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Question 3441Question →

An older adult client is prescribed a large-volume cleansing enema to treat severe constipation. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when preparing and administering this intervention?

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Answer: Position the client in a left lateral position with the right knee flexed.

Answer

The nurse should position the client in a left lateral position with the right knee flexed (Sims' position).
The correct action is to place the client in the left lateral Sims' position. Because the descending colon is located on the left side of the body, this position allows gravity to help the enema solution flow smoothly into the sigmoid and descending colon, maximizing the effectiveness of the treatment and minimizing client discomfort.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the anatomy of the lower gastrointestinal tract.
The descending colon and sigmoid colon are located on the left side of the abdomen.
Understanding anatomy dictates the positioning required for gravity to assist in fluid flow.
2
Determine the optimal client position for enema administration.
The left lateral position with the right knee flexed (Sims' position) is selected.
This position places the descending colon at the lowest point, allowing the enema solution to flow easily by gravity into the sigmoid colon and descending colon.

Key Concept

Basic Care and Comfort: Bowel Elimination and Enema Administration
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 3442Question →

An emergency department team is treating a client for a hypertensive emergency. The provider prescribes a continuous sodium nitroprusside infusion with instructions to begin at 0.3 mcg/kg/min0.3 \text{ mcg/kg/min} and titrate upward by 0.3 mcg/kg/min0.3 \text{ mcg/kg/min} every 5 minutes5 \text{ minutes} until the mean arterial pressure (MAP) falls below 100 mm Hg100 \text{ mm Hg}.

The client's admission weight is 231 lbs231 \text{ lbs}.
The pharmacy supplies a premixed IV bag containing 50 mg50 \text{ mg} of sodium nitroprusside in 250 mL250 \text{ mL} of 5%5\% dextrose in water (D5WD_5W).

The nurse initiates the infusion. Because the client's MAP remains consistently above 100 mm Hg100 \text{ mm Hg} during the initial monitoring period, the nurse performs exactly three protocol-directed upward titrations.

Determine the new IV pump rate in mL/hr\text{mL/hr} immediately following the third titration. Round your final answer to the nearest whole number.

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Answer: 38

Answer

38
To determine the correct IV pump rate for a weight-based titration, the nurse must first convert the weight to kilograms (231 lbs÷2.2=105 kg231 \text{ lbs} \div 2.2 = 105 \text{ kg}). Next, the new dose is calculated by adding the three titrations to the initial rate: 0.3+(3×0.3)=1.2 mcg/kg/min0.3 + (3 \times 0.3) = 1.2 \text{ mcg/kg/min}. This weight-based dose is multiplied by the client's weight (1.2×105=126 mcg/min1.2 \times 105 = 126 \text{ mcg/min}) and then converted to an hourly rate (126×60=7560 mcg/hr126 \times 60 = 7560 \text{ mcg/hr}). Finally, the hourly dose is divided by the bag concentration in matching units (50,000 mcg÷250 mL=200 mcg/mL50,000 \text{ mcg} \div 250 \text{ mL} = 200 \text{ mcg/mL}). The result (7560÷200=37.8 mL/hr7560 \div 200 = 37.8 \text{ mL/hr}) is rounded to the nearest whole number to get 38 mL/hr38 \text{ mL/hr}.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms.
105 kg105 \text{ kg}
Weight-based dosing requires the client's weight in metric units (kg). Divide 231 lbs231 \text{ lbs} by 2.22.2.
2
Determine the new prescribed dose after three upward titrations.
1.2 mcg/kg/min1.2 \text{ mcg/kg/min}
The initial dose is 0.3 mcg/kg/min0.3 \text{ mcg/kg/min}. Each titration adds 0.3 mcg/kg/min0.3 \text{ mcg/kg/min}. Three titrations add 0.9 mcg/kg/min0.9 \text{ mcg/kg/min} to the baseline.
3
Calculate the total dose per minute based on the client's weight.
126 mcg/min126 \text{ mcg/min}
Multiply the weight-based dose (1.2 mcg/kg/min1.2 \text{ mcg/kg/min}) by the client's weight (105 kg105 \text{ kg}) to find the absolute per-minute dose.
4
Convert the per-minute dose to an hourly dose.
7560 mcg/hr7560 \text{ mcg/hr}
IV pumps are programmed in hours. Multiply the per-minute dose (126 mcg/min126 \text{ mcg/min}) by 6060 minutes.
5
Calculate the concentration of the medication in mcg/mL.
200 mcg/mL200 \text{ mcg/mL}
Convert 50 mg50 \text{ mg} to 50,000 mcg50,000 \text{ mcg}, then divide by the 250 mL250 \text{ mL} bag volume to align units with the ordered dose.
6
Calculate the required infusion volume per hour and round to the nearest whole number.
38 mL/hr38 \text{ mL/hr}
Divide the hourly dose (7560 mcg/hr7560 \text{ mcg/hr}) by the concentration (200 mcg/mL200 \text{ mcg/mL}) to get 37.8 mL/hr37.8 \text{ mL/hr}, which rounds to 3838.

