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Question 3381Question →

A nurse is administering a prescribed intravenous (IV) push medication into a client's continuous IV infusion line. Immediately after injecting the medication into the Y-site, the nurse observes a cloudy, white precipitate forming in the IV tubing. What is the nurse's immediate priority action?

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Answer: Stop the infusion and clamp the IV tubing closest to the client.

Answer

Stop the infusion and clamp the IV tubing closest to the client.
The correct action is to stop the infusion and clamp the tubing immediately. A cloudy, white precipitate indicates a severe physical drug incompatibility. If this precipitate enters the bloodstream, it can act as an embolus, potentially causing a stroke, pulmonary embolism, or myocardial infarction. Clamping the line closest to the patient ensures the crystallized fluid does not reach the systemic circulation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the clinical complication.
The nurse observes a cloudy, white precipitate forming in the IV tubing after injecting a medication.
Recognizing a physical drug incompatibility is the first step in protecting patient safety.
2
Determine the primary risk to the client.
Precipitate in an IV line acts as a solid object that can enter the bloodstream and cause a fatal pulmonary or systemic embolus.
Understanding the physiological consequence guides the urgency of the intervention.
3
Select the immediate priority intervention.
The nurse must stop the infusion and clamp the tubing closest to the client's insertion site.
Stopping the flow at the closest possible point to the client prevents the harmful precipitate from reaching the systemic circulation.

Key Concept

Intravenous Medication Incompatibility and Safety
Question 3382Question →

A nurse enters a client's room and observes smoke and visible flames coming from a wastebasket near the client's bed. Arrange the following immediate actions in the correct priority sequence.

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Answer

The correct sequence is to first assist the client to safety, then activate the alarm, next close the room door, and finally attempt to extinguish the fire.
In any fire emergency within a healthcare facility, the standard protocol follows the internationally recognized acronym RACE. The absolute first priority is always to Rescue (or Relocate) anyone in immediate danger to protect life. After securing the client's safety, the nurse must Alarm (activate the fire response system) to alert the facility and fire department. Next, the nurse should Confine the fire by closing doors and windows to restrict oxygen and prevent the spread of smoke and flames. Finally, if the fire is small and it is safe, the nurse may Extinguish the fire. This sequence prioritizes life safety over property preservation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assist the client out of the room to a secure area.
The client is removed from the immediate physical threat of fire and smoke.
Life safety is the absolute first priority in any emergency. The Rescue phase of the RACE protocol dictates moving individuals in direct danger before taking any other action.
2
Activate the facility's emergency fire alarm system.
Emergency services and the facility's internal response teams are notified.
Once immediate life safety is secured, the Alarm phase ensures that broader help is on the way and other staff can begin systematically responding.
3
Close the door to the client's room to contain the smoke.
The fire's oxygen supply is limited, and toxic smoke is prevented from entering the hallway.
The Confine phase isolates the hazard, protecting the rest of the unit and allowing more time for a safe facility-wide response if needed.
4
Discharge a fire extinguisher at the base of the flames.
The small fire is suppressed or put out entirely.
The Extinguish phase is only attempted after all life safety, notification, and containment measures are complete, and only if it is safe to do so.

Key Concept

RACE Fire Safety Protocol
Estimated Time:45s
Question 3383Question →

A nurse is preparing to collect a sterile urine specimen for a culture and sensitivity test from a client who has a closed indwelling urinary catheter system. In which order should the nurse perform the following actions to reduce the risk of infection and ensure an accurate diagnostic sample? Arrange the steps from first to last.

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Answer

The correct sequence is to first clamp the tubing to collect fresh urine, cleanse the port to maintain sterility, aspirate the urine with a sterile syringe, transfer the sample into a sterile container, and finally unclamp the tubing to restore urinary flow.
Obtaining a sterile urine specimen from an indwelling catheter requires strict adherence to sequence to ensure diagnostic accuracy and client safety. The nurse must first clamp the tubing to gather fresh urine. Next, the port must be cleansed to maintain strict asepsis before accessing it. Once disinfected, the urine is aspirated with a sterile syringe and placed securely in a sterile cup. Finally, the paramount safety step is unclamping the tubing to prevent bladder distension and subsequent kidney injury or infection.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Clamp the drainage tubing just below the sampling port.
Fresh urine accumulates in the tubing above the port.
Ensures an adequate volume of freshly produced urine is available for the sample, as urine from the drainage bag is stagnant and not suitable for culture.
2
Cleanse the needleless sampling port with an antiseptic swab.
The surface of the sampling port is disinfected.
Prevents environmental pathogens from being pushed into the closed urinary system during aspiration, reducing the risk of CAUTI.
3
Attach a sterile syringe and aspirate the urine.
Urine is safely extracted from the closed system.
Maintains the sterility of both the diagnostic sample and the client's internal catheter system.
4
Transfer the urine into a sterile specimen container.
The sample is secured in an appropriate transport vessel.
Preserves the integrity of the diagnostic sample for accurate culture and sensitivity testing in the laboratory.
5
Unclamp the catheter drainage tubing.
Continuous urinary drainage is restored.
Prevents urine backflow, bladder distension, and associated complications that could increase the risk of injury or infection.

