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Question 3481Question →

A healthcare team is managing an immobile older adult client who has severe osteoarthritis and frequent urinary incontinence. Which nursing interventions should be incorporated into the plan of care to promote comfort and maintain physiological integrity? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Cleanse the skin promptly after any soiling using a pH-balanced, no-rinse body wash.; Employ a foam wedge to support the client in a 30-degree laterally inclined position.; Apply a zinc oxide-based moisture barrier cream to the perineum following incontinent episodes.

Answer

The correct interventions are cleansing the skin promptly with a pH-balanced product, using a foam wedge to maintain a 30-degree lateral tilt, and applying a moisture barrier cream to the perineal area.
Proper care for a bedbound and incontinent client focuses on meticulous skin hygiene and safe positioning. Cleansing with pH-balanced, no-rinse products prevents the stripping of natural skin oils, while applying moisture barrier creams shields the epidermis from the caustic effects of urine. Positioning the client in a 30-degree lateral tilt effectively redistributes body weight, avoiding excessive pressure on vulnerable bony prominences like the sacrum and greater trochanter.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's primary risk factors based on the clinical presentation.
The client is completely immobile and experiences frequent incontinence, placing them at severe risk for pressure injuries and incontinence-associated dermatitis.
Identifying the highest risks directs the selection of appropriate preventive nursing interventions.
2
Evaluate the proposed skin care and hygiene interventions.
Using pH-balanced cleansers and barrier creams protects the skin's integrity, while delegating clinical assessment to a UAP is unsafe and violates scope of practice.
Proper topical care prevents skin breakdown, but the RN must perform the actual evaluation of the skin.
3
Evaluate the proposed positioning and systemic care interventions.
A 30-degree lateral tilt safely relieves pressure. Placing a roll under the knees causes venous stasis and is contraindicated. Furthermore, assuming sudden confusion is normal ignores potential acute complications like a urinary tract infection.
Nursing interventions must be evidence-based to prevent harm such as deep vein thrombosis or delayed treatment of infections.

Key Concept

Basic Care and Comfort: Immobility and Skin Integrity
Question 3482Question →

A nurse is caring for a client who is 66 hours post-total thyroidectomy. The client becomes increasingly restless and reports a "tight" sensation around the anterior neck. The nurse observes the client swallowing frequently and hears a harsh, high-pitched inspiratory sound. A recent arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis reveals a pH of 7.317.31, PaCO2PaCO_2 of 52 mm Hg52 \text{ mm Hg}, PaO2PaO_2 of 88 mm Hg88 \text{ mm Hg}, and HCO3−HCO_3^- of 24 mEq/L24 \text{ mEq/L}. Which priority action should the nurse take to reduce the client's risk of an adverse outcome?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Elevate the head of the bed and immediately ensure the availability of an emergency tracheostomy tray.

Answer

The nurse should elevate the head of the bed to decrease tissue edema and immediately prepare an emergency tracheostomy tray to manage the impending mechanical airway obstruction.
The client is displaying classic signs of a rapidly expanding cervical hematoma (frequent swallowing, feeling of tightness, stridor). The ABG confirms respiratory acidosis due to mechanical airway obstruction. The immediate priority is to reduce venous pressure by elevating the head of the bed and to prepare for an emergency surgical airway.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the clinical presentation (frequent swallowing, neck tightness, stridor).
Identifies signs of an expanding cervical hematoma and acute upper airway obstruction.
Post-thyroidectomy clients are at high risk for hemorrhage, which can rapidly compress the trachea.
2
Interpret the Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) values.
pH is 7.31 (acidosis) and PaCO2 is 52 mm Hg (respiratory cause), indicating uncompensated respiratory acidosis.
Confirms that the client is retaining CO2 due to mechanical hypoventilation, ruling out hyperventilation or alkalosis.
3
Determine the highest priority intervention to reduce physiological risk.
Selects elevating the head of the bed and securing emergency airway equipment.
Airway compromise is the most immediate threat to life; proper positioning and equipment readiness mitigate this critical risk.

Key Concept

Recognizing and mitigating acute airway obstruction secondary to cervical hematoma post-thyroidectomy.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 3483Question →

During interdisciplinary rounds, the nursing team discusses interventions for a client newly fitted with a halo vest apparatus for a stable cervical fracture. Which specific actions should be incorporated into the client's daily regimen? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Clean the skin underneath the vest using a clean, damp cloth without soap or lotion.; Serve meals with solid foods cut into small, bite-sized pieces and provide a long straw.; Place a small, flat pillow under the client's head to decrease pressure when resting supine.

