborne pathogens.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the item requiring disposal for the presence of blood or body fluids.
The abdominal dressing is identified as completely saturated with blood and purulent drainage.
Determining the level of saturation and type of fluid dictates the correct waste stream.
2
Select the appropriate waste receptacle based on infection control guidelines.
A red biohazard bag is chosen for disposal.
OSHA guidelines and standard precautions mandate that items heavily soiled with blood or infectious materials must go into biohazard waste.
3
Dispose of the item immediately in the chosen receptacle.
The dressing is placed in the designated red biohazard waste receptacle.
Prompt and proper disposal minimizes the risk of cross-contamination and environmental exposure.

Key Concept

Safe Disposal of Biohazardous and Infectious Materials
Estimated Time:45s
Question 269Question →

A community health clinic nurse assesses a 15-year-old who requests testing for a sexually transmitted infection. Upon physical examination, the nurse discovers multiple varying stages of bruising across the client's torso. The adolescent tearfully admits the injuries were inflicted by their primary caregiver but begs the nurse to keep it a secret. Which action is the most appropriate response by the nurse to uphold ethical and legal standards?

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Answer: Gently explain to the client that the nursing staff is legally required to notify protective services regarding the injuries.

Answer

The correct action is to gently explain to the client that the nursing staff is legally required to notify protective services regarding the injuries.
The correct answer acknowledges the nurse's legal and ethical duty to report suspected abuse of a minor. While confidentiality is a core ethical principle, it is not absolute. Mandatory reporting laws require healthcare professionals to report suspected child abuse to protect the vulnerable client. The nurse must use veracity to honestly inform the client of this limit to confidentiality rather than going behind their back.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the ethical conflict presented in the scenario.
The nurse faces a conflict between maintaining client confidentiality (fidelity/autonomy) and protecting the client from harm (beneficence/nonmaleficence) through mandatory reporting.
Identifying the conflicting ethical principles is the first step in resolving a clinical dilemma.
2
Evaluate the legal limitations of confidentiality in this specific population.
The client is a minor (15 years old) experiencing physical abuse, which strictly falls under mandatory reporting laws.
Legal mandates, such as reporting suspected child or elder abuse, supersede the ethical duty to maintain confidentiality.
3
Determine the most therapeutic and ethical response.
The nurse must report the abuse to protective services while utilizing veracity (truth-telling) to inform the client of this necessary action.
Being truthful maintains respect for the client while ensuring their immediate safety and fulfilling strict legal obligations.

Key Concept

Limits of Confidentiality and Mandatory Reporting
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 270Question →

A registered nurse (RN) on a medical-surgical unit is preparing to delegate the insertion of a straight urinary catheter for a client with acute urinary retention to a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/VN). Arrange the following steps of the delegation process in the correct chronological order according to national delegation guidelines. (Place the first step at the top and the final step at the bottom.)

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

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Answer

The correct sequence of delegation is to first assess the client, then verify the LPN/VN's competency, provide specific instructions, monitor the execution of the task, and finally evaluate the outcome and provide feedback.
Safe delegation requires a systematic, chronological approach. The RN must first assess the client's condition to determine if the task is safe to delegate (Assess). Next, the RN assesses the delegatee's competence (Plan). Then, clear communication is provided (Communicate), followed by active supervision during the task (Supervise). Finally, the RN evaluates the client's response and provides feedback (Evaluate).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the client's stability and the complexity of the task.
Determines if the specific situation is safe for delegation.
The RN maintains accountability for client safety; unstable clients or highly complex, unpredictable tasks should not be delegated.
2
Verify the delegatee's competence and scope of practice.
Ensures the selected staff member is legally and clinically capable.
Delegating to an unqualified individual violates the 'Right Person' principle and endangers the client.
3
Communicate clear instructions and expectations.
The delegatee understands exactly what to do, how to do it, and what to report.
Clear, two-way communication prevents errors and establishes boundaries for the delegated task.
4
Monitor and supervise the performance of the task.
Ensures the procedure is carried out safely according to facility policy.
The RN remains accountable for the task and must be available to intervene if complications arise.
5
Evaluate the results and provide feedback.
Closes the delegation loop and ensures the client's needs were met.
Evaluation is necessary to determine if the desired outcome was achieved and to promote the professional growth of the delegatee.