Key Concept

Reduction of Risk Potential: Diagnostic Test Preparation and Infection Control
Question 3384Question →

A nurse is caring for a client who is exhibiting severe respiratory depression with a respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute following an opioid overdose. Which of the following arterial blood gas (ABG) results should the nurse most likely expect to find?

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Answer: pH 7.28, PaCO2 55 mm Hg, HCO3- 24 mEq/L

Answer

pH 7.28, PaCO2 55 mm Hg, HCO3- 24 mEq/L
The correct answer displays uncompensated respiratory acidosis. The hypoventilation caused by the opioid overdose leads to rapid CO2 retention (PaCO2 55 mm Hg). This excess CO2 lowers the blood pH (pH 7.28). Because this is an acute event, the kidneys have not yet had time to compensate, so the bicarbonate (HCO3-) remains normal (24 mEq/L).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the client's primary physiological problem based on the clinical presentation.
The client has a respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute due to an opioid overdose, which indicates severe hypoventilation.
Opioids are central nervous system depressants that decrease the respiratory drive.
2
Determine the effect of hypoventilation on carbon dioxide (CO2) levels in the blood.
Hypoventilation causes the lungs to retain CO2, leading to hypercapnia (an elevated PaCO2 > 45 mm Hg).
CO2 is an acidic compound; when it is not adequately exhaled, it accumulates in the bloodstream.
3
Correlate the CO2 accumulation with the expected change in blood pH.
The retained CO2 increases blood acidity, resulting in a low pH (acidosis).
An elevated PaCO2 directly lowers the pH, creating a state of respiratory acidosis. Because this is an acute event, the bicarbonate (HCO3-) remains within the normal range of 22-26 mEq/L.

Key Concept

Respiratory Acidosis secondary to Hypoventilation
Question 3385Question →

A nurse is preparing to administer a dissolved oral medication through a client's established nasogastric (NG) tube. To reduce the risk of complications, in what order should the nurse perform the following actions? Arrange the steps from first to last.

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Answer

The correct sequence is to position the client, verify tube placement, perform an initial flush, administer the medication, and perform a final flush.
To reduce the risk of potential complications such as aspiration and tube occlusion, the nurse must follow a strict sequence. First, elevating the head of the bed prevents reflux. Second, verifying placement ensures the tube is not in the respiratory tract. Third, an initial flush confirms the tube is patent. Fourth, the medication is administered. Finally, a post-flush clears the tubing, preventing blockages and ensuring complete medication delivery.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Elevate the head of the bed.
The client is placed in a semi-Fowler's position.
This physical intervention immediately reduces the risk of aspiration.
2
Verify tube placement.
The location of the distal tip of the tube is confirmed.
This ensures the medication will enter the stomach, not the lungs.
3
Perform the initial flush.
The tube is cleared with water.
This checks tube patency and clears any formula or residual contents.
4
Administer the medication.
The prescribed medication is delivered into the stomach.
Provides the required therapeutic intervention.
5
Perform the final flush.
The tube is cleared of medication residue.
Prevents tube occlusion and ensures the full dose is received.

Key Concept

Safe administration of medications via a nasogastric tube requires a systematic approach to prevent aspiration (positioning and placement verification) and maintain tube patency (flushing before and after).
Question 3386Question →

An older adult client is receiving basic care on a medical-surgical unit following a cerebrovascular accident (CVA). The client exhibits right-sided hemiplegia and moderate dysphagia. Which of the following nursing interventions should be included in the client's daily care regimen? (Select all that apply.)

Select all that apply

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Answer: Elevate the head of the bed to a high-Fowler's position during meals and for at least 30 minutes afterward.; Stand on the client's right side and utilize a gait belt when assisting with ambulation.; Position a pillow in the client's right axilla when resting in bed to prevent shoulder adduction.

Answer

The correct interventions are to elevate the head of the bed during meals, stand on the client's right side during ambulation, and place a pillow in the right axilla to prevent contractures.
Clients with hemiplegia and dysphagia require specific basic care interventions to promote safety, mobility, and proper nutrition. High-Fowler's positioning during and after meals utilizes gravity to prevent aspiration. Standing on the affected side during ambulation provides necessary support and stability for the weakened limbs. Positioning a pillow in the axilla prevents adduction contractures that commonly develop in paralyzed shoulders.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation.
The client has right-sided hemiplegia (weakness/paralysis on the right) and dysphagia (difficulty swallowing).
Identifying the specific physical deficits dictates the necessary basic care interventions for mobility, safety, and nutrition.
2
Evaluate interventions for dysphagia.
High-Fowler's positioning is required during and after meals to promote safe swallowing.
This positioning prevents aspiration, a major complication associated with dysphagia.
3
Evaluate interventions for hemiplegia.
The nurse must support the affected (right) side during ambulation and use pillows to prevent adduction contractures while the client is in bed.
Proper positioning and mobility support prevent musculoskeletal complications and ensure client safety.

