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Question 3321Question →

A registered nurse is reviewing unit protocols for safe intravenous (IV) medication administration. Which of the following practices demonstrate adherence to standard parenteral therapy safety principles? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Flushing the intravenous catheter with sterile normal saline before and after administering an IV push medication.; Calculating weight-based medication dosages using the client's current weight in kilograms rather than pounds.; Consulting a reliable pharmacy reference to verify Y-site compatibility before hanging a secondary IV piggyback.

Answer

The correct practices are flushing the IV catheter before and after use, calculating dosages using kilograms, and verifying Y-site compatibility before administration.
Safe parenteral administration requires meticulous attention to detail. Flushing IV lines prevents mixing of incompatible drugs and ensures patency. Calculating weight-based doses in kilograms eliminates conversion errors. Verifying Y-site compatibility prevents chemical reactions between medications in the IV tubing.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the clinical scenario.
The question requires identifying correct basic safety principles related to parenteral (IV) medication therapy.
Identifying the core focus ensures accurate evaluation of each option against standard nursing protocols.
2
Evaluate the options regarding compatibility and line maintenance.
Flushing lines and verifying Y-site compatibility are identified as essential safe practices. Infusing untested medications together is highly unsafe.
Preventing drug precipitation in the tubing and maintaining line patency are foundational to IV safety.
3
Evaluate the options regarding mathematical calculation and clinical prioritization.
Using kilograms for calculations is safe. Estimating drip rates and ignoring unstable clients to administer routine medications are unsafe practices.
Accurate mathematics and proper prioritization using the Airway-Breathing-Circulation (ABC) framework prevent critical patient harm.

Key Concept

Standard principles of safe parenteral therapy include rigorous compatibility checking, precise dosage calculation, maintaining line patency, and prioritizing unstable clients.
Question 3322Question →

A nurse is preparing to perform a routine central venous catheter (CVC) dressing change for a client receiving long-term parenteral nutrition. In what chronological order should the nurse perform the following steps to ensure strict aseptic technique and prevent catheter dislodgement?

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

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Answer

The correct sequence is to first apply respiratory precautions (masking the client and turning their head), then remove the old dressing using clean gloves by pulling toward the insertion site. Following this, the nurse must transition to sterile technique by removing clean gloves, performing hand hygiene, and donning sterile gloves. The site is then scrubbed with chlorhexidine using friction, allowed to air-dry completely without fanning, and finally covered with a new sterile transparent dressing.
The central venous catheter dressing change must adhere to strict surgical asepsis to prevent central line-associated bloodstream infections (CLABSI). The sequence begins with respiratory precautions to protect the site from droplet contamination. Next, the old dressing is removed using clean gloves and pulling toward the insertion site to prevent catheter migration. After removing the contaminated dressing, the nurse must discard the clean gloves and perform hand hygiene before donning sterile gloves, marking the crucial transition from clean to sterile technique. The site is then decontaminated with chlorhexidine using mechanical friction and allowed to air-dry completely, as the drying process is required for the antiseptic to destroy cell walls of pathogens. Finally, the sterile transparent dressing is applied to seal the site.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Establish respiratory precautions
The client wears a mask and turns their head away from the field.
Prevents airborne and droplet contamination of the exposed CVC site from respiratory tracts.
2
Remove the existing dressing safely
Using clean gloves, the old dressing is peeled toward the catheter.
Clean gloves protect the nurse from exudate. Pulling toward the insertion site prevents accidental catheter migration or dislodgement.
3
Transition to a sterile field
Clean gloves are discarded, hand hygiene is performed, and sterile gloves are donned.
The exposed insertion site requires strict surgical asepsis for cleansing; the clean gloves used for removal are now contaminated.
4
Decontaminate the insertion site
Chlorhexidine is applied with vigorous back-and-forth friction.
Mechanical friction ensures the antiseptic penetrates the epidermis to eliminate resident skin flora.
5
Allow antimicrobial activation
The site air-dries completely on its own.
Chlorhexidine's bactericidal properties depend on the drying process. Active fanning introduces microorganisms.
6
Secure the site with a sterile barrier
A transparent semi-permeable dressing is applied over the dry site.
Seals the sterile site from environmental contaminants while allowing ongoing clinical assessment.

Key Concept

Central Venous Catheter (CVC) Infection Control and Sterile Technique
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 3323Question →

The nurse is caring for a client who was recently admitted with a massive pulmonary embolism. The client is currently receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of unfractionated heparin through a single-lumen peripheral catheter. A new prescription is received for an urgent dose of intravenous vancomycin to treat a suspected bloodstream infection. After consulting a drug reference and discovering that the two medications are physically incompatible, which action should the nurse take?

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Answer: Insert a second peripheral intravenous catheter to administer the vancomycin.