Answer

The correct actions include cleaning the skin under the vest with a damp cloth, cutting food into bite-sized pieces with a straw provided, and placing a small pillow under the head when supine.
The correct interventions address the unique hygiene, nutritional, and comfort needs of a client with a cervical immobilization device. Cleaning the skin with a damp cloth prevents chemical irritation from soaps and lotions building up underneath the vest. Serving pre-cut food and providing a straw compensates for the client's inability to flex their neck, reducing the risk of aspiration and promoting adequate intake. Placing a small, flat pillow under the head when supine prevents the posterior vest from pushing the head forward, ensuring comfort and neutral alignment.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's condition and the physiological constraints of a halo fixator device.
The device immobilizes the cervical spine, alters the client's center of gravity, restricts neck flexion, and permanently covers the torso.
Understanding the physical limitations imposed by the device dictates the necessary modifications for basic care, hygiene, and nutrition.
2
Evaluate the proposed hygiene and nutritional interventions.
Using only a damp cloth under the vest prevents skin breakdown from chemical buildup. Pre-cut food and long straws accommodate the client's inability to look down while eating.
Basic care must adapt to the physical limitations and maintain tissue integrity without compromising safety.
3
Review the options involving positioning, delegation, and safety restraints.
A small pillow safely supports the head. However, pulling on struts compromises the device's stability, assessing pin sites is strictly an RN responsibility, and routine restraints violate standard safety protocols.
Nurses must differentiate between standard supportive care and contraindicated actions that jeopardize the client or violate the scope of practice.

Key Concept

Nursing Management of Halo Fixation Devices
Question 3484Question →

During a severe winter blizzard, a regional medical center loses primary utility power and transitions to its backup generators. The charge nurse on a respiratory step-down unit is managing the immediate aftermath of this power failure. Which actions are appropriate for the nurse to implement? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Identify clients who are strictly dependent on continuous life-support equipment.; Verify that all critical life-saving devices are connected to designated red emergency power receptacles.; Ensure manual resuscitation bags are readily available at the bedside for clients on mechanical ventilation.

Answer

The appropriate actions during a facility power failure include identifying clients dependent on life support, verifying that critical equipment is plugged into red emergency outlets, and ensuring manual resuscitation bags are available at the bedside for ventilated clients.
During a utility power outage, the primary focus is maintaining life-sustaining treatments. Identifying clients on life support allows the nurse to prioritize those at highest risk. Verifying that life-saving devices are connected to red emergency outlets ensures these machines draw power from the hospital's backup generators. Furthermore, providing manual resuscitation bags (Ambu bags) at the bedside ensures a manual backup method is instantly accessible if the generator fails or equipment malfunctions.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the immediate threat and secure life-sustaining equipment.
Identify clients on continuous life support and ensure their devices are powered.
Clients dependent on ventilators or continuous infusions are at the highest risk for sudden deterioration when power is lost.
2
Connect essential medical devices to the hospital's backup power grid.
Critical equipment is plugged into the red emergency power receptacles.
Red outlets are specifically wired to the facility's backup generators to provide uninterrupted power during primary utility failures.
3
Prepare manual fail-safes for critical clients.
Manual resuscitation bags are placed at the bedside of ventilated clients.
In the event that the backup generators also fail or take time to start, nurses must be able to manually ventilate dependent clients immediately.
4
Maintain standard nursing protocols and client safety measures.
The nurse continues to perform primary assessments and enforces isolation precautions, rather than inappropriately delegating tasks or evacuating.
An emergency does not negate the need for infection control or proper delegation; sheltering in place is safer than moving clients unless the physical environment is hazardous.

Key Concept

Internal Emergency Response: Utility Failure
Question 3485Question →

A 42-year-old client is admitted to the trauma unit following a motor vehicle collision. The client is diagnosed with a basilar skull fracture and has clear fluid leaking from the right ear. The client is lethargic but arousable, reporting a severe, throbbing headache. The nurse reviews the client's arterial blood gas (ABG) results obtained on room air:

MeasurementResult
pH7.31
PaCO₂52 mm Hg
HCO₃⁻25 mEq/L
PaO₂78 mm Hg

To reduce the risk of life-threatening physiological decompensation, which of the following is the priority nursing action?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees and ensure the client's neck is in a neutral, midline position.

Answer

Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees and ensure the client's neck is in a neutral, midline position.
The client's ABG results indicate uncompensated respiratory acidosis with significant hypercapnia (PaCO₂ 52 mm Hg). Elevated carbon dioxide is a potent cerebral vasodilator that increases cerebral blood flow and intracranial pressure (ICP). In a client with a head injury, such as a basilar skull fracture with a cerebrospinal fluid leak, this hypercapnia greatly increases the risk of brain herniation. Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees and maintaining the neck in a neutral, midline position promotes jugular venous drainage, which is the priority, evidence-based action to mechanically reduce ICP and prevent physiological decompensation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the arterial blood gas (ABG) results.
The ABG reveals uncompensated respiratory acidosis (pH 7.31, PaCO₂ 52 mm Hg, normal HCO₃⁻).
Identifying the acid-base imbalance is necessary to anticipate physiological complications.
2
Relate the physiological effects of hypercapnia to the client's primary trauma diagnosis.
Elevated carbon dioxide levels cause potent cerebral vasodilation, which increases cerebral blood flow and raises intracranial pressure (ICP) in a rigid skull.
Understanding the systemic effects of the ABG values dictates which interventions are safe or dangerous.
3
Evaluate the clinical implications of the basilar skull fracture and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak.
The client is at high risk for both significantly increased ICP and central nervous system infection.
Neurotrauma requires specific positioning and handling of drainage to prevent herniation and meningitis.
4
Determine the priority non-pharmacological nursing action.
Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees and keeping the neck in a neutral position promotes optimal jugular venous outflow.
This mechanically reduces ICP without introducing respiratory depression or blocking CSF pathways.