Key Concept

Basic Care and Comfort for Stroke Survivors
Question 3387Question →

A client with a seizure disorder has a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of 5% dextrose in water (D5W) running through a peripheral catheter. The nurse needs to administer a scheduled dose of IV phenytoin. What is the most appropriate technique for the nurse to administer this medication through the existing access?

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Answer: Stop the primary infusion, flush the tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride, inject the phenytoin, and flush again with 0.9% sodium chloride

Answer

The nurse must stop the primary D5W infusion, flush the line with 0.9% sodium chloride, administer the phenytoin, and then flush the line again with 0.9% sodium chloride.
Phenytoin is notorious for its strict incompatibility with dextrose-containing solutions. When mixed with D5W, it rapidly crystallizes and forms a solid precipitate. To safely administer phenytoin through an existing line that contains dextrose, the nurse must stop the primary infusion and flush the tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline) before the medication is given. After the phenytoin is administered, the line must be flushed again with normal saline to ensure the entire dose has cleared the catheter before the dextrose infusion is resumed. This ensures no mixing of the incompatible substances occurs.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary IV fluid currently infusing.
The client is receiving 5% dextrose in water (D5W).
Establishing the current fluid is necessary to determine compatibility with the prescribed intermittent medication.
2
Determine the compatibility of IV phenytoin with the primary fluid.
Phenytoin is highly incompatible with dextrose solutions and will precipitate (crystallize) if mixed.
Administering incompatible medications can cause severe phlebitis, catheter occlusion, or a life-threatening embolism.
3
Select the appropriate administration technique.
The nurse must clear the line of all dextrose by stopping the pump and flushing with normal saline (0.9% NaCl) both before and after giving the phenytoin.
Normal saline is the only universally compatible fluid for phenytoin. This flush sequence ensures safe delivery without mixing.

Key Concept

Phenytoin IV Compatibility and Administration Sequence
Question 3388Question →

A critically ill client is mechanically ventilated via an oral endotracheal tube. The morning arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis reveals a pH of 7.28, PaCO2 of 62 mm Hg, HCO3- of 26 mEq/L, and PaO2 of 70 mm Hg. The client suddenly exhibits profound diaphoresis, restless movements, and begins biting the endotracheal tube. Which intervention should the nurse implement first to mitigate the risk of further physiological deterioration?

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Answer: Auscultate bilateral lung sounds and prepare to suction the endotracheal tube.

Answer

The correct action is to auscultate bilateral lung sounds and prepare to suction the endotracheal tube.
The ABG results demonstrate uncompensated respiratory acidosis, indicating inadequate alveolar ventilation. The client's sudden agitation, diaphoresis, and biting of the tube are classic clinical signs of air hunger, often caused by an airway obstruction such as a mucus plug. The priority nursing action is to assess airway patency by auscultating lung sounds and clearing any secretions via suctioning, which directly addresses the root cause of the hypercapnia and reduces the risk of respiratory failure.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the arterial blood gas (ABG) results.
The client has a low pH (7.28) and elevated PaCO2 (62 mm Hg) with a normal HCO3- (26 mEq/L), indicating uncompensated respiratory acidosis.
Identifying the acid-base imbalance is necessary to determine that the client is experiencing inadequate alveolar ventilation (retaining carbon dioxide).
2
Correlate the laboratory values with the physical assessment findings.
The agitation, diaphoresis, and biting of the tube are identified as signs of severe air hunger and potential airway obstruction.
Restlessness is frequently the earliest sign of hypoxia and hypercapnia, meaning the client's behavior is physiological, not purely psychological.
3
Determine the highest priority nursing intervention.
Assessing airway patency (auscultation) and clearing potential blockages (suctioning) is selected as the immediate action.
According to the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) of prioritization, clearing a compromised airway is the most critical first step before administering medications or altering equipment.

Key Concept

Interpretation of Arterial Blood Gases and Airway Prioritization
Question 3389Question →

A major commercial train derailment has resulted in a mass casualty incident (MCI), causing a sudden influx of critically injured trauma clients at a local hospital. The hospital administrator has activated the Emergency Operations Plan (EOP) to surge capacity. The charge nurse on a medical-telemetry unit is evaluating current clients for immediate discharge to free up inpatient beds. Which of the following clients should the nurse recommend for safe discharge? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: A client admitted 24 hours ago with suspected angina who has had three negative serial troponin levels and a normal electrocardiogram.; A client with an asthma exacerbation who was admitted 2 days ago, now has clear breath sounds, and requires only an albuterol metered-dose inhaler every 6 hours.; A client admitted 3 days ago with a deep vein thrombosis who is now fully transitioned to an oral anticoagulant and has therapeutic laboratory values.