Answer

Insert a second peripheral intravenous catheter to administer the vancomycin.
Heparin is a high-alert medication with a short half-life (11 to 2 hours2\text{ hours}). Pausing this critical continuous infusion for the 6060 to 90 minutes90\text{ minutes} required to administer intravenous vancomycin would cause the client's anticoagulation levels to drop subtherapeutically, risking life-threatening clot extension. Because the medications are physically incompatible and cannot be mixed, the safest and most appropriate action is to establish a second peripheral intravenous line. This ensures the client receives the urgent antibiotic without interrupting the essential anticoagulation therapy.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the continuous infusion and its clinical purpose.
The client is receiving heparin for a massive pulmonary embolism.
Heparin has a short half-life and is critical for preventing life-threatening clot expansion in this unstable client.
2
Analyze the medication compatibility.
Heparin and vancomycin are physically incompatible.
Incompatible medications cannot be administered through the same intravenous line simultaneously due to the risk of precipitation.
3
Evaluate alternative administration methods.
Pausing the heparin for a vancomycin infusion (which typically takes 6060 to 90 minutes90\text{ minutes}) is unsafe.
Prolonged interruption of heparin therapy in a client with a massive pulmonary embolism compromises circulation and violates prioritization principles.
4
Determine the safest nursing intervention.
A second peripheral intravenous line must be established.
This allows both critical therapies to run continuously and safely without mixing or dangerous interruptions.

Key Concept

Management of physically incompatible intravenous medications during critical continuous infusions
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 3324Question →

While rounding on the medical unit, a nurse prepares to administer a scheduled intravenous (IV) push medication to a patient. The patient currently has a continuous IV infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride running through a peripheral line. What is the most critical initial action the nurse should take to ensure safe medication administration?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Verify the compatibility of the prescribed IV push medication with the continuous IV fluid.

Answer

Verify the compatibility of the prescribed IV push medication with the continuous IV fluid.
Before administering any IV push medication into an existing continuous infusion, the nurse must always verify that the two substances are compatible. Mixing incompatible medications or fluids can result in crystallization, precipitation, or reduced therapeutic efficacy, which poses a severe safety risk to the patient. This is a fundamental principle of safe parenteral therapy.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify that the patient has an existing continuous IV infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride.
The primary IV line contains a specific fluid that will come into direct contact with the new medication.
Recognizing the presence of continuous fluids is the first step in medication safety.
2
Acknowledge the risk of physical or chemical incompatibilities when two different substances mix in the same IV tubing.
The nurse understands that mixing incompatible medications can cause crystallization, precipitation, or reduced medication efficacy.
Understanding the mechanism of IV incompatibility reinforces the need for preventive safety checks.
3
Consult a drug reference guide, the pharmacy, or electronic health record compatibility charts.
The nurse confirms whether it is safe to push the medication into the running saline or if a different intervention (such as stopping the infusion and thoroughly flushing) is required.
Evidence-based verification is required before any parenteral administration to ensure patient safety.

Key Concept

Intravenous Medication Compatibility
Estimated Time:45s
Question 3325Question →

Following a right total hip arthroplasty, a nurse is establishing a plan of care to minimize potential postoperative complications. Which of the following interventions should be included? (Select all that apply.)

Select all that apply

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Answer: Maintain the operative leg in an abducted position while the client is resting in bed.; Place an abduction wedge between the client's legs when turning them to the unaffected side.; Instruct the client to avoid crossing their legs at the knees or ankles during recovery.; Apply the prescribed sequential compression devices (SCDs) to the bilateral lower extremities.

Answer

The correct interventions to reduce postoperative complications are maintaining the leg in abduction, using an abduction wedge when turning, avoiding crossing the legs, and applying sequential compression devices.
To minimize postoperative complications following a total hip arthroplasty, the primary goals are preventing prosthesis dislocation and ensuring adequate venous return. Maintaining the operative leg in an abducted position, utilizing an abduction wedge during turns, and instructing the client not to cross their legs all effectively prevent hip adduction, a major cause of dislocation. Furthermore, applying sequential compression devices (SCDs) is a standard, evidence-based intervention that promotes blood flow and significantly reduces the risk of deep vein thrombosis.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary risks following a total hip arthroplasty.
The most common and severe complications include prosthesis dislocation, deep vein thrombosis (DVT), and surgical site issues like bleeding or infection.
Recognizing specific postoperative risks guides the selection of targeted, safe interventions.
2
Evaluate interventions related to client positioning.
Abducting the leg, using a wedge during turns, and avoiding crossing the legs correctly prevent adduction and dislocation. Flexing the hip to 110110 degrees is incorrect because flexion must remain below 9090 degrees.
Maintaining proper joint alignment is critical to preserving the integrity of the new hip prosthesis.
3
Evaluate interventions related to circulation and delegation.
Applying sequential compression devices safely reduces DVT risk. Delegating the initial wound assessment to a UAP is unsafe and outside their scope of practice.
Delegation rules require the RN to perform all initial assessments, and mechanical prophylaxis is a standard of care for DVT prevention.

