All practice questions

3881 questions

Question 3421Question →

A client with a complete spinal cord injury at the T4T4 level suddenly reports a severe, throbbing headache, blurred vision, and profound nasal congestion. The client's blood pressure is 218/114218/114 mm Hg, and the heart rate is 5252 beats/min. To reduce the immediate risk of a catastrophic cerebrovascular complication, which action must the nurse perform first?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Elevate the head of the bed to 9090 degrees and lower the client's legs.

Answer

The nurse must first elevate the head of the bed to 90 degrees and lower the client's legs.
The client is exhibiting classic signs of autonomic dysreflexia, a medical emergency in clients with spinal cord injuries at or above the T6T6 level. The massive sympathetic response causes severe hypertension, which poses an immediate risk of stroke or intracranial hemorrhage. The absolute first priority is to utilize gravity to induce orthostatic hypotension and reduce venous return, which rapidly lowers blood pressure. This is achieved by elevating the head of the bed to a sitting position (9090 degrees) and lowering the legs.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the clinical manifestations and vital signs.
The severe hypertension, bradycardia, headache, and T4 spinal cord injury indicate autonomic dysreflexia.
Accurate identification of the physiological crisis dictates the emergency protocol.
2
Determine the immediate physiological threat.
The extreme hypertension (218/114218/114 mm Hg) poses a high risk for an acute cerebrovascular accident (stroke).
Prioritization must focus on mitigating the most lethal consequence immediately.
3
Select the fastest intervention to address the primary threat.
Elevating the head of the bed and lowering the legs is the priority action.
This utilizes orthostatic principles to instantly decrease venous return and lower systemic blood pressure before investigating the underlying trigger.

Key Concept

Autonomic dysreflexia management requires immediate positioning to induce orthostatic hypotension before investigating the noxious stimulus.
Question 3422Question →

A nurse is instructing a client with a right fractured tibia who is non-weight-bearing on how to ascend stairs using axillary crutches. In what order should the nurse teach the client to perform the following actions? Arrange the steps in the correct sequence from first to last.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct sequence for ascending stairs with crutches is: establish a tripod stance, bear weight on the crutches, move the unaffected leg up, shift weight to the unaffected leg, and finally bring the crutches and affected leg up.
When ascending stairs with crutches (non-weight-bearing), the standard nursing principle is 'up with the good, down with the bad'. The client begins in a secure tripod stance and transfers their body weight to the crutches. The strong, unaffected leg steps up first to act as the primary lifter. The client then shifts their weight onto this strong leg, allowing them to safely bring the crutches and the affected, non-weight-bearing leg up to the same step.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the core principle for ascending stairs with crutches.
The general rule is 'up with the good, down with the bad', meaning the unaffected leg must advance first when going up.
This principle ensures the strong leg provides the lifting power.
2
Determine the initial positioning and weight transfer.
The client starts in a stable tripod stance and transfers their weight entirely to the crutches.
A tripod stance provides the necessary base of support, and weight must be off the unaffected leg so it can move.
3
Sequence the movement of limbs.
The unaffected leg steps up, weight is shifted to it, and then the crutches and the affected leg are lifted together.
This maintains the non-weight-bearing status on the injured leg while safely elevating the body.

Key Concept

Assistive Devices: Crutch Walking on Stairs
Question 3423Question →

A localized chemical explosion at a manufacturing plant produces multiple casualties. A nurse on the emergency response team assesses an adult victim found sitting on the ground outside the main blast zone. The client states they are unable to stand up due to severe back pain. The nurse notes a palpable radial pulse, a capillary refill time of 1.5 seconds, and a respiratory rate of 34 breaths per minute. The client is alert and accurately states their name. Based on the START (Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment) algorithm, which triage category should the nurse assign to this client?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Immediate priority category (Red)

Answer

The correct category is the Immediate priority category (Red).
Under the START (Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment) algorithm for adults, victims who are unable to walk are first assessed for their respiratory rate. A respiratory rate exceeding 30 breaths per minute indicates severe distress or impending shock, which mandates an Immediate priority (Red) categorization. Because this respiratory threshold is met, the nurse does not need to consider the intact perfusion (pulse/capillary refill) or the alert mental status when determining the final triage level.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the client's ability to walk.
The client cannot stand or walk due to severe back pain.
This rules out the Minimal priority category (Green), which is reserved for clients who can safely walk away from the immediate scene.
2
Evaluate the client's breathing and respiratory rate.
The client is breathing spontaneously at a rate of 34 breaths per minute.
According to the START algorithm, a respiratory rate greater than 30 breaths per minute is a critical indicator of impending shock or respiratory failure.
3
Determine the triage classification based on the first critical deviation.
The client is assigned to the Immediate priority category (Red).
Once the respiratory rate exceeds the threshold of 30, the assessment stops, and the client is categorized as Immediate, regardless of their normal pulse, capillary refill, and mental status.

Key Concept

Disaster Triage Prioritization (START Algorithm)
Question 3424Question →

While performing an hourly clinical assessment, a critical care nurse evaluates the peripheral intravenous site of a client receiving a continuous norepinephrine infusion. The surrounding skin appears blanched, edematous, and cool to the touch. The client reports intense burning in the arm. Which intervention is the most appropriate initial action?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Halt the infusion immediately while leaving the intravenous catheter intact in the vein.