Key Concept

Management of increased intracranial pressure in the setting of acute hypercapnia and basilar skull fracture.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 3486Question →

An adult client with a history of epilepsy is admitted to the medical unit and has a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of 5%5\% dextrose in water (D5W) infusing at 100 mL/hr100 \text{ mL/hr} through a peripheral catheter. The healthcare provider prescribes a 1,000 mg1,000 \text{ mg} loading dose of IV phenytoin to be administered promptly. The client has no other vascular access. Which action is most appropriate for the nurse to take?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Pause the D5W infusion, flush the catheter with 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride, administer the phenytoin, and flush the catheter again with 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride.

Answer

The nurse must pause the D5W infusion, flush the line with 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride, administer the phenytoin, and flush the line again with 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride.
The option describing flushing with 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride before and after administration is correct because phenytoin is strictly incompatible with dextrose-containing solutions like D5W. Flushing clears the tubing of the incompatible fluid, allowing safe administration without precipitation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the compatibility of the prescribed medication (phenytoin) with the current continuous infusion (5%5\% dextrose in water).
Phenytoin is recognized as incompatible with dextrose-containing solutions.
Administering incompatible medications can cause precipitation, which blocks the IV catheter or causes a potentially fatal embolus.
2
Determine the correct diluent and flush solution for phenytoin.
0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride (normal saline) is identified as the only compatible solution.
Normal saline maintains the stability of phenytoin in solution and prevents crystallization.
3
Plan the safe administration sequence for a single IV line.
The sequence must be: pause primary fluid, flush with normal saline, administer medication, flush with normal saline, and restart primary fluid.
This sequence ensures the incompatible medication and continuous fluid never mix in the IV tubing.

Key Concept

Phenytoin is incompatible with dextrose solutions and must be administered using 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride to prevent precipitation.
Question 3487Question →

A critical care nurse evaluates a client who has been receiving high-dose continuous intravenous furosemide for three days to manage acute decompensated heart failure. The client now exhibits profound muscle weakness, depressed deep tendon reflexes, and shallow respirations at a rate of 9 breaths per minute. A continuous electrocardiogram displays flattened T waves and newly developed prominent U waves. Based on this clinical deterioration, which arterial blood gas (ABG) result should the nurse anticipate?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: pH 7.53, PaCO2 56 mm Hg, HCO3 38 mEq/L

Answer

pH 7.53, PaCO2 56 mm Hg, HCO3 38 mEq/L
Continuous high-dose furosemide therapy promotes significant renal excretion of potassium, hydrogen, and chloride ions, resulting in profound hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis. The clinical findings of severe muscle weakness, flattened T waves, and prominent U waves confirm hypokalemia. To compensate for the primary metabolic alkalosis, the respiratory center decreases the breathing rate to retain carbon dioxide, which acts as an acid to lower the pH toward normal. This compensatory hypoventilation is evidenced by the respiratory rate of 9 breaths per minute. Therefore, the anticipated ABG must demonstrate a primary metabolic alkalosis (elevated pH, elevated HCO3) with compensatory carbon dioxide retention (elevated PaCO2).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary pathophysiological consequence of the current pharmacological therapy.
High-dose loop diuretics (furosemide) cause massive renal excretion of potassium, hydrogen, and chloride ions, leading to severe hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis.
Understanding the mechanism of action of the medication is required to predict the resulting acid-base imbalance.
2
Correlate physical assessment and diagnostic findings with the suspected imbalance.
Muscle weakness, depressed reflexes, flattened T waves, and prominent U waves clinically confirm severe hypokalemia.
Clinical manifestations validate the predicted physiological changes, ensuring accurate clinical judgment.
3
Analyze the body's compensatory response to the primary acid-base disorder.
The body compensates for primary metabolic alkalosis by decreasing the respiratory rate (hypoventilation, 9 breaths/min) to retain carbon dioxide, which acts as an acid.
Recognizing compensatory mechanisms is crucial for distinguishing between primary and secondary ABG abnormalities.
4
Select the ABG that reflects the combined primary disorder and compensatory response.
The anticipated ABG must show an elevated pH and elevated HCO3 (metabolic alkalosis) with an elevated PaCO2 (compensatory respiratory acidosis).
This specific combination perfectly aligns with the client's current clinical deterioration.

Key Concept

Compensatory Mechanisms in Acid-Base Imbalances
Question 3488Question →

An individual with an acute exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis is admitted to the medical-surgical unit. During morning rounds, the client reports significant joint stiffness and bilateral hand pain that makes moving difficult. Which nursing action is most appropriate to promote comfort and facilitate the client's activities of daily living?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Coordinate with the client to schedule a warm shower immediately upon awakening before assisting with other tasks.