Key Concept

Postoperative risk reduction and hip precautions following total hip arthroplasty.
Question 3326Question →

A nurse in the emergency department is evaluating a pregnant client at 37 weeks of gestation who sustained blunt abdominal trauma from a fall. The nurse suspects abruptio placentae and is monitoring for early signs of hypovolemic shock. Which of the following clinical findings indicate the client is in the early (compensatory) stage of shock? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Maternal heart rate of 124 beats/minute; Client reports feeling unusually restless and anxious; Maternal respiratory rate of 26 breaths/minute

Answer

The clinical findings that indicate the early (compensatory) stage of shock are a maternal heart rate of 124 beats/minute, the client feeling unusually restless and anxious, and a maternal respiratory rate of 26 breaths/minute.
During the early (compensatory) stage of hypovolemic shock, the body activates the sympathetic nervous system to maintain cardiac output and tissue perfusion. This neurohormonal response causes an increase in heart rate (tachycardia) and respiratory rate (tachypnea). Decreased cerebral perfusion combined with sympathetic stimulation also leads to early neurological changes, presenting as anxiety, apprehension, or restlessness.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary complication being monitored.
The nurse is monitoring for early (compensatory) hypovolemic shock secondary to abruptio placentae.
Understanding the timeline of shock helps differentiate early from late signs.
2
Recall the physiological manifestations of the early compensatory stage of shock.
Early signs include sympathetic nervous system activation: tachycardia, tachypnea, anxiety, restlessness, and cool/clammy skin. Blood pressure remains relatively normal.
The body is compensating for blood loss to maintain perfusion to vital organs.
3
Evaluate each option against the expected findings for early shock.
Tachycardia, tachypnea, and restlessness match early shock. Hypotension is a late sign. Early decelerations are unrelated to shock. Warm skin contradicts the expected peripheral vasoconstriction.
Systematic elimination ensures the correct signs of early shock are identified.

Key Concept

Recognition of early physiological indicators of hypovolemic shock in an obstetric client
Question 3327Question →

A medical-surgical nurse is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of intravenous ceftriaxone 1 g1\text{ g} to an adult client diagnosed with bacterial pneumonia. The client currently has a single-lumen peripheral venous catheter that is continuously infusing Lactated Ringer's solution at 125 mL/hr125\text{ mL/hr}. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention for safely delivering the prescribed antibiotic?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Suspend the running maintenance fluid, thoroughly flush the catheter with 0.9% sodium chloride, administer the antibiotic, and follow with another flush.

Answer

Suspend the running maintenance fluid, thoroughly flush the catheter with 0.9% sodium chloride, administer the antibiotic, and follow with another flush.
Ceftriaxone is physically incompatible with calcium-containing solutions, such as Lactated Ringer's, because they form a dangerous precipitate when mixed. For an adult client with a single-lumen catheter, the nurse must ensure the incompatible fluids never interact by suspending the continuous fluid and thoroughly flushing the line with a compatible solution (such as 0.9% sodium chloride) before and after administering the antibiotic.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the active intravenous solutions and the prescribed medication.
The client is receiving continuous Lactated Ringer's solution, and the newly prescribed medication is ceftriaxone.
Recognizing the components of the current parenteral therapy is the critical first step in ensuring safe medication delivery.
2
Evaluate the compatibility of the prescribed antibiotic with the infusing maintenance fluid.
Ceftriaxone is fundamentally incompatible with Lactated Ringer's because Lactated Ringer's contains calcium, which rapidly forms a precipitate when mixed with this specific antibiotic.
Preventing the mixture of incompatible intravenous fluids averts the formation of life-threatening crystal emboli and catheter occlusion.
3
Determine the safest method to administer the medication using the existing single-lumen catheter.
The nurse must create a physical barrier between the incompatible solutions by temporarily suspending the Lactated Ringer's and flushing the line meticulously with a compatible fluid (0.9% sodium chloride) before and after the antibiotic.
Sequential administration with thorough normal saline flushes ensures the two incompatible fluids never interact within the intravenous tubing.

Key Concept

Intravenous Compatibility and Safe Sequential Administration
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 3328Question →

A triage nurse is the first medical responder at the scene of a structural collapse at a crowded stadium. Using the START (Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment) algorithm for mass casualty incidents, which client must the nurse categorize as "Immediate" (Red tag)?

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Answer: A non-ambulatory client with a closed head injury who has a respiratory rate of 26 breaths/min, a palpable radial pulse, and stares blankly without following the command to squeeze hands