Answer

The most appropriate initial action is to halt the infusion immediately while leaving the intravenous catheter intact in the vein.
The client is experiencing extravasation of a vesicant (norepinephrine), which causes profound vasoconstriction and tissue necrosis. The immediate priority is to stop the flow of the harmful medication. The catheter must remain in place to allow for the aspiration of residual drug and the local administration of an antidote, such as phentolamine, directly into the infiltrated tissue.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the clinical signs at the peripheral intravenous site.
The blanching, edema, coolness, and severe pain indicate extravasation of a vesicant medication.
Norepinephrine is a potent vasoconstrictor and vesicant; its leakage into surrounding tissue causes severe ischemia and necrosis.
2
Determine the highest priority nursing intervention.
The infusion must be stopped immediately.
Halting the infusion prevents further vesicant from entering the subcutaneous tissue, mitigating the extent of the injury.
3
Maintain the intravenous access.
The catheter is left in place.
Retaining the catheter allows the nurse to aspirate residual medication from the line and provides a route to instill an antidote (e.g., phentolamine) directly into the affected area.

Key Concept

Management of Vesicant Extravasation
Question 3425Question →

A nurse is assessing a client who is two days postoperative following a right total knee arthroplasty. The client suddenly becomes severely restless and reports sharp, pleuritic chest pain. Which of the following assessment findings would indicate that the client has developed a pulmonary embolism complicated by obstructive shock? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Arterial blood gas showing a pH of 7.51, PaCO2 of 28 mm Hg, and PaO2 of 56 mm Hg; Blood pressure decreasing from a baseline of 128/82 mm Hg to 84/50 mm Hg; Heart rate of 132 beats per minute accompanied by a weak, thready pulse

Answer

The assessment findings indicating a pulmonary embolism with obstructive shock are the arterial blood gas showing respiratory alkalosis and hypoxemia, the significant drop in blood pressure, and the tachycardia with a weak, thready pulse.
A massive pulmonary embolism creates an acute obstruction in the pulmonary vasculature, severely limiting blood flow to the left side of the heart. This precipitous drop in left ventricular preload and cardiac output defines obstructive shock, which presents with profound hypotension, compensatory tachycardia, and a weak, thready pulse due to decreased stroke volume and peripheral vasoconstriction. Concurrently, the obstruction creates a severe ventilation-perfusion mismatch, resulting in hypoxemia. The body's natural response to this hypoxia, along with severe pain and anxiety, is hyperventilation, which drives down carbon dioxide levels and causes respiratory alkalosis.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the clinical scenario and the client's risk factors.
The client is postoperative from major orthopedic surgery, which is a high risk factor for deep vein thrombosis and subsequent pulmonary embolism (PE). The sudden onset of pleuritic chest pain and restlessness strongly suggests an acute PE.
Identifying the primary pathophysiological event is essential to anticipate the resulting hemodynamic and respiratory changes.
2
Evaluate the respiratory parameters and arterial blood gas (ABG) findings.
A PE blocks pulmonary blood flow, causing a ventilation-perfusion mismatch and leading to hypoxia (low PaO2). The client hyperventilates in response, exhaling excess carbon dioxide and causing respiratory alkalosis (high pH, low PaCO2).
Understanding the acid-base imbalance helps distinguish between different types of respiratory distress.
3
Evaluate the hemodynamic parameters for signs of obstructive shock.
A massive PE creates a physical obstruction that severely reduces left ventricular filling and cardiac output. This manifests as significant hypotension and a compensatory tachycardia. Due to intense peripheral vasoconstriction and low stroke volume, the pulse becomes weak and thready, and the pulse pressure narrows.
Differentiating the types of shock ensures accurate assessment. Findings of widened pulse pressure or warm extremities would indicate distributive shock, not obstructive shock.

Key Concept

Clinical Manifestations of Pulmonary Embolism and Obstructive Shock
Question 3426Question →

A geriatric client with right-sided heart failure and marked dependent edema is receiving inpatient care. The client also has right-sided hemiplegia secondary to a past cerebrovascular event. Over the last few hours, the client has become highly restless and is experiencing new-onset urinary incontinence. Which intervention regarding the client's comfort and care is the most appropriate?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Support the flaccid right extremities in proper anatomical alignment using pillows and apply a moisture barrier ointment to the perineum after cleansing.

Answer

Support the flaccid right extremities in proper anatomical alignment using pillows and apply a moisture barrier ointment to the perineum after cleansing.
The correct intervention addresses two critical basic care needs safely: it prevents musculoskeletal damage (joint subluxation and contractures) in the paralyzed limbs through supportive alignment, and it prevents skin breakdown from moisture and acidity related to the new-onset incontinence.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's complex presentation, noting the history of right-sided heart failure, right hemiplegia, and acute changes (restlessness, incontinence).
Recognize that the client needs immediate skin protection and musculoskeletal support while avoiding interventions that could worsen the cardiac status.
Multisystem conditions require prioritizing interventions that provide comfort without inducing physiological harm.
2
Evaluate the safety of positioning interventions for edema in the context of heart failure.
Determine that sharply elevating the legs is contraindicated as it overloads the failing right ventricle.
Increased preload exacerbates right-sided heart failure.
3
Review the scope of delegation and principles of geriatric assessment.
Rule out UAP delegation for skin assessment and reject the assumption that acute changes are normal aging.
Assessments must be performed by the RN, and sudden behavioral/elimination changes indicate acute pathology.
4
Select the intervention that safely addresses physical comfort (alignment) and skin integrity (barrier ointment).
The correct action focuses on protective basic care within the RN's scope.
This intervention prevents complications of hemiplegia and incontinence without risking cardiac decompensation.