Answer

Coordinate with the client to schedule a warm shower immediately upon awakening before assisting with other tasks.
Coordinating a warm shower immediately upon awakening is the most effective intervention because moist heat decreases muscle tension, alleviates joint stiffness, and provides non-pharmacologic pain relief. This directly facilitates the client's ability to participate in activities of daily living.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the client's underlying pathology and primary symptom.
The client is experiencing an acute exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis, characterized by severe morning joint stiffness and pain.
Understanding the specific disease process is essential for selecting safe and effective non-pharmacologic comfort measures.
2
Determine the most appropriate evidence-based intervention for morning stiffness.
The application of moist heat, such as a warm shower or bath, is identified as the optimal intervention.
Heat therapy increases blood flow, relaxes muscle spasms, and significantly reduces joint stiffness associated with rheumatoid arthritis.
3
Evaluate the safety and appropriateness of the remaining options.
The other options pose safety risks, such as contractures from improper positioning, inappropriate delegation, or inaccurate disease education.
Providing basic care and comfort requires prioritizing interventions that avoid exacerbating the client's condition or causing further injury.

Key Concept

Basic Care and Comfort: Non-pharmacologic Pain Management and Positioning
Question 3489Question →

A client presents to the emergency department experiencing an acute panic attack with a respiratory rate of 38 breaths per minute. The client reports lightheadedness and tingling in the extremities. Arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis reveals a pH of 7.52, a PaCO2 of 26 mm Hg, and an HCO3- of 24 mEq/L. Based on these findings, which acid-base imbalance is occurring?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Uncompensated respiratory alkalosis

Answer

The client is experiencing uncompensated respiratory alkalosis.
The client is hyperventilating due to a panic attack, leading to excessive exhalation of carbon dioxide. The arterial blood gas results confirm this: the elevated pH (7.52) defines alkalosis, and the decreased PaCO2 (26 mm Hg) identifies the respiratory system as the cause. Because the bicarbonate (HCO3-) remains within the normal range of 22-26 mEq/L, the kidneys have not yet begun to compensate for the imbalance, making it uncompensated.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the pH to determine the primary acid-base state.
The pH is 7.52.
Normal pH is 7.35 to 7.45. A pH of 7.52 is elevated, indicating an alkalotic state.
2
Evaluate the PaCO2 to determine if there is a respiratory component.
The PaCO2 is 26 mm Hg.
Normal PaCO2 is 35 to 45 mm Hg. A value of 26 mm Hg is low (hypocapnia). Because CO2 acts as an acid, a low PaCO2 causes alkalosis, which matches the pH.
3
Evaluate the HCO3- to determine metabolic involvement or compensation.
The HCO3- is 24 mEq/L.
Normal HCO3- is 22 to 26 mEq/L. A value of 24 mEq/L is normal, indicating no primary metabolic issue and no renal compensation occurring yet.
4
Combine the findings to classify the imbalance.
Uncompensated respiratory alkalosis.
The matching pH and PaCO2 define the primary respiratory alkalosis, and the normal HCO3- confirms it is uncompensated.

Key Concept

Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) Interpretation
Question 3490Question →

A client who sustained a C4 spinal cord injury in a motor vehicle collision earlier today is admitted to the trauma intensive care unit. The nurse suspects the development of a distributive shock state related to the loss of sympathetic vascular tone. Which assessment findings validate this clinical deterioration? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Apical pulse of 42 beats/min; Blood pressure of 82/40 mm Hg; Core body temperature of 35.2°C (95.4°F)

Answer

The clinical findings that validate the development of neurogenic shock are an apical pulse of 42 beats/min, a blood pressure of 82/40 mm Hg, and a core body temperature of 35.2°C (95.4°F).
Neurogenic shock occurs as a result of a disruption in the descending sympathetic pathways in the spinal cord, most commonly from injuries above the T6 level. The loss of sympathetic tone causes massive peripheral vasodilation (resulting in severe hypotension), leaves the parasympathetic nervous system unchecked (resulting in profound bradycardia), and impairs the body's ability to regulate core temperature (resulting in heat loss and hypothermia). Identifying this specific triad of symptoms is critical for adapting fluid and vasopressor therapies appropriately.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's injury and the suspected condition.
The client has a high cervical (C4) spinal cord injury and is suspected of having neurogenic shock.
Injuries above T6 carry a high risk of disrupting the sympathetic nervous system pathways, precipitating neurogenic shock.
2
Recall the pathophysiology of neurogenic shock.
It involves a loss of sympathetic vasomotor tone, leading to massive vasodilation, unopposed parasympathetic influence, and impaired thermoregulation.
Understanding the underlying mechanism distinguishes this distributive shock from hypovolemic or cardiogenic shock.
3
Evaluate each assessment finding against the pathophysiology.
Hypotension and bradycardia directly result from vasodilation and unopposed vagal tone. Hypothermia occurs due to vasodilation and heat loss.
Matching symptoms to the pathophysiological mechanism confirms the correct clinical indicators while ruling out compensatory responses seen in other shock states.

Key Concept

Neurogenic shock is a hemodynamic syndrome characterized by hypotension, bradycardia, and hypothermia, resulting from the loss of sympathetic nervous system tone following a high spinal cord injury.
Question 3491Question →

A night shift nurse evaluates an older adult client who is unable to sleep due to severe, burning discomfort in both feet. The client has a documented medical history of advanced peripheral arterial disease (PAD). Which nursing intervention provides the safest and most effective comfort measure for this condition?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Assist the client to sit on the edge of the mattress and allow their legs to hang downward.