Answer

The non-ambulatory client with the closed head injury who cannot follow the command to squeeze hands.
In a mass casualty incident, the START triage method evaluates clients based on Respirations, Perfusion, and Mental status (RPM). Clients who cannot follow simple commands (such as squeezing a hand) due to an altered mental status are categorized as 'Immediate' (Red tag). This client has adequate respirations (under 30) and perfusion (palpable radial pulse), but fails the mental status assessment, indicating a critical need for immediate intervention.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the ambulatory status of all victims.
The client walking with severe chest pain is categorized as Green.
In a mass casualty incident, the 'walking wounded' are initially categorized as Minor (Green), regardless of presenting symptoms, to quickly clear the area and allocate resources to immobile victims.
2
Assess the respiratory status of the remaining non-ambulatory clients.
The apneic client remains apneic after the airway is opened and is categorized as Black. The remaining clients have respirations under 30 breaths/min.
Clients requiring massive resources (such as continuous manual ventilation or CPR) are classified as Expectant (Black) in a disaster to preserve resources for salvageable clients.
3
Assess perfusion in clients with adequate respirations (under 30 breaths/min).
Both the client with the head injury and the client with the amputation have palpable radial pulses or capillary refill times under 2 seconds.
Adequate perfusion means these clients bypass the perfusion trigger for a Red tag and move to the final assessment step.
4
Assess mental status in clients with adequate respirations and perfusion.
The client with the amputation is oriented (Yellow tag). The client with the head injury cannot follow simple commands (Red tag).
Failure to follow simple commands indicates impending neurological compromise or airway loss, requiring Immediate (Red) life-saving intervention.

Key Concept

START (Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment) Algorithm
Question 3329Question →

A pediatric client is admitted to the inpatient unit with a confirmed diagnosis of active varicella (chickenpox). When planning care for this client, which of the following infection control interventions should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply.)

Select all that apply

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Answer: Place the client in a single-patient room with monitored negative air pressure.; Don a disposable gown and clean gloves upon entering the client's room.; Apply a standard surgical mask to the client if transport outside the room is necessary.

Answer

The nurse should place the client in a negative-pressure room, wear a gown and gloves upon entry, and place a surgical mask on the client during necessary transport.
Active varicella necessitates both Airborne and Contact Precautions. Placing the client in a monitored negative-pressure room prevents aerosols from entering the hallway. Donning a gown and gloves protects the nurse from contact with infectious vesicular fluid. Applying a surgical mask to the client during transport acts as source control, preventing the spread of airborne droplets to other areas of the hospital.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the pathogen and its mode of transmission.
Varicella (chickenpox) is transmitted through both airborne respiratory droplets and direct contact with open lesions.
Determining the transmission route is the first step in selecting the appropriate tier of isolation precautions.
2
Determine the required isolation precautions.
The client requires both Airborne and Contact Precautions.
Airborne precautions prevent inhalation of small infectious particles, while contact precautions prevent transmission via direct touch.
3
Select interventions that align with Airborne and Contact Precautions.
Appropriate actions include utilizing a negative-pressure room, donning an N95 respirator (removed outside the room), wearing a gown and gloves (donned upon entry), keeping the door closed, and masking the client for transport.
These specific interventions strictly adhere to the CDC guidelines for breaking the chain of infection for varicella.

Key Concept

Varicella (Chickenpox) requires both Airborne and Contact Precautions, including an AIIR, N95 respirator, gown, gloves, and restriction of susceptible healthcare workers.
Question 3330Question →

A nurse preceptor is observing a newly hired registered nurse (RN) implement fall precautions for a client who experiences severe orthostatic hypotension. Which action by the newly hired RN requires immediate correction by the preceptor to prevent client injury?

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Answer: Instructing the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to evaluate if the client's gait is steady enough for independent ambulation

Answer

The action requiring immediate correction is instructing the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to evaluate if the client's gait is steady enough for independent ambulation.
The registered nurse is legally responsible for all clinical assessments, including evaluating a client's tolerance to activity and stability during ambulation. Delegating this evaluation to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) violates the principles of safe delegation and places a high-risk client in immediate danger of falling. The preceptor must intervene immediately to perform the assessment themselves.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the client's specific safety risks based on the clinical presentation.
The client has severe orthostatic hypotension, which significantly increases the risk of dizziness, syncope, and falls upon standing.
Understanding the mechanism of risk dictates which safety interventions are required.
2
Analyze each action performed by the newly hired RN to determine if it aligns with evidence-based safety protocols and scope of practice.
Three actions are correct safety measures (dangling legs, three side rails, call light access). One action involves delegating a clinical evaluation to a UAP.
The preceptor must identify unsafe practices or scope-of-practice violations to protect the client.
3
Select the action that places the client at risk and requires immediate correction.
The delegation of gait evaluation to the UAP is selected.
UAPs cannot perform assessments or evaluate clinical status; doing so jeopardizes client safety.

Key Concept

Safe Delegation and Fall Prevention Protocols
Question 3331Question →

A nurse in the intensive care unit is caring for a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) who is mechanically ventilated. The most recent assessment reveals a mean arterial pressure (MAP) of 54 mm Hg54 \text{ mm Hg} and arterial blood gas (ABG) values showing: pH=7.25pH = 7.25, PaCO2=62 mm HgPaCO_2 = 62 \text{ mm Hg}, HCO3−=25 mEq/LHCO_3^- = 25 \text{ mEq/L}, and PaO2=54 mm HgPaO_2 = 54 \text{ mm Hg} on an FiO2FiO_2 of 0.800.80. To reduce the risk of further physiological deterioration, which of the following interventions should the nurse implement? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Prepare to initiate prescribed prone positioning therapy.; Prepare to administer a prescribed continuous infusion of a neuromuscular blocking agent.; Implement a prescribed conservative fluid management strategy to achieve a negative fluid balance.