Key Concept

The National Council of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN) decision-making process for safe delegation.
Question 271Question →

An older adult client with advanced Alzheimer's disease is admitted for severe dehydration. The client continuously attempts to pull out their peripheral intravenous (IV) line despite the implementation of multiple non-restrictive safety measures. The healthcare provider has prescribed bilateral soft wrist restraints. Arrange the following nursing actions in the correct sequence of execution from first to last.

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Answer

The correct sequence is to first review the prescription, then explain the procedure to the client, apply the cuffs checking for a two-finger clearance, secure the ties to the movable bed frame, and finally assess and document distal circulation.
The application of physical restraints requires a strict, systematic approach to prioritize legal requirements, client rights, and safety. First, a valid healthcare provider's prescription must be verified. Next, the nurse must explain the procedure to the client to reduce anxiety. The restraints are then applied to the wrists, ensuring a two-finger gap remains to maintain adequate circulation. After proper placement, the ties are secured to the movable part of the bed frame using a quick-release knot, which prevents injury when the bed is adjusted. Finally, the nurse must immediately assess and document the client's distal neurovascular status.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Verify the medical order.
The nurse confirms the prescription is valid and complete.
A legal prescription is mandatory before any physical restraint application.
2
Explain the procedure.
The client is informed about the restraints.
Communication respects client autonomy and helps reduce confusion or fear, even in clients with cognitive impairment.
3
Apply the restraint cuffs.
The cuffs are placed on the wrists with appropriate slack.
Ensuring a two-finger gap prevents neurovascular injury and skin breakdown.
4
Secure the ties.
The restraint ties are attached to the movable bed frame.
This prevents patient injury during bed position changes and allows for rapid release during an emergency.
5
Assess and document.
Neurovascular status is evaluated and recorded.
Continuous monitoring prevents complications like ischemia and ensures facility protocol compliance.

Key Concept

Safe application and monitoring of physical restraints requires a stepwise approach to ensure legal compliance, client dignity, and physical safety.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 272Question →

While coordinating client care assignments and evaluating clinical protocols on a busy telemetry unit, the charge nurse observes several interactions involving transmission-based precautions. Which of the following actions by the nursing staff demonstrate appropriate adherence to infection control guidelines? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Leaving a dedicated stethoscope and blood pressure cuff inside the room of a client who is isolated for a vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus (VRE) infection.; Placing a standard surgical mask over the face of a client with Bordetella pertussis while they are being transported to the radiology department.; Utilizing soap and water for hand hygiene instead of an alcohol-based rub after exiting the room of a client with a Clostridioides difficile infection.

Answer

The appropriate actions are leaving dedicated equipment in the VRE client's room, placing a surgical mask on the pertussis client during transport, and using soap and water for hand hygiene after caring for the C. difficile client.
The correct selections represent exact adherence to evidence-based infection control standards: utilizing dedicated equipment for contact precaution organisms (VRE), applying source control by masking droplet precaution clients (pertussis) during transport, and employing mechanical friction with soap and water to eradicate spore-forming organisms (C. difficile).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the transmission-based precaution category required for each specific pathogen mentioned in the clinical scenario.
VRE (Contact), B. pertussis (Droplet), C. difficile (Contact-Enteric), Measles (Airborne), Disseminated Herpes Zoster (Airborne + Contact).
Accurate identification of the isolation tier is the foundational step in determining the correct environmental, equipment, and PPE protocols.
2
Evaluate the equipment handling and hand hygiene interventions.
Dedicating equipment for VRE prevents surface transmission. Washing hands with soap and water effectively mechanically removes C. difficile spores, whereas alcohol rubs do not.
These actions perfectly align with standard Contact and Enteric precaution protocols.
3
Analyze the transport procedures and PPE doffing sequences.
Masking the client with pertussis properly contains droplets during transport. However, removing an N95 respirator inside a measles room violates airborne protocols.
Airborne pathogens remain suspended in the negative-pressure room air; removing respiratory protection before exiting exposes the nurse to infection.
4
Assess the room placement choices and delegation decisions.
Disseminated herpes zoster cannot be placed in a semi-private room due to airborne transmission risk. Delegating initial isolation education to a UAP is outside their scope of practice.
Safe rooming and appropriate delegation are critical responsibilities of the RN that prioritize client safety and adhere to legal practice boundaries.