Key Concept

Safe positioning and hygiene maintenance in clients with complex, multi-system comorbidities.
Question 3427Question →

An obstetrical nurse is admitting a multigravida client at 39 weeks of gestation who reports a sudden gush of clear fluid from the vagina while walking in the hospital corridor. Which action must the nurse perform first?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Assess the fetal heart rate pattern using a monitor or Doppler.

Answer

Assess the fetal heart rate pattern using a monitor or Doppler.
When the amniotic membranes rupture, there is a significant risk that the umbilical cord may be washed down with the fluid, leading to an umbilical cord prolapse. This obstetric emergency compresses the cord and compromises fetal oxygenation. Assessing the fetal heart rate immediately detects sudden decelerations or bradycardia indicative of a prolapse, making it the absolute highest priority.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation.
The client has experienced spontaneous rupture of membranes (SROM) while ambulatory.
Identifying the event (SROM) helps determine the physiological risks, primarily the risk of the umbilical cord prolapsing with the gush of fluid.
2
Determine the most immediate life-threatening complication associated with the event.
Umbilical cord prolapse is the most immediate threat, as it can cause sudden fetal hypoxia.
Prioritization requires addressing airway, breathing, and circulation (ABC) needs first. For a fetus, the fetal heart rate is the primary indicator of adequate circulation and oxygenation.
3
Select the nursing intervention that directly assesses this priority.
Assessing the fetal heart rate is selected as the first action.
Evaluating the fetal heart rate will immediately reveal if cord compression (indicated by sudden bradycardia or profound variable decelerations) has occurred.

Key Concept

Prioritization of Care Following Rupture of Membranes
Question 3428Question →

A nurse is preparing to administer an intravenous (IV) push medication that is incompatible with the client's continuous IV fluid infusion. The client has a single peripheral IV access. Arrange the following actions in the correct sequence to safely administer this medication. (Place the first action at the top and the last action at the bottom.)

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct sequence is to first stop the continuous infusion, clamp the tubing above the lowest port, scrub the hub and flush with saline to clear the line, administer the medication over the prescribed time, flush again with saline at the same slow rate as the medication, and finally unclamp and restart the infusion.
Safely administering an IV push medication into a line with an incompatible continuous infusion requires creating a saline barrier and preventing the two medications from mixing. By stopping the pump and clamping the tubing, the nurse prevents retrograde flow. Flushing with saline before and after the medication creates a liquid barrier. Most importantly, flushing after the medication at the same slow rate is critical to prevent a rapid bolus of the medication remaining in the tubing's dead space.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Stop the continuous intravenous infusion pump.
The active flow of the incompatible fluid is halted.
It is critical to stop the incompatible fluid from infusing while the line is being manipulated and flushed.
2
Clamp the primary intravenous tubing above the injection port closest to the client.
The pathway back into the main IV bag and tubing is blocked.
Clamping prevents the subsequent flush and medication from traveling backward up the tubing (retrograde flow) and mixing with the incompatible primary fluid.
3
Scrub the injection port hub, aspirate for blood return, and flush with normal saline.
The line from the port to the vein is cleared of incompatible fluid.
This establishes a sterile access point, confirms venous placement, and creates a physical saline barrier between the incompatible fluids.
4
Administer the prescribed intravenous push medication over the recommended time.
The medication is safely delivered into the vein.
Pushing the medication slowly over the recommended duration prevents toxicity and severe adverse reactions.
5
Flush the injection port with normal saline at the same rate the medication was administered.
The residual medication in the IV tubing is pushed into the bloodstream at a safe speed.
Flushing too rapidly will forcefully push the medication occupying the dead space of the tubing into the client, essentially administering a rapid bolus and risking speed shock.
6
Unclamp the primary intravenous tubing and restart the continuous infusion.
The continuous therapy is resumed.
Once the medication is safely cleared from the line, it is safe to restart the primary continuous infusion.

Key Concept

Safe administration of an intravenous push medication through a line with an incompatible continuous infusion.
Question 3429Question →

A nurse is providing care for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a right total hip arthroplasty with a posterior approach. Which nursing action is most appropriate when assisting the client with basic care and mobility?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Maintaining an abduction wedge between the client's legs while turning them in bed.