Answer

The correct interventions are: preparing to initiate prescribed prone positioning therapy, preparing to administer a prescribed continuous infusion of a neuromuscular blocking agent, and implementing a prescribed conservative fluid management strategy to achieve a negative fluid balance.
In severe ARDS, the primary goals are to improve oxygenation while maintaining hemodynamic stability. Prone positioning recruits collapsed posterior alveoli and improves ventilation-perfusion matching. Neuromuscular blocking agents eliminate patient-ventilator dyssynchrony and reduce cellular oxygen consumption. A conservative fluid management strategy reduces pulmonary edema, which improves lung compliance. All of these evidence-based actions directly reduce the risk of further physiological decompensation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the arterial blood gas (ABG) results and the client's hemodynamic status.
The ABG reveals uncompensated respiratory acidosis and severe hypoxemia. The MAP of 54 mm Hg54 \text{ mm Hg} indicates clinically significant hypotension and shock.
Accurate interpretation of physiological data is essential to identify the risks of cardiopulmonary collapse before selecting interventions.
2
Evaluate the safety of adjusting mechanical ventilation settings.
Increasing PEEP is rejected due to the risk of worsening the client's hypotension.
High intrathoracic pressure from PEEP impedes venous return, which will exacerbate existing shock.
3
Evaluate positioning strategies for a client with severe hypoxemia.
Prone positioning is selected over the continuous supine position.
Prone positioning redistributes pulmonary blood flow and recruits dependent alveoli, significantly improving oxygenation.
4
Determine appropriate pharmacological and fluid management interventions.
Neuromuscular blockade and conservative fluid management are selected, while sodium bicarbonate is rejected.
Paralytics reduce oxygen demand, and fluid restriction minimizes pulmonary edema. Sodium bicarbonate is contraindicated because it generates additional carbon dioxide, worsening respiratory acidosis.

Key Concept

Management of severe Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS) and reduction of physiological complications
Estimated Time:2m 30s
Question 3332Question →

A critical care nurse is tasked with obtaining a blood specimen for a complete blood count (CBC) from a client's multi-lumen central venous catheter (CVC). A continuous infusion of total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is currently infusing through the medial lumen. Place the following steps for obtaining the blood sample in the correct sequential order. (Arrange the steps from first to last).

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

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Answer

The correct sequence is: Pause the TPN, scrub the connector, flush with 10 mL of normal saline, discard the first 5 mL of blood, withdraw the sample, and finally flush with 20 mL of normal saline.
When obtaining blood from a CVC, the nurse must first pause any active infusions to avoid sample contamination. Aseptic technique is initiated by scrubbing the hub. A 10 mL normal saline flush confirms patency and clears the line. The discard method (removing 4 to 5 mL of blood) ensures the subsequent sample is undiluted. Finally, a larger volume flush (10 to 20 mL) using a push-pause technique clears the line of blood, reducing the risk of thrombosis.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Pause the TPN infusion.
The flow of TPN is stopped.
Prevents contamination of the blood sample with TPN components, which would cause falsely elevated lab values.
2
Scrub the needleless connector.
The access port is disinfected.
Maintains strict asepsis and prevents central line-associated bloodstream infections (CLABSI).
3
Flush with 10 mL 0.9% sodium chloride.
The catheter is assessed for patency.
Ensures the line is open and functioning properly before attempting a blood draw.
4
Aspirate and discard 5 mL of blood.
Diluted blood is removed from the line.
Removes the saline flush and any residual fluid from the catheter space, ensuring the actual sample is pure.
5
Withdraw the required blood volume.
The diagnostic sample is obtained.
Provides an undiluted, accurate sample for the complete blood count (CBC).
6
Flush with 20 mL 0.9% sodium chloride.
The catheter is cleared of all blood.
Prevents blood from clotting inside the lumen, which could lead to catheter occlusion.

Key Concept

The discard method is the standard of practice for obtaining blood samples from a central venous catheter to ensure accurate laboratory results and maintain catheter patency.
Question 3333Question →

A primary health care provider prescribes a continuous intravenous heparin infusion for a client diagnosed with a deep vein thrombosis. The client's admission weight is 198 lb198\text{ lb}. The prescribed infusion rate is 15 units/kg/hr15\text{ units/kg/hr}, and the medication arrives from the pharmacy as a premixed 500 mL500\text{ mL} bag containing 25,000 units25,000\text{ units} of heparin. At what rate should the nurse set the infusion pump in mL/hr\text{mL/hr}? (Record the answer as a whole number)