Key Concept

Application of precise transmission-based precautions (Airborne, Droplet, Contact) including PPE sequences, hand hygiene nuances, safe cohorting, and appropriate delegation boundaries.
Question 273Question →

An older adult with advanced dementia is receiving continuous enteral nutrition through a newly placed gastrostomy tube. The client appears disoriented and repeatedly attempts to grasp and remove the tubing. Which action should the nurse take first to maintain the safety of the medical device?

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Answer: Camouflage the tubing by routing it under an abdominal binder or the client's clothing.

Answer

Camouflage the tubing by routing it under an abdominal binder or the client's clothing.
Before applying any form of physical or chemical restraint, the nurse is legally and ethically required to attempt and document less restrictive alternative measures. Camouflaging or hiding the gastrostomy tube under an abdominal binder or clothing removes the visual stimulus for the client with dementia, which often successfully prevents them from pulling at the device without restricting their freedom of movement.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the clinical scenario to identify the primary problem.
A disoriented client with dementia is at risk of accidentally removing an essential medical device (gastrostomy tube).
Understanding the risk helps determine the urgency and appropriate level of intervention.
2
Recall the legal and ethical guidelines regarding the use of restraints.
The standard of care dictates that nurses must systematically attempt and document the least restrictive interventions before considering physical or chemical restraints.
Restraints pose significant physical and psychological risks and are interventions of last resort.
3
Evaluate the provided options against the principle of the least restrictive alternative.
Hiding the tubing removes the visual trigger for the client without restricting their movement, making it the safest and least restrictive first step.
Clients with advanced dementia often pull at devices simply because they see or feel them; camouflaging removes this stimulus.
4
Identify why the remaining options are incorrect.
Limb holders and sedatives bypass less restrictive alternatives. Having a UAP evaluate confusion is an improper delegation of nursing assessment.
Ensuring the chosen action does not violate legal scope of practice or restraint protocols.

Key Concept

Least Restrictive Alternatives to Restraints
Question 274Question →

During a routine assessment on the maternal-newborn unit, the registered nurse monitors a client who experienced an uncomplicated spontaneous vaginal birth earlier in the shift. To accurately evaluate for hemorrhage, the nurse implements quantitative blood loss (QBL) measurement protocols. The nurse collects the used chux pads and peripads and places them on a scale. The scale displays a total weight of 1,240 g1,240\text{ g}. The standard dry weight of these identical items is 315 g315\text{ g}.

Calculate the client's quantified blood loss in milliliters (mL\text{mL}).

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 925

Answer

925
Quantitative blood loss (QBL) provides an objective and accurate measurement of maternal bleeding compared to visual estimation. The process requires finding the net weight of the blood by subtracting the known dry weight of the collected items (315 g315\text{ g}) from the total weight of the blood-soaked items (1,240 g1,240\text{ g}), which results in 925 g925\text{ g}. Because 1 gram1\text{ gram} of blood weight is clinically equivalent to 1 milliliter1\text{ milliliter} of blood volume, 925 g925\text{ g} translates directly to 925 mL925\text{ mL} of blood loss.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Determine the net weight of the blood by subtracting the dry weight of the materials from the total weighed amount.
1,240 g−315 g=925 g1,240\text{ g} - 315\text{ g} = 925\text{ g}
Subtracting the dry weight ensures that only the fluid volume is being calculated for blood loss.
2
Convert the net weight in grams to a volume measurement in milliliters.
925 g=925 mL925\text{ g} = 925\text{ mL}
In obstetrical clinical practice, the standard conversion for quantifying blood loss is 1 gram1\text{ gram} of weight equals exactly 1 milliliter1\text{ milliliter} of volume.

Key Concept

Quantitative Blood Loss (QBL) Measurement and Calculation
Question 275Question →

A nurse is reviewing safety protocols for the administration of intravenous (IV) medications and continuous infusions. Which of the following practices should the nurse implement to ensure client safety? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Verify the compatibility of a secondary IV medication with the primary IV fluid prior to administration.; Flush the IV catheter with normal saline before and after giving an intermittent IV push medication.; Utilize an electronic infusion pump when administering high-alert medications that require a strictly controlled flow rate.