Answer

Assist the client to sit on the edge of the mattress and allow their legs to hang downward.
In advanced peripheral arterial disease (PAD), severe narrowing of the arteries restricts oxygenated blood from reaching the distal extremities, leading to ischemic rest pain that often worsens at night when the client is supine. Placing the client in a dependent position (such as dangling the legs over the edge of the bed) leverages gravity to assist arterial perfusion, thereby increasing oxygen delivery to the tissues and effectively relieving the discomfort.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's symptoms and medical history.
The client is experiencing severe, burning foot pain at night, combined with a history of advanced PAD.
Identifying the etiology of the pain (ischemic rest pain) is required before implementing a comfort measure.
2
Determine the pathophysiological principle of PAD.
Arterial narrowing restricts oxygenated blood flow to the distal extremities.
Understanding the compromised blood flow guides the nurse to select interventions that enhance arterial perfusion.
3
Evaluate the positioning options based on gravitational effects on blood flow.
Dependent positioning (dangling) utilizes gravity to pull blood down to the feet, improving perfusion and relieving ischemic pain.
This directly counters the arterial insufficiency, providing immediate non-pharmacologic comfort.

Key Concept

Dependent positioning for Peripheral Arterial Disease (PAD)
Question 3492Question →

A nurse is performing a tubing change on a client's central venous catheter. The tubing accidentally disconnects, and the client suddenly develops severe dyspnea, tachycardia, and a feeling of impending doom. Suspecting an air embolism, arrange the following nursing interventions in the order they should be performed to minimize client risk. All options must be used.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct sequence is to first clamp the catheter, then position the client in the left lateral Trendelenburg position, administer oxygen, notify emergency personnel, and finally assess vital signs.
When an air embolism is suspected during central line care, prioritizing actions correctly is critical to reduce risk potential. The absolute first priority is to clamp the catheter to stop the source of the air. Next, the nurse must place the client in a left lateral Trendelenburg position (Durant's maneuver) to trap the air in the right ventricle apex. After positioning, 100% oxygen is applied to treat hypoxia and shrink the air bubble by washing out nitrogen. Once these immediate, life-saving actions are complete, the nurse activates the rapid response team. Finally, continuous monitoring and obtaining vital signs are performed while waiting for the team to arrive.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Stop the source of the embolism.
The central venous catheter is clamped.
Prevents further air entrainment into the venous system, halting the progression of the complication.
2
Reposition the client to trap the air.
The client is placed in the left lateral Trendelenburg position.
This maneuver uses gravity to keep the air embolism in the right side of the heart, reducing the risk of a fatal pulmonary occlusion.
3
Address the resulting hypoxia.
100% oxygen is administered via a non-rebreather mask.
Treats systemic hypoxemia and accelerates the washout of nitrogen, effectively shrinking the air embolus.
4
Summon advanced medical help.
The rapid response team is activated.
The client requires immediate medical evaluation and potentially advanced hemodynamic support or interventions.
5
Monitor the client's physiological status.
A complete set of vital signs is obtained.
Provides essential baseline data on hemodynamic stability to guide further medical treatment once the rapid response team arrives.

Key Concept

Emergency management of a central venous air embolism requires immediate mechanical intervention (clamping and positioning) prior to oxygenation, notification, or assessment.
Question 3493Question →

A critical care registered nurse evaluates a client 44 hours post-endovascular aneurysm repair (EVAR) of an abdominal aortic aneurysm via bilateral femoral artery access. The client has a documented history of severe emphysema. Which clinical findings or observations demand immediate intervention to mitigate physiological deterioration? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Progressive, severe lumbar back pain that remains unrelieved by prescribed intravenous analgesia.; A consecutive two-hour urine output totaling 30 mL30\text{ mL}.; Sudden onset of unilateral mottling with absent Doppler pedal pulses in the left lower extremity.

Answer

The findings requiring immediate intervention are the progressive lumbar back pain, the two-hour urine output of 30 mL, and the unilateral mottling with absent pedal pulses.
The correct findings directly indicate impending life-threatening physiological decompensation. Progressive lumbar back pain is the hallmark sign of an endoleak or retroperitoneal hemorrhage. An oliguric urine output of 30 mL30\text{ mL} over two hours (15 mL/hr15\text{ mL/hr}) suggests acute kidney injury secondary to contrast nephropathy or graft migration occluding the renal arteries. Finally, absent pedal pulses with unilateral mottling signify acute limb ischemia caused by arterial thrombosis or a distal embolus from the procedure.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the procedure-specific risks associated with an endovascular aneurysm repair (EVAR).
Identify potential life-threatening complications such as endoleak, retroperitoneal hemorrhage, graft migration affecting renal arteries, and distal arterial embolization.
Recognizing specific postoperative risks allows the nurse to prioritize subtle cues of physiological decompensation.
2
Evaluate the client's comorbid conditions and their impact on baseline diagnostic data.
Determine that the elevated carbon dioxide and bicarbonate with a normal pH is a chronic, compensated state for a client with emphysema.
Differentiating between acute respiratory failure and chronic compensation prevents inappropriate and potentially harmful interventions.
3
Review general postoperative and physical assessment standards of care.
Confirm that supine positioning with minimal bed elevation is required for femoral access recovery, and auscultating before palpating is the standard abdominal assessment sequence.
Preventing iatrogenic complications requires strict adherence to evidence-based practice and positioning protocols.