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 27

Answer

27
To solve this calculation, first convert pounds to kilograms: 198÷2.2=90 kg198 \div 2.2 = 90\text{ kg}. Next, calculate the hourly dose: 15 units×90 kg=1350 units/hr15\text{ units} \times 90\text{ kg} = 1350\text{ units/hr}. Finally, calculate the volume using dimensional analysis or the D/H x V formula: (1350 units/hr÷25,000 units)×500 mL=27 mL/hr(1350\text{ units/hr} \div 25,000\text{ units}) \times 500\text{ mL} = 27\text{ mL/hr}.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms.
198 lb÷2.2 lb/kg=90 kg198\text{ lb} \div 2.2\text{ lb/kg} = 90\text{ kg}
The prescribed heparin rate is weight-based in kilograms, so the client's weight must first be converted into the appropriate unit.
2
Calculate the hourly dose of heparin required.
15 units/kg/hr×90 kg=1350 units/hr15\text{ units/kg/hr} \times 90\text{ kg} = 1350\text{ units/hr}
Multiplying the weight-based prescription by the client's total weight in kilograms yields the total number of units required per hour.
3
Determine the concentration of the supplied heparin solution.
25,000 units÷500 mL=50 units/mL25,000\text{ units} \div 500\text{ mL} = 50\text{ units/mL}
To find out how many units are in a single milliliter, divide the total units in the bag by the total volume of the bag.
4
Calculate the required infusion rate in mL/hr.
1350 units/hr÷50 units/mL=27 mL/hr1350\text{ units/hr} \div 50\text{ units/mL} = 27\text{ mL/hr}
Dividing the required hourly dose by the concentration provides the volume that must be infused per hour to deliver that dose.

Key Concept

Weight-Based Intravenous Medication Calculations
Question 3334Question →

A 54-year-old client is being monitored on the acute care unit 90 minutes after an ultrasound-guided percutaneous liver biopsy. The client's baseline vital signs upon arrival to the unit were a blood pressure of 136/74 mm Hg and a heart rate of 72 beats per minute. Upon reassessment, the nurse notes the client is increasingly restless, with a blood pressure of 114/92 mm Hg, a heart rate of 108 beats per minute, and a respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute. The client also mentions a newly developed dull ache in the right shoulder. To minimize the risk of a severe physiological complication, which of the following actions must the nurse implement?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Maintain the client in a right lateral position and urgently contact the healthcare provider.

Answer

The nurse must ensure the client remains in a right lateral position and notify the healthcare provider immediately, as the assessment findings indicate internal bleeding and early hemorrhagic shock.
The client is exhibiting early signs of hemorrhagic shock, indicated by the narrowed pulse pressure, tachycardia, and restlessness. Furthermore, new-onset right shoulder pain post-liver biopsy strongly suggests referred pain from diaphragmatic irritation caused by blood accumulation. Maintaining the client in a right lateral position is critical to keep pressure on the liver capsule to tamponade the bleeding site, and the healthcare provider must be notified immediately for further medical intervention.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the vital sign trends from baseline to the current assessment.
The blood pressure has dropped and the pulse pressure has significantly narrowed (from 62 mm Hg to 22 mm Hg), accompanied by new tachycardia (108 bpm) and tachypnea (22 breaths/min).
Narrowing pulse pressure, tachycardia, and restlessness are classic compensatory signs of early (stage II) hemorrhagic shock.
2
Evaluate the clinical significance of the client's new right shoulder pain.
The shoulder pain is identified as Kehr's sign.
Following an invasive abdominal procedure like a liver biopsy, right shoulder pain indicates referred pain from blood accumulating under the diaphragm and irritating the phrenic nerve.
3
Determine the priority risk reduction intervention based on the clinical picture.
The nurse must act to control the bleeding and escalate care.
Maintaining a right lateral (side-lying) decubitus position applies direct physical pressure against the chest wall to the liver capsule, which is essential to tamponade the bleeding site until medical intervention occurs.

Key Concept

Early recognition of shock and post-procedure risk mitigation
Question 3335Question →

A 78-year-old client with moderate cognitive impairment is receiving intravenous therapy for a respiratory infection. The client is agitated, repeatedly picks at the venous access site, and exhibits new-onset urinary incontinence. Which basic care and comfort interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Cover the intravenous insertion site loosely with a continuous stockinette bandage.; Cleanse the perineal region with a pH-balanced, no-rinse cleanser after each incontinent episode.; Provide the client with a textured sensory blanket to fold and manipulate with their hands.

Answer

The appropriate basic care and comfort interventions include covering the intravenous site with a stockinette, providing prompt perineal cleansing with a pH-balanced cleanser, and offering a sensory blanket for diversional activity.
The correct basic care interventions prioritize client comfort, safety, and skin integrity without resorting to restrictive measures. Concealing the IV site with a stockinette and providing a textured sensory blanket are highly effective non-pharmacologic comfort strategies and restraint alternatives for agitated or cognitively impaired clients. Promptly cleansing the perineum with a pH-balanced, no-rinse cleanser is a fundamental hygiene practice that prevents moisture-associated skin breakdown following incontinent episodes.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation.
The client has moderate cognitive impairment, agitation with picking at the IV site, and new-onset urinary incontinence.
Identifying all active clinical issues ensures a comprehensive approach to the client's basic care and safety needs.
2
Identify safe, non-pharmacologic comfort measures to protect the IV site.
Covering the site with a stockinette and providing diversional activities (like a sensory blanket) are selected.
These interventions are effective restraint alternatives that maintain therapy access while prioritizing client comfort.
3
Address the hygiene and skin integrity needs related to new-onset incontinence.
Prompt perineal cleansing with a pH-balanced, no-rinse cleanser is selected as a priority intervention.
Urine is irritating to the skin; appropriate cleansing prevents moisture-associated dermatitis and breakdown.
4
Evaluate the remaining options against nursing scope of practice and physiological safety.
The options involving normalizing new incontinence, delegating risk assessment, and continuous high-Fowler's positioning are rejected.
New incontinence requires medical evaluation, clinical risk assessments cannot be delegated, and 90-degree positioning increases shearing forces.