Answer

The correct practices are verifying IV compatibility, flushing the IV line before and after push medications, and utilizing an electronic infusion pump for high-alert medications.
Verifying compatibility, flushing lines, and using infusion pumps for high-alert medications are foundational safety standards in parenteral therapy. These actions prevent drug incompatibilities, ensure complete and safe dose administration, and maintain accurate delivery rates.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Review the basic principles of safe parenteral medication administration and delegation.
Identify that the registered nurse is responsible for verifying compatibility, calculating doses correctly, and maintaining precise flow rates.
These principles form the foundation of parenteral therapy safety and scope of practice.
2
Evaluate each option against established safety protocols.
Determine that delegation to UAP, assuming clear fluids are compatible, and using pounds for weight-based calculations are unsafe practices.
Eliminating unsafe actions ensures the selection of only correct, evidence-based nursing interventions.

Key Concept

Safe Intravenous Medication Administration
Question 276Question →

An ambulatory client who recently started taking oral lisinopril for hypertension contacts the clinic to report several new symptoms. Which of the following client reports requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

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Answer: My lips and tongue feel unusually thick and swollen.

Answer

The client reporting thick and swollen lips and tongue requires the most immediate intervention.
The report of swollen lips and tongue strongly suggests angioedema, a rare but highly dangerous adverse effect of ACE inhibitors like lisinopril. Angioedema involves rapid swelling of the deep dermis and subcutaneous tissues around the face, mouth, and throat, which can quickly occlude the airway. Using the ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) prioritization framework, securing and protecting a compromised airway is always the highest clinical priority.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's medication and identified symptoms.
The client is taking lisinopril (an ACE inhibitor) and reports swelling, cough, dizziness, and altered taste.
Identifying the medication's adverse effect profile is necessary to differentiate between expected side effects and severe hypersensitivity reactions.
2
Prioritize the symptoms using the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) framework.
Swelling of the lips and tongue (angioedema) threatens the Airway, making it the absolute highest priority.
Airway compromise is an immediate, life-threatening emergency that always takes precedence over chronic or systemic findings.

Key Concept

ACE Inhibitor Adverse Effects and Airway Prioritization
Question 277Question →

A client requires a large-volume cleansing enema to relieve severe constipation. In what chronological sequence should the nurse perform the steps of this procedure?

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Answer

The correct sequence is: position the client on their left side, apply lubricant to the tube, insert the tube 3 to 4 inches, elevate the bag 12 to 18 inches, and release the clamp to instill the fluid.
The correct sequence ensures both client safety and the physiological effectiveness of the enema. Positioning the client appropriately must occur first to align the anatomy. Lubricating the tube is necessary immediately prior to insertion to prevent mucosal tears. Once inserted properly towards the umbilicus, the bag is elevated to the recommended height to control fluid pressure. Finally, the flow is initiated while actively monitoring the client's physical tolerance.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Client Positioning
The client is placed in the left lateral Sims' position.
This anatomical position allows gravity to assist the downward flow of fluid into the descending colon.
2
Equipment Preparation
The distal tip of the rectal tube is covered with water-soluble lubricant.
Lubrication prevents tissue injury and minimizes discomfort during insertion.
3
Tube Insertion
The tube is inserted 3 to 4 inches toward the umbilicus.
This follows the natural anatomical pathway of the lower bowel without causing perforation.
4
Pressure Adjustment
The enema bag is positioned 12 to 18 inches above the anus.
This specific height provides a safe, steady hydrostatic pressure without causing excessive bowel distension.
5
Fluid Instillation
The fluid is administered slowly into the rectum.
Rapid instillation can cause severe cramping and premature expulsion of the enema, defeating the purpose of the procedure.

Key Concept

Enteral Elimination Procedures and Enema Administration
Question 278Question →

A critical care nurse is managing a client receiving continuous renal replacement therapy. The client becomes increasingly restless and repeatedly attempts to disconnect the dialysis lines. After unsuccessful alternative interventions, the healthcare provider prescribes bilateral soft wrist restraints. Which actions by the nurse indicate appropriate management of the restraints? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Releasing the restraints every 2 hours to perform range-of-motion exercises and evaluate skin integrity.; Fastening the restraints to the movable portion of the bed frame using a quick-release tie.; Recording the less restrictive interventions that were implemented prior to applying the devices.