Key Concept

Calculation and titration of weight-based continuous intravenous infusions (mcg/kg/min to mL/hr).
Question 3443Question →

A nurse is initiating the post-procedure care plan for a client who returned to the medical-surgical unit following a percutaneous liver biopsy. To actively reduce the client's risk for a life-threatening complication, which intervention should the nurse implement?

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Answer: Position the client on the right side with a small, rolled towel placed directly under the puncture site.

Answer

Position the client on the right side with a small, rolled towel placed directly under the puncture site.
Following a percutaneous liver biopsy, the most significant risk to the client is internal hemorrhage due to the extensive vascularity of the liver. Placing the client in a right lateral (side-lying) position, especially with a towel or small pillow under the puncture site, utilizes the client's body weight to apply direct, continuous pressure to the liver capsule. This mechanical compression promotes hemostasis and drastically reduces the risk of bleeding.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary physiological risk following a percutaneous liver biopsy.
Hemorrhage is the most significant and life-threatening post-procedure complication because the liver is a highly vascular organ.
Recognizing the highest risk dictates the priority preventative nursing action.
2
Evaluate how positioning can mitigate the identified risk of hemorrhage.
The liver is located in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen.
Placing the client in a right lateral position uses gravity and the weight of the client's body to compress the area against the mattress.
3
Select the intervention that best applies direct mechanical pressure.
The right side-lying position with a towel underneath directly compresses the liver capsule.
This mechanical pressure is essential to stop venous or arterial oozing from the needle track and promote clot formation.

Key Concept

Reduction of Risk Potential: Post-Procedure Hemorrhage Prevention
Question 3444Question →

An emergency department triage nurse evaluates a client who sustained blunt force abdominal trauma in a motor vehicle collision. The nurse suspects the client is entering the compensatory stage of shock. Which of the following assessment findings support this physiological adaptation? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Resting heart rate of 118 beats per minute; Blood pressure reading of 114/96 mm Hg; Hypoactive bowel sounds in all four quadrants

Answer

The findings that support the compensatory stage of shock are a resting heart rate of 118 beats per minute, a blood pressure reading of 114/96 mm Hg (narrowing pulse pressure), and hypoactive bowel sounds.
During the compensatory stage of shock, the sympathetic nervous system triggers the release of epinephrine and norepinephrine. This physiological adaptation causes an increase in heart rate to maintain cardiac output and induces widespread peripheral vasoconstriction, which elevates diastolic blood pressure and results in a narrowed pulse pressure. Additionally, blood is strategically shunted away from non-vital organs, such as the gastrointestinal tract, leading to hypoactive bowel sounds.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's risk factors and current clinical scenario.
The client suffered blunt abdominal trauma, placing them at high risk for internal hemorrhage and hypovolemic shock.
Identifying the etiology of shock determines the expected physiological response.
2
Recall the physiological mechanisms characteristic of the compensatory stage of shock.
The body activates the sympathetic nervous system and the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) to maintain cardiac output and perfusion to vital organs.
Understanding compensatory mechanisms allows for the anticipation of specific clinical signs.
3
Evaluate each assessment finding against the expected physiological adaptations.
Tachycardia, a narrowing pulse pressure, and decreased gastrointestinal motility directly result from sympathetic stimulation and the shunting of blood away from non-vital organs.
Differentiating early compensatory signs from late progressive signs or alternative shock states ensures accurate clinical judgment.

Key Concept

Physiological Adaptation: Compensatory Mechanisms in Early Shock
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 3445Question →

A nurse is assessing a client who underwent a percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) via the right femoral artery 2 hours ago. The client suddenly reports a warm, wet sensation in their right groin. The nurse immediately dons clean gloves and observes active arterial bleeding and a rapidly expanding hematoma. Place the following nursing interventions in the correct priority sequence to manage this complication.

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Answer

The correct sequence is: 1) Apply firm manual pressure above the site, 2) Activate the emergency call system, 3) Evaluate blood pressure and heart rate, 4) Assess the affected lower extremity, and 5) Apply a mechanical compression device.
In the event of an arterial hemorrhage post-cardiac catheterization, the nurse's first priority is to stop the bleeding by applying direct pressure slightly above the skin puncture site, following the anatomical track of the needle to the actual arteriotomy. Once pressure is applied, the nurse must immediately summon help without leaving the client. Next, systemic perfusion (vital signs) must be assessed to rule out life-threatening hypovolemic shock, followed by an assessment of the affected limb for localized ischemia. Finally, a definitive pressure dressing or mechanical device is applied once hemostasis is achieved.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the most immediate life-threatening issue.
The client is experiencing an active arterial hemorrhage from the femoral artery.
According to the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) framework, severe arterial bleeding compromises circulation and requires immediate mechanical intervention (pressure) to prevent exsanguination.
2
Determine the next crucial action after controlling the bleeding.
The nurse must activate the emergency call system.
The nurse cannot safely leave the bleeding client to get supplies or call the provider, so help must be summoned directly to the bedside.
3
Prioritize systemic assessment over localized assessment.
Evaluate systemic vital signs, including blood pressure and heart rate.
Systemic perfusion takes priority over limb perfusion. The nurse must determine if the blood loss has caused systemic hemodynamic instability, such as hypovolemic shock.
4
Assess localized complications.
Evaluate the distal pulses, color, and temperature of the affected leg.
After systemic stability is addressed, the nurse must ensure that the hematoma or the applied manual pressure has not completely compromised arterial blood flow to the foot, which could cause tissue ischemia.
5
Identify the final resolution step.
Apply a mechanical compression device or pressure dressing.
This step replaces manual pressure only after hemostasis is successfully achieved and the client is hemodynamically stable.