Answer

The clients appropriate for safe discharge include the client with negative serial troponins and a normal ECG, the asthma client stabilized on a metered-dose inhaler, and the DVT client transitioned to an oral anticoagulant.
During a disaster response requiring hospital capacity surges, the safest clients to discharge are those who are medically stable, can take oral or inhaled medications, and do not require continuous assessment or monitoring. The client with negative troponins and normal ECG has had a cardiac event ruled out. The asthma client has resolved acute symptoms and is manageable on home inhalers. The DVT client is stabilized on oral anticoagulants. All three of these clients have a low risk of sudden deterioration and can safely complete their recovery at home.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the goal of activating the Emergency Operations Plan (EOP) for a mass casualty incident.
The goal is to surge capacity by freeing up hospital beds for critically injured incoming casualties.
Understanding the objective helps determine the criteria for discharging current inpatients.
2
Establish the criteria for safe discharge during a disaster surge.
Clients must be medically stable, not require continuous intravenous therapies or cardiac monitoring, and be able to manage their care safely at home.
Only clients whose absolute risk of acute deterioration is very low can be safely discharged early.
3
Evaluate each client's acuity and stability.
The clients with negative troponins, resolved asthma symptoms on inhalers, and DVT on oral anticoagulants are stable. The clients with a fever on IV antibiotics, rapid atrial fibrillation on a diltiazem drip, and resting chest pain awaiting urgent catheterization are unstable.
Identifying unstable clients prevents unsafe discharges that could result in severe adverse outcomes.

Key Concept

During a mass casualty incident, the Emergency Operations Plan (EOP) involves discharging the most medically stable clients to surge capacity. Safe discharge criteria prioritize clients who have stable vital signs, have transitioned to oral or self-administered medications, and no longer require acute invasive monitoring or intravenous therapies.
Question 3390Question →

During a routine intrapartum assessment of a client at 40 weeks of gestation, the nurse analyzes the continuous electronic fetal monitor tracing. The baseline fetal heart rate is 135 beats/min with moderate variability. The nurse notes that the fetal heart rate gradually decreases to 125 beats/min simultaneously with the onset of each uterine contraction, and returns to baseline exactly as the contraction ends. Which of the following is the most appropriate action by the nurse?

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Answer: Document the findings and continue to monitor the labor progression.

Answer

The nurse should document the findings and continue to monitor the labor progression, as the described pattern indicates benign early decelerations.
The fetal monitor tracing describes an early deceleration. Early decelerations are visually characterized by a gradual, symmetrical decrease in the fetal heart rate that perfectly mirrors the uterine contraction. The onset, nadir, and recovery of the deceleration align exactly with the onset, peak, and end of the contraction. This pattern is a normal physiological response caused by fetal head compression as the fetus descends into the birth canal, leading to a transient vagal response. Because this finding is entirely benign and does not indicate fetal hypoxia, the only appropriate nursing action is to document the reassuring finding and continue routine monitoring.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the baseline fetal heart rate and variability.
The baseline is 135 beats/min with moderate variability, which are reassuring, normal findings.
Establishing the baseline is the first step in fetal heart rate interpretation.
2
Evaluate the relationship between the decelerations and the uterine contractions.
The gradual decrease and return to baseline perfectly mirror the contraction (the onset matches the onset, and the nadir matches the peak).
The timing of the deceleration relative to the contraction determines its type and underlying cause.
3
Identify the specific fetal heart rate pattern.
The described pattern is an early deceleration, which is caused by fetal head compression as the fetus descends.
Accurate pattern recognition dictates the clinical response.
4
Determine the required nursing intervention based on the identified pattern.
Because early decelerations are benign and do not indicate fetal hypoxia, no medical intervention is needed other than documentation.
Applying unnecessary resuscitative measures can cause harm or unnecessary distress.

Key Concept

Early decelerations are a normal, benign finding caused by fetal head compression during contractions and require no intervention other than documentation.
Question 3391Question →

A clinical nurse educator is auditing isolation practices and staff interventions across a medical-surgical floor. Which observed actions by the nursing staff indicate adherence to appropriate transmission-based precautions? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Assigning a client with suspected active pulmonary tuberculosis to a designated airborne infection isolation room (AIIR) and keeping the door tightly closed.; Putting on a standard surgical mask upon entry to the room of a client experiencing respiratory symptoms caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae.; Securing a standard surgical mask over the mouth and nose of a client with confirmed pertussis who needs to leave the room for an essential computed tomography (CT) scan.