Key Concept

Implementing non-pharmacologic comfort measures, maintaining skin integrity, and prioritizing safe basic care for cognitively impaired clients.
Question 3336Question →

A newly admitted client is severely disoriented and repeatedly attempts to remove a functioning chest tube. The nursing staff is evaluating the need for physical restraints to prevent disruption of this critical intervention. Which action by the nurse aligns with established safety and legal protocols for restraint use?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Implementing and documenting the failure of less restrictive alternatives, such as concealing the tubing, before requesting a prescription

Answer

Implementing and documenting the failure of less restrictive alternatives, such as concealing the tubing, before requesting a prescription
According to strict regulatory guidelines and standards of care, physical restraints are considered a measure of last resort. The registered nurse must first implement, evaluate, and thoroughly document the failure of less restrictive alternatives (e.g., bed alarms, frequent observation, or concealing medical lines) before requesting a prescription for restraints from the healthcare provider.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the clinical indication for restraints.
The client's safety is at immediate risk due to the potential removal of a life-saving chest tube.
Restraints can only be utilized when clinically justified to ensure physical safety and prevent life-threatening disruptions.
2
Determine the necessary legal and procedural prerequisites before application.
Less restrictive measures must be trialed and their ineffectiveness documented.
Regulatory standards mandate that physical restraints are strictly an intervention of last resort.
3
Review the distractors for unsafe practices.
PRN orders, side-rail anchoring, and delegating assessments to UAP are identified as protocol violations.
Eliminating these options confirms that trialing alternatives is the only legally and ethically sound choice.

Key Concept

Safe Use of Restraints and Safety Devices
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 3337Question →

The clinical flow coordinator is evaluating bed availability across the facility. A specialized negative-pressure isolation room has just been terminally cleaned and is ready for a new admission. Based on transmission-based precaution guidelines, which client must be prioritized for this specific room?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: A client presenting with a disseminated vesicular rash and fever who is suspected of having a varicella-zoster virus infection

Answer

The client with the suspected varicella-zoster virus (chickenpox) infection.
A negative-pressure room is an Airborne Infection Isolation Room (AIIR) designed to prevent small infectious particles from escaping into surrounding areas. The varicella-zoster virus (chickenpox) is transmitted through the air and requires strict airborne (as well as contact) precautions. Therefore, this client mandates the specialized ventilation of a negative-pressure room.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary function of the available room.
The room has negative-pressure airflow, which designates it as an Airborne Infection Isolation Room (AIIR).
Negative pressure prevents contaminated air from flowing out into the hallways, which is necessary to contain pathogens transmitted via tiny, suspended airborne particles.
2
Analyze the suspected pathogens for each client to determine their required transmission tier.
Varicella-zoster requires airborne precautions. Meningococcal meningitis and pertussis require droplet precautions. Clostridioides difficile requires contact precautions.
Different pathogens require specific precaution tiers based on their mode of transmission (airborne, droplet, or contact).
3
Match the client's transmission risk with the room's specific capabilities.
Only the client with varicella-zoster requires the specialized ventilation of an AIIR.
Airborne pathogens require negative-pressure ventilation, whereas droplet and contact pathogens can be safely managed in standard private rooms with normal airflow.

Key Concept

Airborne precautions and indications for negative-pressure isolation rooms
Question 3338Question →

A nurse is developing a comprehensive care plan for an elderly client with end-stage heart failure who is experiencing profound dyspnea at rest, severe fatigue, and anorexia. Which of the following basic care and comfort interventions should the nurse include in the client's plan of care? (Select all that apply.)

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Position the client in an orthopneic posture, leaning forward over an overbed table with arms supported by pillows.; Provide small, nutrient-dense meals on a frequent basis rather than three large meals daily.; Direct a gentle stream of cool air from a handheld fan toward the client's face during episodes of severe breathlessness.