Key Concept

Prioritization of care for post-cardiac catheterization complications
Question 3446Question →

A nurse is preparing to remove a client's non-tunneled central venous catheter (CVC). After performing hand hygiene, donning appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE), and removing the old dressing, in what order should the nurse perform the following actions? Arrange the steps from first to last.

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Answer

The correct sequence for removing a central venous catheter is to first position the client appropriately (supine or Trendelenburg), instruct them to perform the Valsalva maneuver, withdraw the catheter during the maneuver, immediately apply firm pressure to the site, and finally secure an occlusive dressing.
This sequence systematically minimizes the risk of air embolism and bleeding. Proper positioning and the Valsalva maneuver create positive pressure in the central veins prior to removal. Immediate pressure and an occlusive dressing ensure the venous tract remains sealed from the atmosphere after the catheter is removed.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Position the client supine or in a slight Trendelenburg position.
Central venous pressure is increased.
This reduces the risk of air entering the central veins due to negative pressure.
2
Instruct the client to perform the Valsalva maneuver.
Intrathoracic pressure is elevated.
Creating positive pressure in the chest prevents air from being sucked into the open vein during removal.
3
Withdraw the catheter smoothly.
The catheter is safely removed from the vein.
Removal must occur while the patient is actively bearing down to ensure the vein remains positively pressurized.
4
Apply firm pressure with sterile gauze.
Hemostasis is achieved and the entry point is temporarily sealed.
This prevents bleeding from the highly vascular site and immediately blocks air entry.
5
Apply an occlusive dressing.
The insertion site is completely sealed.
An airtight barrier prevents air from tracking down the subcutaneous tunnel into the vein while the site heals.

Key Concept

Safe removal of a central venous catheter requires meticulous interventions to prevent air embolism, a life-threatening complication caused by air entering the central circulation.
Question 3447Question →

A client with severe acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is mechanically ventilated and requires continuous sedation. The healthcare provider prescribes a propofol infusion at 30 mcg/kg/min30 \text{ mcg/kg/min}. The client weighs 209 lb209 \text{ lb}. The pharmacy dispenses propofol 1,000 mg1,000 \text{ mg} in a 100 mL100 \text{ mL} lipid emulsion. What should the nurse set the infusion pump rate to in mL/hr\text{mL/hr}? Record your answer to the nearest whole number.

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 17

Answer

17
To determine the correct pump rate, the nurse must first convert the client's weight to kilograms (209÷2.2=95 kg209 \div 2.2 = 95 \text{ kg}). Next, calculate the total dose per minute (30×95=2,850 mcg/min30 \times 95 = 2,850 \text{ mcg/min}) and multiply by 6060 to find the hourly dose (171,000 mcg/hr171,000 \text{ mcg/hr}). Because the medication is dispensed in milligrams, convert the hourly dose from micrograms to milligrams (171,000÷1,000=171 mg/hr171,000 \div 1,000 = 171 \text{ mg/hr}). The concentration of the dispensed propofol is 1,000 mg÷100 mL=10 mg/mL1,000 \text{ mg} \div 100 \text{ mL} = 10 \text{ mg/mL}. Finally, divide the required hourly dose by the concentration (171÷10=17.1 mL/hr171 \div 10 = 17.1 \text{ mL/hr}) and round to the nearest whole number, resulting in 1717.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms.
209 lb÷2.2 lb/kg=95 kg209 \text{ lb} \div 2.2 \text{ lb/kg} = 95 \text{ kg}
Critical care continuous infusions are dosed based on the client's weight in kilograms.
2
Calculate the prescribed dose per minute.
30 mcg/kg/min×95 kg=2,850 mcg/min30 \text{ mcg/kg/min} \times 95 \text{ kg} = 2,850 \text{ mcg/min}
This determines the total amount of medication the client needs every minute.
3
Convert the per-minute dose to an hourly dose.
2,850 mcg/min×60 min/hr=171,000 mcg/hr2,850 \text{ mcg/min} \times 60 \text{ min/hr} = 171,000 \text{ mcg/hr}
Infusion pumps are programmed to deliver fluids in mL per hour.
4
Convert the hourly dose from micrograms to milligrams.
171,000 mcg/hr÷1,000 mcg/mg=171 mg/hr171,000 \text{ mcg/hr} \div 1,000 \text{ mcg/mg} = 171 \text{ mg/hr}
The dispensed medication concentration is provided in milligrams, not micrograms.
5
Determine the concentration of the propofol emulsion.
1,000 mg÷100 mL=10 mg/mL1,000 \text{ mg} \div 100 \text{ mL} = 10 \text{ mg/mL}
This establishes how many milligrams of propofol are in each milliliter of the fluid.
6
Calculate the infusion pump rate in mL/hr.
171 mg/hr÷10 mg/mL=17.1 mL/hr171 \text{ mg/hr} \div 10 \text{ mg/mL} = 17.1 \text{ mL/hr}
Dividing the required hourly dose by the concentration yields the required fluid volume rate.
7
Round the final answer to the nearest whole number.
17.117.1 rounds down to 1717.
Matches the rounding instructions provided in the question stem.