Answer

The correct actions include assigning the tuberculosis client to a closed AIIR, wearing a surgical mask for Mycoplasma pneumoniae, and applying a mask to the pertussis client during transport.
The correct actions demonstrate a thorough understanding of transmission-based precautions. Tuberculosis requires airborne precautions, meaning the client must be placed in a negative-pressure AIIR with the door tightly closed to prevent the escape of infectious droplet nuclei. Mycoplasma pneumoniae and pertussis are transmitted via large respiratory droplets, which requires healthcare workers to wear a standard surgical mask when in close contact, and necessitates that the client wear a surgical mask for source control when being transported outside of their assigned room.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the transmission route for each infectious organism presented in the scenario.
Tuberculosis and rubeola require airborne precautions. Mycoplasma pneumoniae and pertussis require droplet precautions. Clostridioides difficile and VRE require contact precautions.
Identifying the correct isolation category is the foundational step for determining the appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE) and environmental controls.
2
Analyze the specific nursing interventions for airborne and droplet precautions.
Airborne precautions require a negative-pressure room and removing the N95 respirator outside the room. Droplet precautions require a surgical mask for the nurse and for the client if they must leave the room for essential procedures.
Applying the exact protocols ensures respiratory pathogens are contained and do not spread to the nurse or other vulnerable clients.
3
Assess the interventions for contact precautions and scope of practice principles.
C. diff requires handwashing with soap and water, not alcohol rubs. Teaching regarding VRE precautions is a nursing responsibility and cannot be delegated to UAP.
Alcohol does not kill C. diff spores, and the registered nurse is legally responsible for all client and family education.

Key Concept

Standard and Transmission-Based Precautions
Question 3392Question →

A nurse is evaluating a client with an acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is undergoing a spontaneous breathing trial (SBT) via a T-piece. To reduce the risk of cardiopulmonary collapse and extubation failure, which assessment findings require the nurse to immediately terminate the trial and resume mechanical ventilation? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Heart rate increases from 88 to 134 beats/min; Client demonstrates paradoxical abdominal wall movement during inspiration; Rapid Shallow Breathing Index (RSBI) is calculated at 135 breaths/min/L

Answer

The findings requiring immediate termination are a significant heart rate increase from baseline, paradoxical abdominal wall movement, and an elevated RSBI of 135 breaths/min/L.
Terminating a spontaneous breathing trial is required when objective criteria demonstrate the client cannot sustain independent ventilation. A massive heart rate increase indicates cardiovascular compensation is failing. Paradoxical breathing is a late, severe sign of diaphragmatic fatigue. An RSBI (f/Vt) > 105 breaths/min/L objectively quantifies that the breathing pattern is too rapid and shallow to maintain adequate gas exchange, predicting extubation failure.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's underlying condition and physiological baseline.
The client has severe COPD, meaning chronic hypercapnia, fully compensated pH, and a lower SpO2 baseline (88-92%) are expected findings that do not mandate intervention.
Recognizing the chronic baseline prevents premature termination of the trial for variances that are actually normal for this specific pathophysiology.
2
Evaluate the hemodynamic and respiratory parameters against objective weaning failure criteria.
A heart rate increase > 20% (from 88 to 134 beats/min) and an RSBI > 105 breaths/min/L indicate intolerable cardiopulmonary stress and a high risk of extubation failure.
Objective criteria provide evidence-based triggers to intervene before complete cardiopulmonary collapse occurs.
3
Identify clinical signs of acute respiratory muscle fatigue.
Paradoxical abdominal movement indicates the diaphragm is exhausted and accessory muscles are failing to maintain adequate ventilation.
Direct clinical observation of respiratory mechanics serves as a critical early warning sign of impending respiratory arrest.

Key Concept

Identifying objective criteria for Spontaneous Breathing Trial (SBT) failure and impending respiratory decompensation.
Question 3393Question →

A client with cervical cancer is undergoing internal radiation therapy (brachytherapy) with a temporary sealed radioactive implant. While performing a routine assessment, the nurse discovers that the radioactive implant has become dislodged and is lying on the client's bed sheets. Which immediate action should the nurse take to prevent radiation injury?

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Answer: Use long-handled forceps to retrieve the implant and place it directly into a lead-lined container located in the room.

Answer

The nurse must immediately use long-handled forceps to pick up the dislodged implant and place it into the designated lead-lined container kept in the client's room.
When a sealed radioactive implant becomes dislodged, the immediate priority is to minimize radiation exposure by utilizing the principles of time, distance, and shielding. Using long-handled forceps maximizes the physical distance between the nurse and the radioactive source. Placing the implant directly into a dedicated lead-lined container (which is a mandatory safety requirement to be kept in the client's room during brachytherapy) provides essential shielding. Once the source is safely contained, the nurse can safely assess the client and notify the radiation safety officer.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Recognize the immediate radiation hazard.
The nurse identifies the dislodged, unshielded radioactive source on the bed sheets.
Rapid identification of a dislodged source is critical to minimizing the duration of radiation exposure for both the client and healthcare personnel.
2
Implement standard radiation containment protocols.
The nurse uses long-handled forceps to retrieve the implant and places it inside a lead pig.
This action adheres to the core radiation safety principles of maximizing distance from the source and providing immediate shielding to prevent cellular injury.
3
Notify appropriate specialists.
The radiation oncology department and the primary healthcare provider are informed of the event.
Specialized personnel must safely remove the container from the unit, assess the client, and adjust the client's treatment plan and dosimetry as needed.

