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Question 3461Question →

A nurse is performing an assessment on a 2-hour-old newborn. Which of the following findings requires immediate intervention by the nurse?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Respiratory rate of 68 breaths per minute with intercostal retractions

Answer

The finding of a respiratory rate of 68 breaths per minute with intercostal retractions requires immediate intervention.
A respiratory rate of 68 breaths per minute (tachypnea) accompanied by intercostal retractions is a classic sign of respiratory distress in the newborn. Normal newborn respiratory rates range from 30 to 60 breaths per minute. According to the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) of prioritization, this respiratory compromise is the highest priority and requires immediate medical intervention.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze each assessment finding against normal newborn physiological parameters.
Three of the findings are normal transitional or expected variations, while one indicates a deviation from normal.
Differentiating between normal variations and signs of pathology is essential for accurate clinical judgment.
2
Apply the ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) framework to prioritize the abnormal findings.
The tachypnea (respiratory rate > 60) and intercostal retractions indicate a breathing compromise, identifying it as the highest priority.
Respiratory distress can rapidly lead to hypoxia and deterioration in a newborn if not addressed immediately.

Key Concept

Identifying signs of respiratory distress in the newborn and differentiating them from normal physiological transitions.
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 3462Question →

A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client admitted with a persistent cough, night sweats, hemoptysis, and a positive acid-fast bacilli (AFB) sputum smear. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the client's care plan? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Place the client in a negative-pressure airborne infection isolation room (AIIR).; Ensure all healthcare personnel don a fit-tested N95 respirator or powered air-purifying respirator (PAPR) before entering the room.; Apply a standard medical mask to the client if transport outside of the isolation room is required.

Answer

The correct interventions are placing the client in a negative-pressure room, ensuring staff wear N95 respirators or PAPRs, and applying a standard medical mask to the client during transport.
Active pulmonary tuberculosis is transmitted via airborne droplet nuclei. Proper management requires placing the client in a negative-pressure airborne infection isolation room (AIIR) to safely exhaust contaminated air. Healthcare personnel must wear an N95 respirator or PAPR to filter out the bacteria before inhalation. If the client must leave the room, they must wear a standard medical mask to trap droplets at the source.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation.
The client has night sweats, hemoptysis, and a positive AFB smear, which are classic indicators of active pulmonary tuberculosis.
Identifying the specific pathogen or disease presentation determines the correct transmission-based precautions.
2
Determine the required isolation category.
Active pulmonary tuberculosis requires Airborne Precautions.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is transmitted via small droplet nuclei that can remain suspended in the air over long distances.
3
Select the interventions that align with Airborne Precautions and safe nursing practice.
The nurse must use a negative-pressure room, wear an N95 respirator, have the client wear a standard mask during transport, keep the door closed, and retain responsibility for initial education.
These specific actions prevent the spread of airborne pathogens and adhere to the registered nurse's scope of practice.

Key Concept

Airborne Precautions for Pulmonary Tuberculosis
Question 3463Question →

A nurse is caring for a client with cardiogenic shock who weighs 85 kg85 \text{ kg}. The healthcare provider prescribes a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of dopamine at 5 mcg/kg/min5 \text{ mcg/kg/min}. The pharmacy provides an IV bag containing 400 mg400 \text{ mg} of dopamine mixed in 250 mL250 \text{ mL} of 5%5\% Dextrose in Water (D5W). At what rate should the nurse set the IV infusion pump in mL/hr\text{mL/hr}? (Record your answer to the nearest tenth.)