Key Concept

Weight-based continuous intravenous medication infusion calculations requiring multiple unit conversions
Question 3448Question →

While conducting midnight rounds on a medical-surgical unit, a nurse discovers an older adult client who is acutely confused, highly restless, and attempting to climb out of bed. The client was alert and oriented during the previous shift. Which action should the nurse implement first to ensure the client's safety?

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Answer: Relocate the client to a room near the nurses' station and activate a bed exit alarm.

Answer

The nurse should relocate the client to a room near the nurses' station and activate a bed exit alarm.
Moving the client to a room near the nurses' station and utilizing a bed alarm are appropriate, non-restrictive interventions. These actions prioritize client safety through enhanced surveillance and early intervention, adhering directly to the standard of using the least restrictive alternative to prevent injury.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation.
The client is experiencing an acute onset of confusion (delirium) and restlessness, which creates an immediate risk for falls and traumatic injury.
Identifying the urgency of the safety hazard determines the necessary level of intervention.
2
Evaluate the proposed interventions against the principle of least restrictive alternatives.
Relocating the client and using a bed alarm are non-restrictive safety measures. Using four side rails is a physical restraint, and ignoring the symptom is clinically unsafe.
Ethical standards and healthcare regulations mandate that nurses exhaust all less restrictive environmental modifications before utilizing physical or chemical restraints.

Key Concept

Restraint Alternatives and Injury Prevention
Question 3449Question →

A nurse is assessing a client who experienced significant blood loss from a severe laceration. Which assessment findings should the nurse identify as early compensatory signs of hypovolemic shock? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Heart rate of 112 beats/minute; Restlessness and apprehension; Narrowing pulse pressure

Answer

The correct findings include a heart rate of 112 beats/minute, restlessness and apprehension, and a narrowing pulse pressure.
In the early (compensatory) stage of hypovolemic shock, the body activates the sympathetic nervous system to maintain blood pressure and cardiac output. This results in an increased heart rate (tachycardia) and peripheral vasoconstriction, which causes a narrowing pulse pressure. Additionally, subtle decreases in cerebral perfusion and oxygenation manifest early as restlessness, apprehension, or anxiety.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the type of shock and its primary cause.
The client has significant blood loss, leading to hypovolemic shock.
Understanding the underlying etiology helps predict the body's compensatory mechanisms.
2
Recall the early compensatory mechanisms for hypovolemia.
The sympathetic nervous system activates, causing tachycardia, peripheral vasoconstriction, and mild cerebral hypoxia.
These physiological changes manifest as specific, recognizable clinical signs.
3
Evaluate each option against known early signs of hypovolemic shock.
Tachycardia, restlessness, and a narrowing pulse pressure align with sympathetic activation and early decreased perfusion.
Differentiating early signs from normal findings or signs of other shock types ensures accurate assessment.

Key Concept

Early compensatory mechanisms in hypovolemic shock include sympathetic nervous system activation, leading to tachycardia, narrowing pulse pressure, peripheral vasoconstriction (cool skin), and altered mental status (restlessness).
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 3450Question →

A nurse is preparing to administer a scheduled bolus enteral feeding via a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube to a client who is receiving long-term nutritional support. Arrange the following nursing actions in the correct sequence.

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Answer

The correct sequence is to first elevate the head of the bed, then verify tube placement, check the gastric residual volume, flush the tube to ensure patency, and finally administer the feeding formula.
Safe enteral feeding administration follows a logical, safety-oriented progression. Elevating the head of the bed is the critical first step to protect the airway and prevent aspiration. Once the client is positioned safely, verifying placement ensures the tube is properly located in the stomach. Checking residual volume then assesses the client's physiological tolerance of the feeding. Flushing the tube ensures it is patent and clear. Finally, administering the formula is the last step, performed only after all safety parameters have been established.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Elevate the head of the client's bed to at least 30 to 45 degrees.
The client is placed in a safe position to prevent aspiration.
Airway protection is the absolute priority. Manipulating the tube or feeding a flat client significantly increases the risk of aspiration pneumonia.
2
Verify tube placement by checking the external bumper marking at the stoma site.
The nurse confirms the tube has not migrated.
Ensuring correct tube placement prevents the accidental administration of formula into the peritoneal cavity or respiratory tract.
3
Aspirate to check the gastric residual volume and return the contents to the stomach.
The nurse assesses gastric emptying and prevents electrolyte loss.
High residual volumes indicate delayed gastric emptying. Returning the aspirate prevents acid-base and electrolyte imbalances.
4
Flush the gastrostomy tube with 30 mL of water.
The tube is cleared and patency is confirmed.
Flushing prevents tube clogging and ensures the pathway is clear before introducing the viscous feeding formula.
5
Administer the prescribed bolus feeding formula by gravity.
The client receives the prescribed nutrition.
Formula is administered only after safety checks (positioning, placement, tolerance, and patency) have been completed.