Key Concept

Radiation Safety Protocols and Accident Prevention
Question 3394Question →

A nurse is caring for an adult client who is receiving a massive blood transfusion protocol (6 units of packed red blood cells over the past 3 hours) due to severe gastrointestinal hemorrhage. The nurse assesses the client for potential physiological complications of the rapid, massive transfusion. Which of the following assessment findings require immediate intervention by the nurse? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Prolonged QT interval on the telemetry monitor; New onset of bilateral basilar crackles and jugular venous distention; Tall, peaked T waves on the electrocardiogram

Answer

The findings requiring immediate intervention are the prolonged QT interval, new onset of bilateral basilar crackles with jugular venous distention, and tall, peaked T waves.
Massive blood transfusions carry significant physiological risks. Banked blood contains citrate as an anticoagulant, which can rapidly bind to the client's serum calcium, leading to acute hypocalcemia (manifested by a prolonged QT interval). Furthermore, as stored red blood cells age, they hemolyze and leak intracellular potassium into the plasma; massive transfusions can consequently cause severe hyperkalemia (manifested by tall, peaked T waves). Additionally, the rapid intravenous infusion of large colloidal fluid volumes places the client at high risk for transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO), which presents with signs of fluid volume excess such as bibasilar crackles and jugular venous distention. All of these findings indicate potentially life-threatening complications that require immediate medical intervention.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the clinical scenario and the therapy.
The client is receiving a massive blood transfusion (6 units in 3 hours) for hemorrhagic shock.
Understanding the therapy helps anticipate specific complications such as citrate toxicity, hyperkalemia, and circulatory overload.
2
Evaluate the telemetry and electrocardiogram options.
A prolonged QT interval indicates hypocalcemia (from citrate binding calcium). Tall, peaked T waves indicate hyperkalemia (from lysed banked red blood cells).
Both are life-threatening electrolyte imbalances directly caused by massive transfusions.
3
Evaluate the physical assessment options.
Crackles and jugular venous distention indicate transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO).
Rapid infusion of large volumes of blood products can easily overwhelm the cardiovascular system, leading to pulmonary edema.
4
Differentiate expected recovery signs from true complications.
A temperature of 99.1°F, a MAP of 72 mm Hg, and a urine output of 40 mL/hour are all normal or expected positive responses to shock resuscitation.
Intervening on expected positive responses would be inappropriate and potentially harmful.

Key Concept

Complications of Massive Blood Transfusion
Question 3395Question →

A nurse is managing the care of an older adult client who is receiving continuous enteral nutrition via a nasogastric (NG) tube. The client has become restless and requires a linen change as well as a sacral skin assessment. Which of the following nursing actions is most appropriate?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Pause the enteral feeding pump before lowering the head of the bed to reposition the client.

Answer

Pause the enteral feeding pump before lowering the head of the bed to reposition the client.
The correct action is to pause the feeding pump before lowering the head of the bed. Clients receiving enteral tube feedings are at a continuous, high risk for aspiration. Standard basic care requires maintaining the head of the bed at an elevation of 30 to 45 degrees while the feeding is infusing. If the client must be laid flat to facilitate turning for a linen change or skin assessment, the feeding must be paused first to protect the airway and prevent gastric reflux.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the client's current therapies and associated risks.
The client is receiving continuous enteral feeding via an NG tube.
Enteral feeding introduces a high risk for aspiration if the client is not positioned correctly.
2
Evaluate the physical requirements of the upcoming nursing interventions.
A linen change and sacral skin assessment require the client to be turned, which typically necessitates lowering the head of the bed.
Turning a client safely often requires a flat, side-lying position.
3
Determine the necessary safety precautions before altering the client's position.
The continuous feeding must be temporarily stopped.
Lowering the head of the bed while formula is actively infusing allows gastric contents to reflux, potentially leading to aspiration pneumonia.
4
Analyze the remaining options for scope of practice and safety policy violations.
Delegating an assessment is outside the UAP's scope, and immediately applying restraints violates the standard of using the least restrictive measures first.
Ensuring safe, legal nursing practice involves proper delegation and adherence to restraint protocols.