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 15.9

Answer

The nurse should set the infusion pump to 15.9 mL/hr.
The correct answer is derived by calculating the weight-based dose per minute, converting it to an hourly rate, matching the units to the supplied concentration (mcg to mg), and dividing by the concentration of the dopamine bag. Finally, the value is rounded to the nearest tenth.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Calculate the required dose per minute based on the client's weight.
85 kg×5 mcg/kg/min=425 mcg/min85 \text{ kg} \times 5 \text{ mcg/kg/min} = 425 \text{ mcg/min}
The prescription is weight-based, requiring the nurse to multiply the ordered rate by the client's weight in kg.
2
Convert the per-minute dose to a per-hour dose.
425 mcg/min×60 min/hr=25,500 mcg/hr425 \text{ mcg/min} \times 60 \text{ min/hr} = 25,500 \text{ mcg/hr}
Infusion pumps are programmed in mL per hour, so the minute dosage must be converted to an hourly rate.
3
Convert the required hourly dose from micrograms (mcg) to milligrams (mg).
25,500 mcg/hr÷1000 mcg/mg=25.5 mg/hr25,500 \text{ mcg/hr} \div 1000 \text{ mcg/mg} = 25.5 \text{ mg/hr}
The supplied medication concentration is provided in mg, so the hourly dose must match these units.
4
Calculate the concentration of the supplied IV fluid.
400 mg÷250 mL=1.6 mg/mL400 \text{ mg} \div 250 \text{ mL} = 1.6 \text{ mg/mL}
Determining the concentration simplifies the final volume calculation.
5
Calculate the final infusion rate and round to the nearest tenth.
25.5 mg/hr÷1.6 mg/mL=15.9375 mL/hr25.5 \text{ mg/hr} \div 1.6 \text{ mg/mL} = 15.9375 \text{ mL/hr}, which rounds to 15.9 mL/hr15.9 \text{ mL/hr}
Dividing the required hourly dose by the concentration yields the final pump setting.

Key Concept

Weight-based continuous IV infusion rate calculation (mcg/kg/min to mL/hr)
Question 3464Question →

A 32-year-old client is admitted to the emergency department following a high-speed motor vehicle collision. The client sustained blunt trauma to the anterior chest. The nurse's initial assessment reveals a blood pressure of 88/54 mm Hg, heart rate of 134 bpm, and respiratory rate of 32 breaths/min. The client's trachea is deviated to the left, and jugular venous distention (JVD) is present despite the head of the bed being elevated to 45 degrees. An arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis on room air shows pH 7.28, PaCO2 56 mm Hg, HCO3 24 mEq/L, and PaO2 58 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take FIRST?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Prepare the client for an emergent right-sided needle thoracostomy.

Answer

The correct action is to prepare the client for an emergent right-sided needle thoracostomy.
The client's presentation of profound hypotension, tachycardia, jugular venous distention, and left-sided tracheal deviation strongly indicates a right-sided tension pneumothorax. This condition traps air in the pleural space, creating massive intrathoracic pressure that compresses the great vessels and heart, leading to obstructive shock and cardiopulmonary collapse. The immediate, life-saving intervention is to relieve this pressure through an emergent needle thoracostomy (decompression) on the affected right side, followed by a chest tube insertion.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the clinical assessment findings.
The client presents with severe hypotension, tachycardia, jugular venous distention (JVD), and a trachea deviated to the left.
These are the hallmark signs of a tension pneumothorax. The leftward tracheal deviation specifically isolates the pathology to the right side of the chest.
2
Differentiate the type of shock present.
The client is experiencing obstructive shock, not hypovolemic shock.
Trapped air in the pleural space creates massive intrathoracic pressure, physically compressing the heart and great vessels. This mechanical obstruction prevents venous return (causing JVD) and drastically reduces cardiac output (causing hypotension).
3
Interpret the arterial blood gas (ABG) values.
pH 7.28 (acidosis), PaCO2 56 mm Hg (respiratory acidosis), HCO3 24 mEq/L (normal), and PaO2 58 mm Hg (severe hypoxemia).
This confirms acute, uncompensated respiratory acidosis resulting from the collapsed lung's inability to ventilate and oxygenate.
4
Determine the highest priority nursing intervention.
Preparation for immediate pleural decompression (needle thoracostomy) on the right side.
Relieving the trapped air is the only definitive way to reverse the mechanical obstruction, restore cardiac output, and allow the lung to re-expand. Other interventions like fluids or positioning will not correct the underlying life-threatening pathology.

Key Concept

Tension Pneumothorax and Obstructive Shock Management
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 3465Question →

During the first 4 hours of postoperative care following a radical nephrectomy, a client's physiological parameters begin to shift. The initial postoperative assessment revealed a blood pressure of 138/76 mm Hg and a heart rate of 78 beats/min. The current assessment shows a blood pressure of 116/88 mm Hg, a heart rate of 115 beats/min, and a respiratory rate of 22 breaths/min. In response to these changes, which of the following interventions should the nurse prioritize?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Increase the prescribed intravenous isotonic fluid rate and immediately contact the healthcare provider.