Key Concept

Safe administration of enteral tube feedings requires a sequential approach prioritizing aspiration prevention, verifying placement, assessing gastrointestinal tolerance, and maintaining tube patency.
Question 3451Question →

An intensive care nurse is managing a client in profound cardiogenic shock complicated by severe metabolic acidosis. The client has a single-lumen central venous catheter currently dedicated to a continuous intravenous infusion of norepinephrine at 0.15 mcg/kg/min0.15 \text{ mcg/kg/min} to maintain a mean arterial pressure of 62 mm Hg62 \text{ mm Hg}. The healthcare provider gives a STAT prescription for 50 mEq50 \text{ mEq} of intravenous sodium bicarbonate. Which action represents the safest and most appropriate method for the nurse to administer this medication?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Establish a new peripheral intravenous access site to administer the prescribed medication independently.

Answer

Establish a new peripheral intravenous access site to administer the prescribed medication independently.
The correct action recognizes two critical physiological and pharmacological principles: first, norepinephrine is a life-sustaining continuous infusion that cannot be interrupted without causing rapid cardiovascular collapse; second, sodium bicarbonate is highly alkaline and will immediately deactivate catecholamines if they share the same intravenous pathway. Establishing a separate intravenous line is the only safe solution that addresses both constraints.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's hemodynamic status.
The client is in profound shock, dependent on continuous norepinephrine to maintain a borderline mean arterial pressure (62 mm Hg62 \text{ mm Hg}).
Understanding the client's extreme fragility confirms that the vasopressor infusion cannot be paused, even for a brief medication push and flush.
2
Evaluate the pharmacological compatibility of the prescribed medications.
Sodium bicarbonate is a highly alkaline solution, whereas norepinephrine is a catecholamine that requires an acidic environment to remain chemically stable.
Mixing these two medications will cause the alkaline bicarbonate to chemically inactivate the norepinephrine and may result in crystallization within the tubing.
3
Determine the physical constraints of the available intravenous access.
The client has a single-lumen central catheter, meaning any medication administered through its ports will directly mix with the continuous norepinephrine infusion before entering the bloodstream.
Since the single lumen cannot be safely shared (due to chemical incompatibility) and the primary infusion cannot be paused (due to shock), the existing line is entirely unavailable for the new medication.
4
Synthesize findings to select the safest nursing intervention.
A secondary intravenous access (such as a new peripheral line) must be established to administer the STAT sodium bicarbonate.
This is the only method that ensures the immediate delivery of the required alkalizing agent without jeopardizing the client's life-sustaining hemodynamic support.

Key Concept

Intravenous Compatibility and Vasopressor Management in Shock
Question 3452Question →

The charge nurse is reviewing bed assignments and infection control requirements for several newly admitted clients. Match each client's clinical presentation with the most appropriate isolation room assignment and required personal protective equipment (PPE).

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Client with a generalized maculopapular rash, high fever, and coryza, suspected of having rubeola.
Client with severe, spasmodic coughing episodes followed by a high-pitched inspiratory sound.
Client with profuse, foul-smelling diarrhea following a prolonged course of broad-spectrum antibiotics.
Client with an acute, highly contagious eruption of pruritic vesicular lesions on the face and trunk.

Matches

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Answer

Rubeola matches Airborne Precautions. Pertussis matches Droplet Precautions. C. difficile matches Contact (Enteric) Precautions. Varicella matches Airborne and Contact Precautions.
Each pathogen has specific transmission routes. Rubeola requires airborne precautions due to small droplet nuclei. Pertussis is spread through larger respiratory droplets requiring droplet precautions. Clostridioides difficile forms spores requiring contact precautions and specific handwashing with soap and water. Varicella is highly contagious via both air and direct contact, necessitating combined airborne and contact precautions.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the suspected pathogen or disease for each clinical presentation.
Left 1 is rubeola (measles); Left 2 is pertussis (whooping cough); Left 3 is Clostridioides difficile (C. diff); Left 4 is varicella (chickenpox).
Accurate recognition of the disease is required to determine the mode of transmission.
2
Determine the mode of transmission and corresponding precaution category for each identified disease.
Measles is airborne. Pertussis is droplet. C. diff is contact (spore-forming). Varicella is airborne and contact.
Transmission routes dictate the specific environmental controls and PPE needed to prevent healthcare-associated infections.
3
Match the precaution category to the specific room and PPE requirements listed on the right.
Measles requires a negative airflow room and N95. Pertussis requires a surgical mask. C. diff requires gown, gloves, and soap/water handwashing. Varicella requires negative airflow, N95, gown, and gloves.
Applying standard infection control guidelines ensures a safe healthcare environment for both staff and other clients.