Key Concept

Aspiration Prevention during Enteral Feeding
Question 3396Question →

A nurse is caring for a client with a history of chronic heart failure who is receiving a transfusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) at a rate of 120 mL/hr120 \text{ mL/hr}. Approximately forty-five minutes into the infusion, the client suddenly reports shortness of breath. The nurse's assessment reveals a bounding heart rate of 112 bpm112 \text{ bpm}, blood pressure of 178/96 mmHg178/96 \text{ mmHg}, jugular venous distention, and new-onset bibasilar crackles. The client's temperature remains unchanged at 37.1∘C37.1^\circ\text{C} (98.8∘F98.8^\circ\text{F}). Which of the following sequences of actions is the priority for the nurse?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Stop the transfusion, elevate the head of the bed, administer supplemental oxygen, and prepare to administer an intravenous loop diuretic.

Answer

The priority action is to stop the transfusion, elevate the head of the bed, administer supplemental oxygen, and prepare to administer an intravenous loop diuretic.
The client is experiencing Transfusion-Associated Circulatory Overload (TACO), as evidenced by hypertension, a bounding pulse, distended neck veins, and bibasilar crackles in the absence of a fever. The priority interventions for TACO are to stop the fluid source (the transfusion), improve oxygenation and ventilation by elevating the head of the bed and administering oxygen, and reduce the fluid volume through the administration of a prescribed diuretic.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's vital signs and physical assessment findings.
The client has severe hypertension (178/96 mmHg178/96 \text{ mmHg}), a bounding pulse (112 bpm112 \text{ bpm}), jugular venous distention, and bibasilar crackles without a fever.
Identifying the specific pattern of symptoms is necessary to differentiate the type of transfusion complication occurring.
2
Diagnose the specific transfusion complication based on the assessment.
The findings indicate Transfusion-Associated Circulatory Overload (TACO), which is exacerbated by the client's history of chronic heart failure.
Accurate identification prevents the administration of contraindicated standard transfusion reaction protocols (such as fluid boluses).
3
Determine the priority nursing interventions for TACO.
The nurse must stop the transfusion, place the client in an upright position, administer oxygen, and prepare for diuretic therapy.
These actions immediately halt excess fluid intake, improve lung expansion, and actively reduce the circulating fluid volume.

Key Concept

Management of Transfusion-Associated Circulatory Overload (TACO)
Question 3397Question →

A nurse is caring for a client with a mechanical small bowel obstruction who has been receiving continuous nasogastric (NG) decompression for three days. The client suddenly reports a new onset of severe, unrelenting abdominal pain. The healthcare provider orders an arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis, which reveals the following results: pH 7.28, PaCO2 36 mm Hg, and HCO3- 15 mEq/L. Based on these findings, which conclusion should the nurse draw?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The client has developed uncompensated metabolic acidosis, which strongly indicates potential bowel ischemia.

Answer

The client has developed uncompensated metabolic acidosis, which strongly indicates potential bowel ischemia.
The ABG results demonstrate a low pH (acidosis) and a low bicarbonate level with a normal PaCO2, which is the exact diagnostic criteria for uncompensated metabolic acidosis. While continuous nasogastric decompression typically puts a client at risk for metabolic alkalosis due to the loss of stomach acid, the sudden presentation of severe, unrelenting pain combined with a shift to metabolic acidosis is a classic indicator of bowel strangulation or infarction. The necrotic tissue relies on anaerobic metabolism, producing lactic acid that rapidly depletes the body's bicarbonate stores.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the pH value.
The pH is 7.28, which is below the normal range of 7.35-7.45.
This establishes that the client is currently in a state of acidosis.
2
Evaluate the PaCO2 and HCO3- values to determine the origin of the acidosis.
The PaCO2 is 36 mm Hg (normal range 35-45 mm Hg) and the HCO3- is 15 mEq/L (below the normal range of 22-26 mEq/L).
Because the bicarbonate (metabolic parameter) matches the acidic pH while the PaCO2 (respiratory parameter) is normal, the disturbance is uncompensated metabolic acidosis.
3
Correlate the ABG interpretation with the sudden change in the client's clinical presentation.
The sudden, severe pain coupled with a shift to metabolic acidosis in a client with a bowel obstruction suggests a critical complication.
Bowel strangulation or ischemia restricts blood flow, leading to anaerobic metabolism, lactic acid buildup, and subsequent metabolic acidosis. This is a medical emergency.

Key Concept

Interpretation of Arterial Blood Gases and Recognition of Ischemic Complications
Question 3398Question →

A nurse is caring for a 78-year-old client admitted with community-acquired pneumonia and a history of severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The client suddenly becomes highly restless, disoriented, and repeatedly attempts to remove their nasal cannula. Current vital signs are: Heart Rate 114 bpm, Blood Pressure 148/86 mm Hg, and Respiratory Rate 28 breaths/min. An arterial blood gas (ABG) drawn 15 minutes ago reveals a pH of 7.28, PaCO2 of 65 mm Hg, PaO2 of 57 mm Hg, and HCO3 of 28 mEq/L. To reduce the risk of further physiological deterioration, which action should the nurse take first?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Place the client in an upright, high-Fowler's position and coach them through pursed-lip breathing.