Answer

Maintaining an abduction wedge between the client's legs while turning them in bed.
Following a total hip arthroplasty (posterior approach), it is critical to prevent the affected leg from crossing the midline of the body (adduction). Utilizing an abduction wedge or pillow between the client's legs when turning them prevents this contraindicated movement and maintains the hip in proper alignment, greatly reducing the risk of joint dislocation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the surgical procedure and its specific postoperative movement restrictions.
A total hip arthroplasty using a posterior approach requires avoiding hip flexion greater than 90 degrees, adduction (crossing the legs), and internal rotation.
These specific movements place excessive stress on the posterior joint capsule and can cause the new prosthetic head to dislocate.
2
Evaluate each nursing intervention to determine if it violates these movement precautions or safe nursing practice.
Elevating the head of the bed to 90 degrees and bending to put on socks both violate the flexion precaution. Delegating the first transfer violates the RN scope of practice.
Only actions that maintain proper anatomical alignment and adhere to delegation principles are appropriate.
3
Select the intervention that promotes safety and comfort while preventing dislocation.
Using an abduction wedge keeps the legs apart during turns.
This directly prevents adduction, securing the hip joint in a safe, neutral position.

Key Concept

Postoperative Positioning and Mobility for Total Hip Arthroplasty (Posterior Approach)
Question 3430Question →

A nurse is caring for a client admitted with an acute severe asthma exacerbation. Upon admission, the client was anxious and tachypneic with a respiratory rate of 34/min, and auscultation revealed loud, diffuse bilateral wheezing. Two hours later, the nurse notes that the client is now lethargic, the respiratory rate has decreased to 14/min, and breath sounds are markedly diminished. Which of the following arterial blood gas (ABG) results should the nurse anticipate based on the client's current clinical status?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: pH 7.28, PaCO2 58 mm Hg, PaO2 55 mm Hg, HCO3- 25 mEq/L

Answer

The ABG showing a pH of 7.28, elevated PaCO2 of 58 mm Hg, and normal HCO3- of 25 mEq/L (uncompensated respiratory acidosis) best reflects the client's clinical deterioration.
The client is exhibiting signs of impending respiratory failure, often referred to as a 'silent chest'. The exhaustion of respiratory muscles leads to alveolar hypoventilation. As ventilation drops, carbon dioxide is retained, causing the PaCO2 to rise and the pH to fall. The correct ABG reflects uncompensated respiratory acidosis (low pH, high PaCO2, normal HCO3-), which directly aligns with the lethargy and bradypnea described in the stem.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the change in the client's clinical presentation.
The client transitioned from anxious, tachypneic, and actively wheezing to lethargic with a decreased respiratory rate and 'silent chest' (diminished breath sounds).
Tracking clinical trends is essential to determine whether the client is improving or deteriorating.
2
Interpret the physiological meaning of the current findings.
Lethargy, a falling respiratory rate, and absent wheezing in a severe asthma attack indicate severe bronchospasm, respiratory muscle fatigue, and an inability to maintain adequate ventilation.
A 'silent chest' is a classic sign of impending respiratory failure, meaning air movement is severely compromised.
3
Correlate the physical findings with anticipated ABG changes.
Inadequate ventilation leads to carbon dioxide retention (hypercapnia), which drops the blood pH, resulting in respiratory acidosis.
Hypoventilation directly causes a primary accumulation of PaCO2, and because it is an acute event, the kidneys have not had time to compensate with HCO3- retention.

Key Concept

During an asthma exacerbation, a transition from hyperventilation (respiratory alkalosis) to hypoventilation (respiratory acidosis) accompanied by a 'silent chest' and lethargy signals impending respiratory failure.
Question 3431Question →

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). Which of the following nursing actions are appropriate for managing this client's parenteral therapy? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Replace the TPN solution bag and the intravenous administration tubing every 24 hours.; Keep a bag of 10% dextrose in water (D10W) readily available in case the TPN infusion is abruptly interrupted.; Assess the client's capillary blood glucose levels every 4 to 6 hours.

Answer

The appropriate actions are replacing the TPN bag and tubing every 24 hours, keeping D10W available in case of sudden interruption, and monitoring blood glucose levels every 4 to 6 hours.
Appropriate management of TPN includes changing the bag and tubing every 24 hours to prevent bacterial growth in the lipid and dextrose-rich solution. Regular blood glucose monitoring is essential because the high glucose load can cause hyperglycemia. Additionally, keeping D10W available prevents rebound hypoglycemia if the TPN infusion must be stopped abruptly.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the therapy being administered and its associated risks.
The client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a central line. TPN carries high risks for infection, drug incompatibilities, and metabolic imbalances (especially hyper/hypoglycemia).
Understanding the composition of TPN dictates the specific infection control and metabolic monitoring requirements.
2
Evaluate each intervention against evidence-based safety protocols for parenteral nutrition.
Replacing equipment every 24 hours, monitoring glucose, and having D10W on standby align with safe TPN protocols. Co-administering medications in the same lumen and altering infusion rates violate safety standards.
Evidence-based guidelines mandate dedicated lines for TPN, strict rate control, and aggressive infection prevention measures.