Key Concept

Standard and Transmission-Based Precautions
Question 3453Question →

A 62-year-old client has a chest tube connected to a closed water-seal drainage system for the treatment of a right-sided spontaneous pneumothorax. Which assessment findings indicate a developing physiological complication or system malfunction that requires immediate intervention? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Tracheal deviation toward the left side of the neck; Continuous, vigorous bubbling in the water-seal chamber; Asymmetric chest expansion with absent breath sounds on the right side

Answer

The findings that require immediate intervention are tracheal deviation toward the left side, continuous vigorous bubbling in the water-seal chamber, and asymmetric chest expansion with absent breath sounds on the right side.
The correct choices represent acute physiological deterioration (tension pneumothorax, worsening lung collapse) or a system failure (continuous air leak). Immediate intervention is required to restore respiratory hemodynamics and ensure the patency of the closed drainage system.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's baseline condition
The client has a right-sided pneumothorax requiring closed-chest drainage to restore negative intrapleural pressure.
Establishing the baseline is necessary to differentiate expected therapeutic outcomes from pathological changes.
2
Evaluate respiratory and systemic assessment findings
Tracheal deviation to the left and absent breath sounds on the right are identified as signs of a tension pneumothorax.
These findings indicate dangerously high intrathoracic pressure compromising ventilation and venous return, requiring immediate life-saving intervention.
3
Assess the chest drainage system mechanics
Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber is identified as an abnormal finding.
While intermittent bubbling during exhalation is normal in a resolving pneumothorax, continuous bubbling indicates a persistent and pathological air leak in the system or pleural space.
4
Differentiate normal from abnormal findings
Tidaling, positioning the system below the chest, and minimal serous output are recognized as expected and correct.
Recognizing expected findings prevents unnecessary and potentially harmful interruptions to safe, standard care.

Key Concept

Chest Tube Complication Recognition and Risk Reduction
Question 3454Question →

A nurse is instructing a client with right-sided hemiparesis on how to safely ambulate using a single-point cane. Place the following steps of the ambulation sequence in the correct order. (Arrange the items from first to last.)

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Answer

The correct sequence for safe cane ambulation is: hold the cane in the strong hand, advance the cane, step forward with the weak leg, shift weight to the weak leg and cane, and finally step past the cane with the strong leg.
Safe ambulation with a cane requires the 'COAL' method (Cane Opposite Affected Leg). The client must hold the cane in the strong (left) hand. The sequence begins by advancing the cane to create a new, forward base of support. Next, the weak (right) leg is advanced to become even with the cane, ensuring the strong leg remains firmly planted for balance. Once the weak leg and cane are in position, the client shifts their weight onto them. This allows the strong (left) leg to safely step forward past the cane, completing the gait cycle.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the strong and weak sides based on the client's clinical presentation.
The right side is weak (hemiparesis), making the left side the strong (unaffected) side.
Assistive devices must be properly placed on the strong side to reduce stress on the affected joint or limb and maximize stability.
2
Determine the sequence of the initial forward movement.
The client must first advance the cane.
Advancing the cane establishes a forward base of support before any feet leave the ground.
3
Determine which leg must move first.
The weak (right) leg is advanced to align with the cane.
Moving the weak leg first allows the strong leg to remain firmly planted, providing maximum stability and balance during the vulnerable phase of the step.
4
Complete the gait cycle.
Weight is shifted to the weak leg and cane, allowing the strong (left) leg to advance past the cane.
The strong leg moves last so that it can smoothly propel the body forward while the cane and weak leg securely bear the shifted weight.

Key Concept

Assistive Device Ambulation (Cane Sequence)
Question 3455Question →

A registered nurse and an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) are preparing to transfer a client with left-sided hemiparesis from the bed to a bedside chair. The client is on contact precautions for a methicillin-resistant *Staphylococcus aureus* (MRSA) wound infection. Which action by the nurse best demonstrates adherence to safety and injury prevention protocols?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Securing a transfer belt around the client's waist and standing on the client's left side to provide physical support during the pivot.

Answer

The nurse should secure a transfer belt around the client's waist and stand on the client's left side to provide support during the transfer.
When transferring a client with hemiparesis, the nurse must stand on the client's weak or affected side (in this case, the left side) to provide adequate support and block the weak knee if it begins to buckle. Using a transfer belt ensures a secure grip, reducing the risk of a fall or musculoskeletal injury.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's physical deficits.
The client has left-sided hemiparesis, meaning the left side is weak and prone to buckling.
Identifying the side of weakness dictates where the nurse must stand to provide adequate physical bracing.
2
Evaluate the infection control requirements.
The client requires contact precautions, meaning a gown and gloves must be worn during all physical contact.
Adhering to transmission-based precautions prevents the spread of healthcare-associated pathogens.
3
Assess the delegation and restraint constraints.
Physical assessments cannot be delegated to a UAP, and restraints cannot be used for temporary staff convenience.
Following legal and ethical guidelines ensures client safety and rights are maintained.
4
Select the safest nursing action.
Using a transfer belt and standing on the affected (left) side provides maximum safety without violating protocols.
This intervention directly minimizes the risk of a fall or injury during mobility.