Answer

The most appropriate first action is to elevate the head of the bed to a high-Fowler's position and assist the client with pursed-lip breathing to improve gas exchange and reduce trapped carbon dioxide levels.
The client is experiencing acute-on-chronic respiratory acidosis and hypoxemia, which is causing neurological manifestations like restlessness and confusion. The most immediate, safe, and effective action to reduce the risk of respiratory failure is to place the client in a high-Fowler's position to maximize lung expansion and use pursed-lip breathing to help exhale trapped carbon dioxide. This non-pharmacological approach directly addresses the root cause of the agitation without introducing new risks.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the arterial blood gas (ABG) results and clinical presentation.
The ABG reveals uncompensated acute-on-chronic respiratory acidosis (low pH, high PaCO2) and hypoxemia. The new-onset restlessness and confusion are classic neurological signs of impaired gas exchange.
Identifying the physiological root cause of the behavioral changes dictates the safest and most effective intervention.
2
Evaluate the risk associated with each potential intervention.
Applying restraints ignores the underlying hypoxia, increasing oxygen too much risks respiratory arrest in a COPD patient, and dismissing the confusion delays life-saving care.
Risk reduction requires selecting an action that stabilizes the client without introducing iatrogenic harm.
3
Select the least invasive, most physiologically beneficial independent nursing action.
Repositioning the client upright maximizes diaphragmatic excursion, while pursed-lip breathing creates positive end-expiratory pressure to keep alveoli open and blow off excess CO2.
This directly treats the respiratory failure, easing the work of breathing and reducing the agitation.

Key Concept

Prioritizing non-invasive respiratory interventions for acute-on-chronic respiratory acidosis
Question 3399Question →

A young adult client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted to the emergency department with a blood glucose level of 450 mg/dL. The nurse suspects the client is experiencing diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which assessment findings and laboratory values should the nurse expect? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Arterial blood pH of 7.28; Deep, rapid respiratory pattern; Serum bicarbonate (HCO3-) of 14 mEq/L

Answer

The expected findings are an arterial blood pH of 7.28, a deep, rapid respiratory pattern, and a serum bicarbonate (HCO3-) of 14 mEq/L.
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) produces an excess of acidic ketone bodies, leading to a primary metabolic acidosis. This is confirmed by an arterial blood pH below 7.35 and a serum bicarbonate (HCO3-) level below 22 mEq/L. To compensate for the severe acid load, the respiratory center is stimulated to increase the depth and rate of breathing (known as Kussmaul respirations) to expel carbon dioxide, which acts as an acid in the body.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the underlying pathophysiology of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA).
DKA occurs when insulin deficiency leads to the breakdown of fat for energy, producing acidic ketone bodies.
Understanding the mechanism of DKA is essential to predict the resulting systemic acid-base imbalance.
2
Determine the primary acid-base imbalance caused by ketone accumulation.
The excess acid depletes base buffers, resulting in metabolic acidosis (low pH and low bicarbonate).
This directly identifies which laboratory values are expected in the client's arterial blood gas results.
3
Evaluate the body's compensatory mechanisms for this imbalance.
The respiratory system compensates for metabolic acidosis by increasing the rate and depth of respirations (Kussmaul breathing) to blow off carbon dioxide.
Correlating lab values with physical assessment findings provides a complete clinical picture.

Key Concept

Metabolic acidosis and compensatory mechanisms in Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)
Question 3400Question →

Following a bronchoscopy utilizing topical throat anesthesia, a client is resting in the observation area and requests a glass of water. Which specific nursing assessment must be completed first to ensure the client's safety?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Determine the return of the gag reflex.

Answer

The nurse must determine the return of the gag reflex before offering any oral fluids to prevent aspiration.
Topical anesthesia used during a bronchoscopy temporarily paralyzes the vocal cords and numbs the pharynx, suppressing the normal gag and swallow reflexes. To reduce the risk of potential complications, specifically aspiration, the nurse must verify that the gag reflex has returned before giving the client any food or fluids.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the clinical scenario and the effects of the procedure.
The client underwent a bronchoscopy using topical anesthesia, which temporarily numbs the throat and vocal cords.
Understanding the physiological impact of the procedure identifies potential immediate risks to the client.
2
Evaluate the client's request against physiological safety.
The client is asking for water. Without an intact gag reflex, swallowing fluids can lead to fluid entering the trachea instead of the esophagus.
Drinking fluids prematurely poses a severe risk for aspiration pneumonia or airway compromise.
3
Select the priority nursing intervention.
The nurse must check the gag reflex (often by gently touching the back of the throat with a tongue depressor or cotton swab) before providing anything by mouth.
Confirming the return of the gag reflex provides objective evidence that the client's airway is protected during swallowing.

Key Concept

Post-Procedure Aspiration Prevention
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