Key Concept

Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) Administration Safety
Question 3432Question →

A critically ill adult client is admitted to the intensive care unit with severe diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The initial laboratory results indicate a blood glucose level of 715 mg/dL715\text{ mg/dL}, an arterial pH of 7.127.12, and a serum potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L3.1\text{ mEq/L}. To reduce the risk of fatal complications during treatment, arrange the following collaborative interventions in the safest chronological order from first to last.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct sequence is to first initiate intravenous fluid resuscitation, followed by intravenous potassium chloride, then continuous intravenous regular insulin, followed by adding dextrose to the fluids, and finally administering subcutaneous basal insulin.
The prioritization of DKA management centers on mitigating life-threatening physiological decompensation. First, the profound osmotic diuresis caused by severe hyperglycemia leads to hypovolemic shock; therefore, restoring intravascular volume with isotonic fluid (0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride) is the paramount initial action. Second, while insulin is the definitive treatment for DKA, this client has a critically low serum potassium of 3.1 mEq/L3.1\text{ mEq/L}. Insulin drives potassium into the intracellular space. Administering insulin before correcting the hypokalemia would cause a precipitous drop in serum potassium, placing the client at imminent risk for fatal ventricular arrhythmias. Thus, intravenous potassium chloride must be infused prior to initiating insulin. Third, once potassium reaches ≥3.3 mEq/L\ge 3.3\text{ mEq/L}, a continuous intravenous insulin infusion is started to halt ketogenesis. Fourth, as blood glucose levels drop to approximately 250 mg/dL250\text{ mg/dL}, 5%5\% dextrose is added to the maintenance fluids to prevent hypoglycemia and subsequent cerebral edema. Finally, once the anion gap has closed and DKA is resolved, subcutaneous basal insulin is administered. The intravenous insulin is continued for 11 to 22 hours post-subcutaneous injection to prevent rebound ketoacidosis.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's laboratory values and physiological state.
The client is in severe DKA with critical hypokalemia (3.1 mEq/L3.1\text{ mEq/L}).
Identifying life-threatening abnormalities determines the priority of interventions.
2
Determine the priority of initial medical management.
Isotonic fluid resuscitation is the immediate priority.
DKA causes profound osmotic diuresis leading to hypovolemic shock. Restoring perfusion prevents cardiovascular collapse.
3
Evaluate the safety of initiating insulin therapy.
Insulin must be held until the serum potassium is replaced.
Insulin rapidly drives potassium into cells. Administering insulin when serum potassium is <3.3 mEq/L< 3.3\text{ mEq/L} causes fatal hypokalemia and arrhythmias.
4
Sequence the remaining interventions as the client's condition stabilizes.
Insulin is started, followed by adding dextrose when glucose falls, and finally overlapping with subcutaneous insulin.
Dextrose prevents cerebral edema, and overlapping insulin prevents rebound ketoacidosis.

Key Concept

Reduction of Risk Potential: DKA Protocol Sequencing
Question 3433Question →

A nurse is caring for a 68-year-old client admitted 12 hours ago with acute pyelonephritis. The client is currently restless, and the nurse notes their skin is abnormally warm and flushed. Assessment reveals a urine output of 15 mL/hr over the past two hours. Vital signs are:

* Blood pressure: 86/42 mmHg
* Heart rate: 124 bpm
* Respiratory rate: 28 breaths/min
* Temperature: 39.1°C (102.4°F)

An arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis on room air shows: pH 7.31, PaCO2 29 mmHg, HCO3- 14 mEq/L, and PaO2 86 mmHg. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform FIRST?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Initiate a rapid intravenous infusion of an isotonic crystalloid solution

Answer

The nurse should first initiate a rapid intravenous infusion of an isotonic crystalloid solution.
Initiating a rapid intravenous infusion of an isotonic crystalloid solution is the highest priority because the client is in the early 'warm' phase of septic shock. This phase of distributive shock is characterized by massive systemic vasodilation, resulting in relative hypovolemia, warm/flushed skin, hypotension, and inadequate tissue perfusion (evidenced by oliguria and lactic acidosis). The ABG confirms metabolic acidosis with compensatory tachypnea. According to evidence-based sepsis management guidelines, the most critical initial action for sepsis-induced hypoperfusion is aggressive fluid resuscitation to restore intravascular volume and improve oxygen delivery to tissues.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation.
The combination of severe hypotension, tachycardia, oliguria, and warm/flushed skin in a client with an active pyelonephritis infection indicates the early (hyperdynamic) phase of distributive septic shock.
Recognizing the specific phase and type of shock is required to determine the correct pathophysiological intervention.
2
Interpret the arterial blood gas (ABG) values.
The ABG reveals a partially compensated metabolic acidosis (low pH, low HCO3-) caused by tissue hypoperfusion (lactic acidosis). The PaO2 is normal, indicating the tachypnea is a compensatory respiratory response, not hypoxia.
Misinterpreting the tachypnea and ABG can lead to prioritizing oxygen therapy over critical fluid resuscitation.
3
Determine the highest priority intervention.
The immediate priority for sepsis-induced relative hypovolemia and tissue hypoperfusion is rapid volume expansion with isotonic crystalloids.
Restoring intravascular volume is a critical prerequisite before administering vasopressors to prevent worsening tissue ischemia.

Key Concept

Prioritization in Septic Shock Management and Hemodynamic Resuscitation
Question 3434Question →

A nurse is caring for a client who is mechanically ventilated in the intensive care unit following abdominal surgery. The ventilator's high-pressure alarm has been sounding frequently. The client's latest arterial blood gas (ABG) results are provided in the table below:

ParameterResultReference Range
pH7.267.267.357.35 - 7.457.45
PaCO2\text{PaCO}_260 mm Hg60 \text{ mm Hg}3535 - 45 mm Hg45 \text{ mm Hg}
HCO3−\text{HCO}_3^-24 mEq/L24 \text{ mEq/L}2222 - 26 mEq/L26 \text{ mEq/L}
PaO2\text{PaO}_265 mm Hg65 \text{ mm Hg}8080 - 100 mm Hg100 \text{ mm Hg}

Which intervention should the nurse implement first to reduce the risk of further physiological decompensation?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Auscultate bilateral lung sounds and perform endotracheal suctioning.