Key Concept

Safe Client Transfer and Environmental Safety Protocols
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 3456Question →

A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is caring for a client with a serum potassium level of 2.4 mEq/L2.4 \text{ mEq/L}. The healthcare provider prescribes an intravenous infusion of 40 mEq40 \text{ mEq} of potassium chloride in 100 mL100 \text{ mL} of 0.9% sodium chloride0.9\% \text{ sodium chloride} to be administered over 30 minutes30 \text{ minutes}. The client has a patent 20-gauge peripheral intravenous catheter. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Contact the healthcare provider to question the prescribed infusion rate.

Answer

Contact the healthcare provider to question the prescribed infusion rate.
The maximum safe administration rate for intravenous potassium chloride through a peripheral line is 10 mEq/hr10 \text{ mEq/hr} (or up to 20 mEq/hr20 \text{ mEq/hr} through a central line with continuous cardiac monitoring). The prescribed order of 40 mEq40 \text{ mEq} over 30 minutes30 \text{ minutes} equates to a rate of 80 mEq/hr80 \text{ mEq/hr}. This rate is highly toxic and can cause immediate, fatal cardiac arrhythmias such as ventricular fibrillation. The nurse must act as a client advocate by withholding the medication and contacting the healthcare provider to request a safe infusion rate and time.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the prescribed dosage and infusion time.
The prescription is for 40 mEq40 \text{ mEq} to be infused over 0.5 hours0.5 \text{ hours}.
Determining the hourly rate is required to evaluate administration safety.
2
Calculate the hourly infusion rate.
The rate is 40 mEq÷0.5 hours=80 mEq/hr40 \text{ mEq} \div 0.5 \text{ hours} = 80 \text{ mEq/hr}.
Standard safety guidelines for intravenous potassium are based on hourly maximums.
3
Compare the calculated rate to safe administration guidelines.
The maximum safe peripheral limit is 10 mEq/hr10 \text{ mEq/hr}. The prescribed rate of 80 mEq/hr80 \text{ mEq/hr} is severely unsafe.
Rapid infusion of potassium causes fatal cardiac arrhythmias.
4
Determine the priority nursing action.
The nurse must withhold the medication and contact the healthcare provider immediately.
Patient safety is the highest priority; the nurse must not execute a lethal medical order.

Key Concept

Safe administration of intravenous potassium chloride
Question 3457Question →

An older adult client is restricted to bed rest on the surgical unit following a lumbar spinal fusion. When addressing the client's basic care, comfort, and mobility needs, which interventions should the nurse implement? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Use a logrolling technique with the assistance of at least one other staff member when turning the client.; Place a supportive pillow between the client's knees when turning them to a lateral recumbent position.; Apply a protective moisture barrier ointment to the sacral and perineal skin during hygiene care.

Answer

The correct interventions are using a logrolling technique with assistance, placing a pillow between the knees when in a lateral position, and applying a moisture barrier ointment to protect the skin.
Following a lumbar spinal fusion, the client's spine must be kept in straight alignment to prevent injury to the surgical site. Logrolling with multiple staff members ensures the spine moves as a single unit without twisting. Placing a pillow between the knees in a lateral position prevents inward rotation of the hip and pulling on the lower spine, thereby promoting proper alignment and comfort. Finally, applying a moisture barrier during hygiene is a fundamental basic care measure to prevent skin breakdown in vulnerable clients who are restricted to bed.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's specific medical condition and activity restrictions.
The client has undergone a lumbar spinal fusion and requires interventions that maintain strict spinal alignment while on bed rest.
Preventing spinal twisting or acute flexion is critical to avoid surgical complications and promote healing.
2
Evaluate each intervention for safety, scope of practice, and physiological rationale.
Logrolling, using supportive pillows between the knees, and protecting skin integrity are safe basic care standards. Conversely, placing the client in high Fowler's, delegating clinical assessments, and ignoring sudden confusion are unsafe practices.
Nursing actions must maintain alignment, ensure proper RN oversight for clinical evaluation, and accurately recognize acute pathological changes versus normal aging.

Key Concept

Basic Care, Comfort, and Positioning for Post-Spinal Surgery
Question 3458Question →

A nurse is planning skin integrity and comfort measures for an intubated client with severe acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) who is undergoing therapeutic prone positioning. Which action is the most appropriate to include in the plan of care to protect the client's skin and promote safety?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Apply prophylactic foam or hydrocolloid dressings to the client's forehead, cheeks, and chin prior to placing the client in the prone position.

Answer

The most appropriate action is to apply prophylactic foam or hydrocolloid dressings to the face (forehead, cheeks, chin) prior to initiating the prone position to prevent pressure injuries.
Applying prophylactic barrier dressings to the face is a critical, evidence-based basic care intervention. It minimizes friction, manages microclimate, and redistributes the intense pressure placed on the facial bones, significantly reducing the risk of deep tissue injury during the 12 to 16 hours the client remains prone.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary basic care risks associated with prone positioning in intubated clients.
The client is at extreme risk for pressure injuries on the dependent surfaces, particularly the face, anterior shoulders, chest, and knees.
Therapeutic proning lasts for extended periods (typically 12-16 hours), placing intense, unyielding pressure on bony prominences that are not accustomed to weight-bearing.
2
Evaluate the proposed skin and safety interventions against evidence-based care guidelines.
Prophylactic dressings are recommended; continuous static head positioning causes necrosis; 45-degree elevation is anatomically impossible in prone; and airway manipulation cannot be delegated.
Ensures the selected nursing action effectively balances comfort and skin integrity with critical care airway security.