Key Concept

Early Recognition of Postoperative EVAR Complications and Distinguishing Baseline Pathologies
Question 3494Question →

A nurse is evaluating a client 12 hours after admission for full-thickness burns over 40% of the total body surface area. Which assessment findings indicate that the client is experiencing inadequate physiological adaptation and early hypovolemic (burn) shock? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Urine output averaging 15 mL/hr over the past two hours; Unexplained restlessness and progressive agitation; Narrowing of the arterial pulse pressure

Answer

The findings indicating early shock are a urine output of 15 mL/hr, unexplained restlessness and agitation, and a narrowing of the arterial pulse pressure.
In the emergent phase of a major burn, massive capillary leak leads to intravascular volume depletion. The correct findings represent early inadequate adaptation: urine output <30 mL/hr indicates poor renal perfusion; restlessness is an early sign of cerebral hypoxia; and a narrowing pulse pressure is a classic sympathetic compensatory response to decreased stroke volume.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the clinical scenario
The client has massive burns (40% TBSA) in the emergent phase, placing them at extremely high risk for profound fluid shifts and hypovolemic (burn) shock.
Understanding the pathophysiology of the emergent burn phase directs the assessment toward recognizing signs of hypoperfusion.
2
Evaluate each option against the signs of compensatory shock
Identify findings that demonstrate decreased organ perfusion (oliguria, altered mentation) and sympathetic nervous system compensation (narrowing pulse pressure).
Early shock is characterized by compensatory mechanisms attempting to maintain core circulation at the expense of peripheral and renal perfusion.
3
Differentiate actual signs of shock from expected physiological responses to major trauma
Rule out respiratory alkalosis (expected from pain), bounding pulses (opposite of hypovolemia), and low-grade fever (expected inflammatory response).
Nurses must prioritize life-threatening decompensation over expected stress responses.

Key Concept

Early recognition of hypovolemic (burn) shock involves identifying subtle signs of hypoperfusion (oliguria, altered mental status) and compensatory mechanisms (narrowing pulse pressure), rather than solely relying on absolute hypotension.
Question 3495Question →

A client with severe gastroenteritis and dehydration is being monitored in the emergency department. Assessment reveals a heart rate of 122 beats per minute, a blood pressure of 96/78 mm Hg, and a respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute. An arterial blood gas (ABG) sample shows a pH of 7.31, PaCO2 of 30 mm Hg, and HCO3 of 16 mEq/L. Which of the following nursing actions is the priority?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Increase the rate of the prescribed intravenous isotonic fluid infusion.

Answer

The priority action is to increase the rate of the prescribed intravenous isotonic fluid infusion to restore intravascular volume.
The client is exhibiting clear signs of hypovolemic shock, including tachycardia, a significantly narrowed pulse pressure, and hypotension. The arterial blood gas indicates a metabolic acidosis, likely due to lactic acid accumulation from inadequate tissue perfusion. The respiratory rate of 28 is a necessary compensatory mechanism (respiratory alkalosis) to balance the acidic pH. The priority intervention is to restore intravascular volume and tissue perfusion by administering isotonic intravenous fluids.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's vital signs and hemodynamic status.
The heart rate of 122 bpm and a narrow pulse pressure (96/78 mm Hg = 18 mm Hg difference) strongly indicate early hypovolemic shock and compensatory vasoconstriction.
Identifying the primary physiological instability is the first step in clinical prioritization.
2
Interpret the arterial blood gas (ABG) results in the context of the clinical presentation.
The ABG reveals partially compensated metabolic acidosis (low pH, low HCO3, and compensatory low PaCO2). The increased respiratory rate (28 breaths/min) is the body's attempt to compensate by blowing off acid (CO2).
Understanding the acid-base balance helps determine if the respiratory symptoms are primary or secondary to a metabolic issue.
3
Determine the priority nursing intervention based on the root cause.
The metabolic acidosis is a result of lactic acid accumulation from poor tissue perfusion (hypovolemic shock). The priority is to restore circulating volume with intravenous fluids.
Treating the underlying cause of shock takes precedence over treating secondary symptoms or compensatory mechanisms.

Key Concept

Hypovolemic Shock and Compensatory Mechanisms
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 3496Question →

A surgical client is transferred to the progressive care unit following a major open abdominal surgery performed earlier in the day. Upon arrival, the client's baseline blood pressure was 132/76 mm Hg with a resting heart rate of 72 bpm. During the mid-shift evaluation, the nurse observes several new findings. Which of the following requires the most urgent clinical intervention?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The client's blood pressure is now 110/86 mm Hg with a continuous heart rate of 112 bpm.