Answer

The correct intervention is to auscultate bilateral lung sounds and perform endotracheal suctioning.
The client is experiencing uncompensated respiratory acidosis, as evidenced by a low pH and an elevated PaCO2, along with hypoxemia. In a mechanically ventilated client, frequent high-pressure alarms combined with these ABG changes strongly suggest an airway obstruction, such as accumulated mucus or secretions. Auscultating the lungs and suctioning the endotracheal tube clears the airway, improves effective ventilation, and directly addresses the underlying cause of both the high peak pressures and the retained carbon dioxide.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the provided ABG results.
The ABG shows uncompensated respiratory acidosis (low pH, high PaCO2, normal HCO3) accompanied by hypoxemia (low PaO2).
Identifying the primary acid-base imbalance is necessary to determine the physiological root cause.
2
Correlate the ABG findings with the clinical data.
The combination of respiratory acidosis and frequent high-pressure ventilator alarms indicates increased airway resistance, likely due to an obstruction such as accumulated secretions.
High-pressure alarms trigger when the ventilator meets excessive resistance while delivering a breath, which commonly leads to poor ventilation and CO2 retention.
3
Determine the highest priority nursing intervention.
Auscultating the lungs and suctioning the endotracheal tube is the priority action.
Removing the physical obstruction clears the airway, allows for adequate alveolar ventilation, and directly resolves both the high-pressure alarm and the respiratory acidosis.

Key Concept

Airway Management and ABG Interpretation in Mechanical Ventilation
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 3435Question →

A registered nurse is providing care for a client who is receiving a continuous intravenous (IV) heparin infusion to treat a deep vein thrombosis. The healthcare provider prescribes a scheduled dose of IV vancomycin. The client currently has a single peripheral IV access site. Which action by the nurse is essential to ensure client safety and prevent a medical error?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Consult a reliable drug reference database to confirm the physical compatibility of vancomycin and heparin.

Answer

The nurse must consult an approved drug reference database to verify the compatibility of the two intravenous medications before administration.
The correct action demonstrates fundamental medication safety principles. Before any two intravenous medications share the same tubing, the nurse is strictly required to check a drug reference database for compatibility. Heparin and vancomycin are a well-known example of drugs that often require separate lines due to physical incompatibility.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the clinical situation and the prescribed interventions.
The client is receiving a continuous high-alert infusion (heparin) and needs another IV medication (vancomycin) through the same single access site.
Understanding the existing setup is required to determine the risk of drug interactions or line complications.
2
Determine the safety requirements for co-administering IV medications.
Medications cannot be mixed in the same IV line unless they are proven to be physically and chemically compatible.
Incompatible medications can cause precipitation, leading to loss of drug efficacy or dangerous emboli.
3
Select the safest nursing intervention to prevent an error.
The nurse must verify compatibility using a reliable drug reference before proceeding with the administration.
This action directly prevents a potential adverse drug event and ensures client safety.

Key Concept

Intravenous medication compatibility and error prevention
Question 3436Question →

A charge nurse is evaluating a newly licensed nurse who is managing a client 12 hours postoperative following a right total pneumonectomy. No chest tube is present. The client's vital signs are: blood pressure 110/70 mmHg, heart rate 98 bpm, respiratory rate 20/min, and oxygen saturation 94% on 2 L/min via nasal cannula. Which action by the newly licensed nurse requires immediate intervention by the charge nurse to prevent a life-threatening complication?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Assisting the client into a full left lateral decubitus position to optimize ventilation-perfusion matching.

Answer

The action that requires immediate intervention is assisting the client into a full left lateral decubitus position (the unoperated side).
The correct answer is the action of positioning the client on their unoperated side. While placing the 'good lung down' is a standard strategy to optimize ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) matching in conditions like unilateral pneumonia, it is strictly contraindicated following a pneumonectomy. Placing a post-pneumonectomy client on their unoperated (left) side allows gravity to pull the heart and mediastinal structures into the empty surgical space. This can cause a catastrophic mediastinal shift, severe compression of the single remaining lung, cardiovascular collapse, and extreme tension on the sutured bronchial stump leading to a blowout. The client should only be positioned supine or on the operated (right) side.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the surgical procedure and its physiological impact on the client's anatomy.
A right total pneumonectomy removes the entire right lung, leaving an empty right pleural space and relying solely on the left lung for oxygenation.
Understanding the structural changes is essential to predict postoperative complications and safe positioning.
2
Evaluate the safety of the positioning intervention chosen by the new nurse.
Placing the client on the left (unoperated) side allows gravity to pull the heart and mediastinum heavily into the empty right space.
Unlike typical pneumonia where 'good lung down' improves ventilation-perfusion matching, pneumonectomy creates a high-risk void that dictates completely different positioning rules.
3
Identify the potential consequences of the positioning error.
A mediastinal shift occurs, compressing the remaining left lung, severely decreasing venous return, and putting extreme tension on the sutured bronchial stump.
This confirms that positioning the client on the unoperated side is a life-threatening error requiring immediate charge nurse intervention.