Answer

The appropriate actions include releasing the restraints every 2 hours for assessment, fastening them to the movable bed frame with a quick-release tie, and recording the less restrictive interventions attempted prior to application.
Safe restraint management requires fastening ties to the movable part of the bed frame using quick-release knots, removing the devices every 2 hours for skin assessment and range-of-motion exercises, and thoroughly documenting the behaviors and prior alternative measures that necessitated the restraint.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the standard safety requirements for physical restraint application.
Restraints must be tied to the movable portion of the bed frame using quick-release knots to prevent injury and allow rapid emergency access.
Securing to immovable parts or side rails causes injury when the bed is adjusted.
2
Determine the mandatory monitoring and care protocols for clients in restraints.
The nurse must release the restraints every 2 hours for skin assessment, neurovascular checks, and range-of-motion exercises.
Continuous restraint without release leads to skin breakdown, nerve damage, and circulatory impairment.
3
Apply delegation and documentation principles regarding restraints.
The nurse retains the responsibility to assess the ongoing need for restraints (cannot delegate to UAP) and must document that all less restrictive alternatives failed.
Clinical judgment cannot be delegated, and regulatory bodies require proof that restraints were the last resort.

Key Concept

Safe Restraint Application and Maintenance
Question 279Question →

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a multilumen central venous catheter. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the client's plan of care? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Dedicate one specific lumen of the central venous catheter exclusively for the total parenteral nutrition infusion; Assess the client's capillary blood glucose levels every 4 to 6 hours; Replace the total parenteral nutrition solution bag and intravenous administration set every 24 hours

Answer

The correct actions are to dedicate a specific central line lumen exclusively for TPN, monitor capillary blood glucose every 4 to 6 hours, and change the TPN bag and intravenous tubing every 24 hours.
Total parenteral nutrition requires strict adherence to safety protocols due to its high osmolarity and nutrient density. It must be administered through a dedicated central line lumen to prevent drug incompatibilities. Because of the high dextrose concentration, capillary blood glucose levels should be monitored every 4 to 6 hours to detect hyperglycemia. Furthermore, to minimize the risk of severe bloodstream infections, the TPN solution and the intravenous administration set must be changed every 24 hours.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the requirement for a dedicated lumen.
TPN requires a dedicated lumen to prevent medication precipitation and reduce contamination risks.
Maintaining a dedicated line ensures drug compatibility and adherence to strict infection control standards.
2
Determine the appropriate blood glucose monitoring frequency.
Blood glucose must be checked every 4 to 6 hours during the infusion.
The continuous delivery of a high-dextrose solution presents a significant risk for the development of hyperglycemia.
3
Assess the protocol for changing TPN equipment.
The TPN bag and the entire intravenous administration tubing must be replaced every 24 hours.
Because TPN is highly nutritious, it promotes rapid bacterial and fungal growth if left hanging for prolonged periods.
4
Evaluate the incorrect practices regarding TPN administration.
Increasing the rate, pausing for incompatible drugs, and drawing blood from the TPN line are identified as unsafe practices.
These actions can cause fluid overload, profound hypoglycemia, line contamination, and inaccurate laboratory results.

Key Concept

Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) Administration and Safety Principles
Question 280Question →

A nurse is preparing a client for a bedside thoracentesis to treat a large pleural effusion. Which actions must the nurse perform to prevent procedural errors and ensure client safety? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Verify the client's identity using two unique identifiers prior to the start of the procedure.; Conduct a 'time-out' with the healthcare team immediately before the provider begins the procedure.; Ensure that the healthcare provider has properly marked the intended insertion site.

Answer

The correct actions are verifying identity with two identifiers, conducting a time-out, and ensuring the provider has marked the correct site.
To prevent accident and error during invasive procedures, nurses must follow the Universal Protocol. This includes verifying the client using two unique identifiers, ensuring the procedural site is marked by the provider, and conducting a final 'time-out' with the entire team to confirm the client, procedure, and site. These steps are standard safety requirements designed to prevent devastating medical errors.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the core objective of the scenario.
The goal is to prevent procedural errors and ensure safety during an invasive bedside procedure (thoracentesis).
Understanding the context of the Universal Protocol for preventing wrong-site, wrong-procedure, and wrong-person errors is essential.
2
Evaluate each option against established patient safety goals and nursing scope of practice.
Options involving patient identification, site marking, and time-outs align with safety protocols. Options involving improper delegation, incorrect timing of sedatives, and incorrect isolation precautions violate safety standards.
Safe practice requires strict adherence to evidence-based guidelines and legal requirements for informed consent.

Key Concept

Universal Protocol and Procedural Safety
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