Answer

The vital signs showing a blood pressure of 110/86 mm Hg and a heart rate of 112 bpm indicate impending shock and require the most urgent intervention.
The correct answer identifies a client exhibiting a significantly narrowed pulse pressure (from a baseline of 56 mm Hg down to 24 mm Hg) accompanied by new-onset tachycardia. Following a major open abdominal surgery, these vital sign changes are classic early compensatory mechanisms for hypovolemic or hemorrhagic shock due to internal bleeding. The body attempts to maintain cardiac output through an increased heart rate, while peripheral vasoconstriction raises the diastolic blood pressure, causing the pulse pressure to narrow. This circulatory emergency requires immediate provider notification and rapid intervention, such as fluid resuscitation, to prevent hemodynamic collapse.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's vital sign trends by comparing current measurements to the admission baseline.
The heart rate has increased from 72 bpm to 112 bpm, and the pulse pressure has narrowed significantly from 56 mm Hg (132 - 76) to 24 mm Hg (110 - 86).
Identifying subtle, progressive changes in vital signs is essential for the early detection of physiological decompensation.
2
Interpret the clinical significance of the vital sign changes in the context of recent major abdominal surgery.
A narrowing pulse pressure combined with tachycardia is a classic presentation of early compensatory hemorrhagic or hypovolemic shock.
As blood volume drops due to internal bleeding, the body attempts to maintain perfusion by increasing the heart rate and causing peripheral vasoconstriction, which elevates the diastolic pressure and narrows the pulse pressure.
3
Prioritize the assessment findings using the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) framework to determine the most urgent need.
The signs of impending circulatory collapse (Circulation) mandate immediate intervention over positioning errors, severe pain, or infection control breaches.
Unrecognized and untreated hemorrhagic shock will rapidly progress to tissue ischemia, organ failure, and death.

Key Concept

Early Recognition of Postoperative Hemorrhagic Shock
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 3497Question →

Upon reviewing morning laboratory results, the registered nurse notes a client's potassium level is 2.62.6 mEq/L. The healthcare provider has ordered 4040 mEq of intravenous potassium chloride. Which method represents the correct administration technique for this high-alert medication?

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Answer: Ensuring the medication is diluted in a compatible solution and delivered via an electronic pump at a maximum rate of 1010 mEq per hour.

Answer

Ensuring the medication is diluted in a compatible solution and delivered via an electronic pump at a maximum rate of 1010 mEq per hour.
Intravenous potassium chloride is a high-alert medication that must always be diluted and administered via an electronic infusion pump to prevent fatal cardiac dysrhythmias. For a peripheral intravenous line, the maximum safe infusion rate is 1010 mEq per hour. This standard ensures the medication is delivered slowly enough to prevent severe irritation to the vein and avoids sudden spikes in serum potassium that could precipitate cardiac arrest.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the ordered medication and its specific administration risks.
Potassium chloride is identified as a high-alert medication capable of causing fatal cardiac dysrhythmias if administered incorrectly.
Recognizing the danger of the drug guides the selection of strict administration protocols.
2
Evaluate the proposed rates and routes in the available choices.
Intravenous push and rates exceeding 1010 mEq per hour for a peripheral line are recognized as lethal or unsafe practices.
Standard safety guidelines dictate a maximum peripheral infusion rate of 1010 mEq per hour to protect the heart and veins.
3
Assess the preparation method for the medication.
Adding medication to an already infusing bag is rejected as an unsafe admixture practice.
Uneven distribution of potassium in a hanging bag can result in an unexpected bolus delivery.

Key Concept

Safe Administration of Intravenous Potassium
Question 3498Question →

A nurse is assessing a client admitted with a severe kidney infection and suspected urosepsis. The client is restless but oriented. Current vital signs are: blood pressure 112/64112/64 mm Hg, heart rate 118118 beats/min with bounding pulses, respiratory rate 2828 breaths/min, and temperature 39.2∘39.2^\circ C (102.6∘102.6^\circ F). The client's skin is warm and flushed. Based on this physiological presentation, which of the following arterial blood gas (ABG) results should the nurse anticipate?

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Answer: pH 7.487.48, PaCO2\text{PaCO}_2 3030 mm Hg, HCO3−\text{HCO}_3^- 2323 mEq/L

Answer

pH 7.48, PaCO2 30 mm Hg, HCO3- 23 mEq/L
The correct result shows uncompensated respiratory alkalosis. In the early (hyperdynamic) phase of septic shock, inflammatory mediators and circulating endotoxins directly stimulate the respiratory center, leading to tachypnea (hyperventilation). This causes the client to exhale excessive amounts of carbon dioxide, decreasing the partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide (PaCO2) and increasing the pH. Because this is an acute physiological change, the kidneys have not yet had the 24 to 48 hours required to compensate, leaving the bicarbonate (HCO3-) level within the normal range.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation to determine the specific phase of sepsis.
Warm flushed skin, bounding pulses, a normal blood pressure, and high fever indicate the early (hyperdynamic or 'warm') phase of septic shock.
In early sepsis, massive vasodilation occurs, but cardiac output increases compensatorily, maintaining blood pressure and producing warm skin.
2
Identify the primary physiological adaptation affecting the respiratory system.
The client is hyperventilating with a respiratory rate of 28 breaths/min.
Systemic inflammation and bacterial endotoxins directly stimulate the respiratory center in the medulla, causing tachypnea even before hypoxia occurs.
3
Determine the expected acid-base imbalance resulting from this respiratory pattern.
Hyperventilation causes excessive exhalation of carbon dioxide, leading to an acute decrease in PaCO2 and a rise in pH (respiratory alkalosis).
Carbon dioxide acts as an acid in the body; losing it rapidly shifts the blood pH toward alkalosis.
4
Evaluate the timeline for expected metabolic compensation.
An uncompensated state (normal HCO3-) is expected.
Renal compensation (excreting bicarbonate to lower the pH) takes 24 to 48 hours to become fully effective. An acute presentation will show normal bicarbonate levels.