Answer

The correct interventions include positioning the client in an orthopneic posture, providing small and frequent nutrient-dense meals, and directing a gentle stream of cool air toward the client's face during breathless episodes.
The correct interventions prioritize airway management, breathing efficacy, and energy conservation. The orthopneic posture maximizes chest expansion and decreases the work of breathing. Small, frequent meals prevent excessive energy expenditure and avoid the diaphragmatic pressure associated with large meals. Using a fan to blow cool air on the face safely stimulates the trigeminal nerve, effectively reducing the uncomfortable sensation of breathlessness.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation and care needs.
The client has end-stage heart failure causing severe dyspnea (orthopnea), extreme fatigue, and anorexia.
Identifying the primary symptom burden allows for targeted basic care and comfort interventions.
2
Evaluate the positioning and comfort options.
The orthopneic position and the use of a cool fan to the face are evidence-based non-pharmacological comfort measures for severe dyspnea. A flat, supine position is contraindicated as it worsens orthopnea.
Positioning must prioritize the airway and breathing (ABCs) over the reduction of peripheral edema.
3
Evaluate the nutritional interventions.
Small, frequent, nutrient-dense meals are appropriate.
This approach minimizes the energy required for digestion and eating, directly accommodating the client's severe dyspnea, anorexia, and fatigue.
4
Evaluate the delegation and assessment options.
Assessing edema and identifying the cause of acute delirium (sudden confusion) require independent nursing judgment.
Assessments cannot be delegated to a UAP. Furthermore, sudden confusion is a pathological finding (such as hypoxia), not a normal change related to aging.

Key Concept

Prioritization of non-pharmacological dyspnea management, safe positioning, and appropriate nursing delegation in the context of severe cardiopulmonary disease.
Question 3339Question →

A client is transferred to the medical-surgical unit after undergoing an esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) with a gastric biopsy under conscious sedation. Which of the following nursing actions and assessments should the nurse implement to reduce the risk of postoperative complications? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Withhold all oral fluids and medications until the client demonstrates a return of the gag and swallow reflexes.; Assess the client for new-onset, severe abdominal, chest, or neck pain with accompanying abdominal rigidity.

Answer

The nurse must withhold all oral intake until the gag reflex returns to prevent aspiration, and must assess for severe abdominal, chest, or neck pain which indicates a potential gastrointestinal perforation.
The correct actions focus on mitigating the highest priority risks post-EGD. Local anesthetics suppress the gag reflex, making aspiration a severe risk until the reflex fully returns. Additionally, a gastric biopsy can cause a tear or perforation in the gastrointestinal tract, which classically presents with severe, sudden-onset abdominal, chest, or neck pain alongside abdominal rigidity.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the procedure and the client's current status.
The client had an EGD with gastric biopsy under conscious sedation. The primary risks include aspiration, respiratory depression, hemorrhage, and viscus perforation.
Identifying potential procedure-specific complications guides the required nursing assessments and interventions.
2
Evaluate the correct options against known risks.
Withholding oral intake mitigates the risk of aspiration due to lingering local anesthesia. Assessing for severe pain and rigidity directly monitors for gastrointestinal perforation.
These actions directly address the most life-threatening complications of an EGD.
3
Critique the remaining options for safety and physiological accuracy.
Flat positioning increases aspiration risk. Initial assessments cannot be delegated. Narrowing pulse pressure is an early sign of shock requiring immediate reporting. The provided ABG demonstrates uncompensated respiratory acidosis, a medical emergency.
Eliminating incorrect actions ensures adherence to safe delegation, accurate clinical interpretation, and early recognition of physiological deterioration.

Key Concept

Post-procedure care following endoscopy focuses on maintaining airway patency, preventing aspiration, and detecting early signs of severe complications such as perforation, hemorrhage, and over-sedation.
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 3340Question →

An adult client who underwent a surgical tracheostomy 24 hours ago requires transport to the imaging department. The client requires continuous humidified oxygen via a tracheostomy collar and is on contact precautions for an active Clostridioides difficile infection. Which action is essential for the registered nurse to implement to prevent an adverse event and ensure safety during transport?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Ensure that a manual resuscitation bag, an obturator, and two spare tracheostomy tubes accompany the client.

Answer

The nurse must ensure that a manual resuscitation bag, an obturator, and two spare tracheostomy tubes accompany the client.
Accidental decannulation is a high-risk, life-threatening complication for a client with a tracheostomy less than 72 hours old because the stoma tract has not yet matured and can rapidly close. To prevent hypoxic injury or death, the nurse must ensure that emergency equipment—specifically a manual resuscitation bag, an obturator, and two spare tracheostomy tubes (one of the same size and one a size smaller)—accompanies the client at all times, including during transport.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's current clinical status and risk factors.
The client has a 24-hour-old surgical tracheostomy, making the airway highly unstable and prone to rapid closure if accidentally decannulated.
Identifying the highest risk to the client determines the priority safety intervention.
2
Evaluate the safety requirements for transporting a client with a new artificial airway.
Emergency equipment must be immediately accessible to re-establish the airway if the tube is dislodged.
Accidental decannulation of a fresh tracheostomy is a life-threatening emergency that requires immediate intervention before the stoma tract has matured.
3
Select the intervention that directly mitigates this specific life-threatening risk.
Bringing the manual resuscitation bag, obturator, and spare tracheostomy tubes prevents catastrophic injury in case of decannulation.
This action aligns with standard accident and injury prevention protocols for artificial airways.

Key Concept

Airway Safety and Emergency Equipment Readiness
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