Key Concept

Post-pneumonectomy positioning requires placing the client supine or on the operative side to prevent catastrophic mediastinal shift and protect the single remaining lung.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 3437Question →

A registered nurse is preparing to administer a mixed dose of NPH and regular insulin to a client with diabetes mellitus. In what order should the nurse perform the following actions to safely prepare the injection? Arrange the steps in the correct sequence.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct sequence is: roll the NPH vial, cleanse both stoppers, inject air into the NPH vial, inject air into the regular insulin vial, withdraw the regular insulin, and finally withdraw the NPH insulin.
When mixing regular (short-acting, clear) and NPH (intermediate-acting, cloudy) insulin in the same syringe, the nurse must prevent contamination of the regular insulin with the NPH insulin. The correct process follows the 'clear before cloudy' principle. First, the NPH vial is rolled to suspend the particles safely. Both stoppers are cleansed to maintain asepsis. Air is injected into the NPH vial first, then into the regular vial, to equalize pressure without mixing the liquids. The nurse then withdraws the regular (clear) insulin first, followed by the NPH (cloudy) insulin.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Gently roll the vial of NPH insulin between the palms of the hands.
The suspension is mixed evenly without creating froth.
NPH insulin is a suspension that must be mixed before use; shaking vigorously can cause bubbles that lead to inaccurate dosing.
2
Cleanse the rubber stoppers of both insulin vials with alcohol swabs.
The entry points on the vials are disinfected.
Prevents the introduction of microorganisms into the sterile medication vials.
3
Inject a volume of air equal to the prescribed dose into the NPH insulin vial.
Pressure is equalized in the NPH vial without the needle touching the insulin.
Injecting air prevents a vacuum. Doing this first in the NPH vial prevents accidental contamination later.
4
Inject a volume of air equal to the prescribed dose into the regular insulin vial.
Pressure is equalized in the regular insulin vial.
Prepares the regular insulin vial for immediate withdrawal of the medication.
5
Withdraw the prescribed dose of regular insulin into the syringe.
The short-acting (clear) insulin is drawn into the syringe first.
Drawing the clear insulin first prevents it from being contaminated by the longer-acting NPH insulin.
6
Insert the needle into the NPH insulin vial and withdraw the prescribed dose of NPH insulin.
The intermediate-acting (cloudy) insulin is added, completing the combined dose.
This final step ensures both insulins are accurately mixed in one syringe without altering the rapid action profile of the regular insulin.

Key Concept

Insulin Mixing Sequence (Clear before Cloudy)
Question 3438Question →

A client admitted with a hypertensive emergency is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of sodium nitroprusside at 3 mcg/kg/min3 \text{ mcg/kg/min}. The client weighs 220 lbs220 \text{ lbs}. The medication is supplied as 50 mg50 \text{ mg} of sodium nitroprusside in 250 mL250 \text{ mL} of 5%5\% dextrose in water (D5W). Upon assessment, the nurse notes the client's blood pressure has decreased to 86/52 mmHg86/52 \text{ mmHg}. The healthcare provider prescribes titrating the infusion rate down to 1 mcg/kg/min1 \text{ mcg/kg/min}. Which action is most appropriate for the nurse to take?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Adjust the infusion pump to deliver 30 mL/hr30 \text{ mL/hr} and assess the client's blood pressure every 5 minutes.

Answer

The nurse should adjust the infusion pump to 30 mL/hr30 \text{ mL/hr} and assess the blood pressure every 5 minutes.
The correct action involves accurately calculating the new weight-based infusion rate and implementing vigilant clinical monitoring. By completing the dimensional analysis (100 kg×1 mcg/kg/min×60 minutes=6000 mcg/hr100 \text{ kg} \times 1 \text{ mcg/kg/min} \times 60 \text{ minutes} = 6000 \text{ mcg/hr}; 6000 mcg÷200 mcg/mL=30 mL/hr6000 \text{ mcg} \div 200 \text{ mcg/mL} = 30 \text{ mL/hr}), the nurse ensures precise drug delivery. Furthermore, because sodium nitroprusside is a potent vasodilator with a very short half-life (approximately 2 minutes), blood pressure must be monitored continuously or at minimum every 5 to 10 minutes during active titration.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms.
220 lbs÷2.2 lbs/kg=100 kg220 \text{ lbs} \div 2.2 \text{ lbs/kg} = 100 \text{ kg}
Nitroprusside is dosed based on metric body weight.
2
Calculate the total required dose per minute based on the new prescribed rate.
100 kg×1 mcg/kg/min=100 mcg/min100 \text{ kg} \times 1 \text{ mcg/kg/min} = 100 \text{ mcg/min}
Determines the exact amount of medication the client needs every sixty seconds.
3
Convert the dose per minute to the dose per hour.
100 mcg/min×60 min/hr=6000 mcg/hr100 \text{ mcg/min} \times 60 \text{ min/hr} = 6000 \text{ mcg/hr}
IV pumps are programmed in mL per hour, so the dose must reflect an hourly requirement.
4
Determine the concentration of the supplied medication in mcg/mL.
50 mg=50,000 mcg50 \text{ mg} = 50,000 \text{ mcg}. 50,000 mcg÷250 mL=200 mcg/mL50,000 \text{ mcg} \div 250 \text{ mL} = 200 \text{ mcg/mL}
Establishes how much active drug is in each milliliter of the IV fluid.
5
Calculate the final infusion rate in mL/hr.
6000 mcg/hr÷200 mcg/mL=30 mL/hr6000 \text{ mcg/hr} \div 200 \text{ mcg/mL} = 30 \text{ mL/hr}
Provides the correct volume to set on the infusion pump to deliver the prescribed dose.