Key Concept

Pressure injury prevention and safe positioning protocols for clients in therapeutic prone positions.
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 3459Question →

A telemetry nurse is caring for a client who suddenly develops paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (SVT). The client's heart rate is 205 beats/min, and blood pressure is 114/72 mm Hg. The client is alert and reports feeling a "racing heart." The client has a double-lumen central venous catheter (CVC) in the right internal jugular vein. The proximal lumen is infusing continuous normal saline, and the distal lumen is capped. No peripheral intravenous access is available. The healthcare provider is at the bedside and verbally orders, "Administer adenosine 6 mg rapid IV push stat."

What is the most appropriate action by the nurse?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Clarify the prescription with the provider to reduce the adenosine dose to 3 mg due to the central venous administration route

Answer

The nurse must clarify the order with the provider to reduce the adenosine dose from 6 mg to 3 mg because the medication will be administered via a central venous catheter.
The correct answer identifies that the standard initial dose of adenosine (6 mg) must be reduced when given via a central line. Adenosine causes transient atrioventricular (AV) node block to terminate SVT and has a half-life of less than 10 seconds. The standard 6 mg dose is calculated for peripheral IV administration, factoring in natural degradation as the drug travels up the arm to the heart. When administered via a central venous catheter (CVC) that terminates in the superior vena cava, the drug reaches the cardiac tissue almost instantly and in a much higher concentration. According to resuscitation guidelines, the initial adenosine dose must be reduced by half (to 3 mg) for central administration to prevent profound, prolonged asystole or high-degree heart blocks. The nurse must act as a patient advocate and clarify this order with the provider.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the client's hemodynamic stability and presenting rhythm.
The client is in SVT but remains hemodynamically stable (alert, blood pressure 114/72 mm Hg), making pharmacological intervention appropriate over electrical cardioversion.
Differentiating between stable and unstable SVT dictates whether the client receives medications (adenosine) or immediate synchronized cardioversion.
2
Evaluate the prescribed medication dose against the available intravenous access route.
The provider ordered 6 mg of adenosine, which is the standard peripheral dose. However, the client only has a central venous catheter (CVC).
Medication pharmacokinetics, particularly for rapidly acting cardiac drugs, can change drastically based on the route of administration.
3
Determine the appropriate dosage adjustment for central line administration.
Resuscitation guidelines require reducing the initial adenosine dose to 3 mg when administered centrally.
Central administration bypasses peripheral degradation, delivering the medication to the heart instantly. A full 6 mg central dose drastically increases the risk of prolonged asystole.
4
Formulate the safest nursing action based on the findings.
The nurse must hold the medication and clarify the order with the provider to reduce the dose to 3 mg before administration.
Nurses must verify that all components of a medication prescription are safe and appropriate for the client's specific clinical situation, acting as the final safety checkpoint.

Key Concept

Pharmacokinetics of Adenosine via Central Venous Access
Question 3460Question →

A client is receiving an initial intravenous infusion of vancomycin for a severe soft tissue infection. Fifteen minutes after the infusion begins, the nurse observes that the client's face, neck, and upper chest are intensely red. The client reports feeling dizzy and severely itchy. Current vital signs reveal a blood pressure of 88/54 mmHg88/54 \text{ mmHg} and a heart rate of 118 beats/min118 \text{ beats/min}. What is the priority nursing action?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Stop the intravenous vancomycin infusion completely.

Answer

Stop the intravenous vancomycin infusion completely.
The client is experiencing a severe vancomycin infusion reaction (historically referred to as red man syndrome) complicated by hemodynamic instability. While mild cases involving only localized flushing and itching can often be managed by slowing the infusion rate, the presence of systemic hypotension (blood pressure 88/54 mmHg88/54 \text{ mmHg}) and dizziness indicates a severe reaction or potential anaphylactic shock. The absolute priority action is to immediately stop the infusion to prevent further release of histamine and worsening shock. Only after the infusion is stopped should the nurse assess the airway, notify the healthcare provider, and administer prescribed supportive therapies such as intravenous fluids and antihistamines.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the client's clinical presentation and vital signs during the medication administration.
The client exhibits intense erythema, severe pruritus, dizziness, hypotension (88/54 mmHg88/54 \text{ mmHg}), and tachycardia (118 beats/min118 \text{ beats/min}).
Identifying these systemic signs differentiates a mild vancomycin infusion reaction from a severe reaction with hemodynamic compromise.
2
Determine the priority intervention based on the severity of the reaction.
The nurse must immediately stop the infusion.
Hypotension and dizziness indicate compromised tissue perfusion. The offending agent must be discontinued before administering rescue medications or altering the client's position.

Key Concept

Management of severe vancomycin infusion reactions and anaphylaxis
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