Key Concept

Early Septic Shock Pathophysiology and Acid-Base Imbalances
Question 3499Question →

An adult client is receiving treatment in the emergency department for status asthmaticus. Upon arrival, the client was highly agitated and exhibited severe intercostal retractions, with an initial arterial blood gas (ABG) reading of pH 7.527.52, PaCO 2_2 2626 mm Hg, and PaO 2_2 7272 mm Hg on a 100%100\% non-rebreather mask. Two hours later, the nurse notes the client is now drowsy and the wheezing is significantly diminished, though chest excursion is poor. A repeat ABG shows pH 7.377.37, PaCO 2_2 4242 mm Hg, and PaO 2_2 5454 mm Hg. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Prepare the client for immediate endotracheal intubation and assist with mechanical ventilation.

Answer

Prepare the client for immediate endotracheal intubation and assist with mechanical ventilation.
In a severe asthma exacerbation, the client initially hyperventilates, causing a low PaCO2 (respiratory alkalosis). As the client becomes exhausted, the respiratory rate drops, and PaCO2 begins to rise. A 'normal' PaCO2 in this context, combined with drowsiness and diminished breath sounds (a 'silent chest' indicating minimal air movement), is a paradoxical finding known as pseudonormalization. It signals that the client has lost the energy to maintain the work of breathing and is in impending respiratory failure. The immediate priority is securing the airway and providing mechanical ventilation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the initial ABG and clinical presentation.
The initial ABG showed respiratory alkalosis due to hyperventilation, which is the expected early compensatory response to hypoxia in a severe asthma attack.
Establishing the baseline helps identify the trajectory of the client's respiratory status.
2
Evaluate the subsequent clinical changes and repeat ABG.
The client developed drowsiness and a 'silent chest' (diminished wheezing and poor excursion), while the repeat ABG showed a 'normal' pH and PaCO2 with worsening hypoxemia.
Recognizing a change in clinical status is necessary to identify complications.
3
Synthesize the findings to determine the underlying pathophysiology and priority action.
The 'normal' PaCO2 represents pseudonormalization due to respiratory muscle exhaustion. The priority is securing the airway before the client progresses to respiratory and cardiac arrest.
Airway and breathing must be stabilized immediately when impending respiratory failure is identified.

Key Concept

Pseudonormalization of arterial blood gases in status asthmaticus
Question 3500Question →

The nurse is preparing to administer a large-volume cleansing enema to an older adult client experiencing severe constipation. In what order should the nurse perform the following actions? Arrange the steps in the correct sequence from first to last.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

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Answer

First, prepare the solution and prime the tubing. Second, position the client in the left lateral Sims position. Third, lubricate the rectal tube. Fourth, have the client exhale while inserting the tube toward the umbilicus. Finally, raise the container to the proper height and begin the flow.
Administering a large-volume enema requires a systematic sequence to ensure safety, comfort, and efficacy. The nurse must first prepare the solution and prime the tubing to eliminate air that causes cramping. Next, the client is placed in the left lateral Sims position to take advantage of gravity for fluid flow into the descending colon. After positioning, the nurse lubricates the tube to prevent mucosal trauma. The tube is then inserted gently while the client exhales, following the natural anatomical angle toward the umbilicus. Finally, the container is raised to the correct height (no higher than 18 inches) to establish a safe hydrostatic pressure for the infusion.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Fill the enema container with warmed solution and flush the administration tubing to remove air.
The enema setup is fully prepared and free of trapped air.
Air introduced into the colon causes severe cramping and discomfort. Preparing equipment beforehand limits the duration the client remains in an uncomfortable or exposed position.
2
Position the client in a left lateral Sims position with the upper knee flexed.
The client is anatomically positioned to receive the enema.
This specific position utilizes gravity to assist the flow of the enema solution directly into the descending colon and sigmoid colon, which are situated on the left side of the body.
3
Lubricate the distal tip of the rectal tube generously with a water-soluble jelly.
The rectal tube is slippery and ready for safe insertion.
Water-soluble lubricant minimizes friction, preventing mechanical trauma or abrasion to the delicate anal sphincter and rectal mucosa.
4
Instruct the client to exhale slowly while inserting the tube 3 to 4 inches toward the umbilicus.
The tube is successfully and safely placed in the rectum.
Exhaling actively relaxes the internal anal sphincter, reducing resistance. Directing the tip toward the umbilicus follows the natural curve of the lower bowel.
5
Raise the enema container no higher than 18 inches above the client's anus and initiate the flow.
The cleansing solution begins to flow at a safe and steady rate.
Raising the bag establishes hydrostatic pressure. Keeping it between 12 to 18 inches ensures the fluid instills at a safe rate; raising it higher causes rapid distention and painful cramping.

Key Concept

Administration of a Large-Volume Cleansing Enema
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