Key Concept

Weight-Based Continuous Infusion Titration and Hypotension Management
Question 3439Question →

During an environmental safety audit on a medical-surgical unit, the charge nurse evaluates the room setup and care plan for a client admitted with uncontrolled generalized tonic-clonic seizures. Which of the following documented interventions confirm that appropriate injury prevention measures have been implemented? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Verifying that wall suction apparatus and a bag-valve-mask device are functioning at the bedside; Padding the side rails of the bed using facility-approved protective materials; Ensuring that the bed is maintained in the lowest possible position with the wheels locked

Answer

The correct injury prevention measures for a client with seizure risk include verifying functional airway equipment (suction and bag-valve-mask) at the bedside, padding the bed's side rails, and keeping the bed in the lowest locked position.
The appropriate safety protocol for seizure risk prioritizes airway management and physical protection. Keeping suction and oxygenation equipment at the bedside ensures immediate readiness if the airway becomes compromised. Padding the side rails protects the client's head and extremities from blunt trauma during tonic-clonic movements. Maintaining the bed in the lowest locked position minimizes the distance to the floor and prevents the bed from shifting, significantly reducing the risk of a severe fall injury.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary safety risks associated with generalized tonic-clonic seizures.
Recognize that risks include airway compromise, aspiration of secretions, and traumatic physical injury from involuntary movements or falls.
Understanding the specific pathophysiology of the hazard dictates which environmental and clinical safety protocols are required.
2
Select proactive interventions that protect the airway and physical environment without causing secondary harm.
Equipment preparation (suction/oxygen), physical cushioning (padded rails), and fall distance minimization (low locked bed) are identified as correct.
These actions create a safe space that accommodates the seizure rather than dangerously attempting to halt the physical movements.
3
Eliminate interventions that violate safety principles or scope of practice.
Reject the use of physical restraints, supine post-ictal positioning, and the delegation of assessments to unlicensed personnel.
Restraints cause fractures during seizures, supine positioning causes aspiration, and UAPs are not licensed to perform post-ictal neurological assessments.

Key Concept

Seizure Precautions and Injury Prevention
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 3440Question →

A 58-year-old client is being managed in the high-dependency unit for acute necrotizing pancreatitis. Over the past three hours, the nurse notes the client's heart rate has increased from 8686 to 116116 beats/min, and the blood pressure has trended from 134/78134/78 mm Hg to 112/86112/86 mm Hg. The client's urine output for the last hour is 1515 mL. The most recent arterial blood gas analysis reveals a pH of 7.317.31, PaCO2 of 3535 mm Hg, and HCO3- of 1616 mEq/L. Based on these findings, which immediate risk mitigation action should the nurse prioritize?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Administer a prescribed rapid intravenous crystalloid fluid bolus.

Answer

Administer a prescribed rapid intravenous crystalloid fluid bolus.
The clinical picture demonstrates early, compensatory hypovolemic shock, a major complication of acute necrotizing pancreatitis due to massive fluid shifting (third-spacing). The key indicators are a narrowing pulse pressure (dropping from 5656 mm Hg to 2626 mm Hg), progressive tachycardia, and severely decreased urine output. Furthermore, the arterial blood gas results confirm metabolic acidosis (pH 7.317.31, HCO3- 1616 mEq/L), which occurs secondary to tissue hypoperfusion and lactic acid buildup. Administering a rapid intravenous crystalloid bolus directly addresses the underlying fluid deficit, mitigates the risk of organ failure, and restores adequate tissue perfusion.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the vital sign trends to identify signs of hemodynamic instability.
The client has developed tachycardia and a narrowing pulse pressure (dropping from 5656 mm Hg to 2626 mm Hg), accompanied by oliguria.
Narrowing pulse pressure and tachycardia are classic early compensatory mechanisms for hypovolemia before profound hypotension occurs.
2
Interpret the arterial blood gas (ABG) values.
A pH of 7.317.31 (acidosis) and HCO3- of 1616 mEq/L (abnormally low) with a normal PaCO2 indicate uncompensated metabolic acidosis.
Metabolic acidosis in this context is likely due to lactic acid accumulation from poor tissue perfusion, a hallmark of developing shock.
3
Determine the highest priority intervention based on the physiological data.
The most critical action is to restore intravascular volume and improve tissue perfusion.
Acute necrotizing pancreatitis causes massive fluid shifts into the retroperitoneal space (third-spacing). Intravenous fluid resuscitation is the primary risk mitigation strategy to prevent progression to irreversible shock.

Key Concept

Early Recognition and Mitigation of Hypovolemic Shock
PreviousPage 172 / 195Next
All practice questions — NCLEX-RN | Examkin