Answer

Increase the prescribed intravenous isotonic fluid rate and immediately contact the healthcare provider.
The correct answer addresses the client's transition into compensatory hypovolemic shock. A radical nephrectomy carries a high risk of hemorrhage. The client's pulse pressure has narrowed significantly (from 62 mm Hg to 28 mm Hg) and is accompanied by new-onset tachycardia. These are classic early signs of shock as the body attempts to maintain cardiac output. Increasing intravenous fluids helps restore intravascular volume, and immediate provider notification is critical for further medical or surgical intervention.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the baseline vital signs compared to the current vital signs.
The client's pulse pressure narrowed from 62 mm Hg to 28 mm Hg, and the heart rate increased from 78 to 115 beats/min.
Identifying trends in vital signs is essential to detect early physiological decompensation before severe hypotension occurs.
2
Interpret the clinical significance of these vital sign changes in a postoperative client.
The combination of tachycardia and a narrowing pulse pressure indicates the compensatory stage of hypovolemic shock, likely due to internal hemorrhage.
A radical nephrectomy is a highly vascular procedure with a significant risk of postoperative bleeding.
3
Select the nursing intervention that directly mitigates this life-threatening risk.
Administering intravenous fluids and notifying the provider addresses the volume deficit and initiates necessary medical management.
Immediate action is required to prevent progression to decompensated shock and potential organ failure.

Key Concept

Early recognition and management of postoperative hypovolemic shock
Question 3466Question →

A nurse is planning basic care and comfort measures for a geriatric client who is recovering from a right total hip arthroplasty utilizing a posterior surgical approach. The client reports sacral discomfort from prolonged bed rest, and the nurse must reposition them while mitigating the risk of complications. Which action is the most appropriate?

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Answer: Assist the client to roll onto the unoperated left side while maintaining a foam abductor wedge securely between the lower extremities.

Answer

The most appropriate action is to assist the client to roll onto their unoperated left side while maintaining a foam abductor wedge securely between their lower extremities.
The correct action safely addresses the client's sacral discomfort by offloading pressure onto the unoperated side. Critically, the continuous use of the abductor wedge prevents the affected leg from crossing the midline (adduction) or turning inward (internal rotation), which are the primary mechanisms that cause posterior hip dislocation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the client's surgical procedure and the associated anatomical precautions.
The client had a right total hip arthroplasty via a posterior approach, which requires strict avoidance of hip flexion greater than 90 degrees, hip adduction (crossing the midline), and internal rotation.
These specific movements can force the femoral head out of the acetabular cup, causing posterior dislocation of the new joint.
2
Evaluate the nursing goal.
The goal is to provide basic comfort and relieve sacral pressure while strictly adhering to orthopedic precautions.
Immobility increases the risk of pressure injuries, necessitating safe repositioning.
3
Analyze the proposed interventions against safety and scope of practice guidelines.
High-Fowler's position violates the hip flexion precaution. Delegating skin assessment violates the UAP scope of practice. Using restraints violates the principle of least restrictive interventions.
Nursing actions must simultaneously address comfort, surgical safety, and ethical/legal standards.
4
Select the intervention that safely achieves the comfort goal.
Turning to the unoperated side safely offloads sacral pressure, while the continuous use of an abductor wedge prevents the dangerous adduction and internal rotation of the affected limb.
This comprehensively addresses basic care needs without compromising the surgical site.

Key Concept

Post-operative positioning precautions for posterior total hip arthroplasty (avoiding >90 degree flexion, adduction, and internal rotation).
Question 3467Question →

A 72-year-old client with a history of moderate dementia is hospitalized for treatment of aspiration pneumonia. The client is receiving continuous intravenous (IV) fluids, has a poor appetite, and exhibits increased restlessness, repeatedly pulling at the IV tubing. Which of the following nursing actions are appropriate to promote the client's basic care and comfort? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Provide oral hygiene every few hours using moistened sponge swabs to maintain mucous membrane moisture.; Ensure the client is positioned upright at a 45- to 90-degree angle while eating or drinking.; Implement a regular toileting schedule every 2 hours while the client is awake to manage incontinence and protect skin integrity.

Answer

The appropriate actions are providing frequent oral hygiene, ensuring an upright position during oral intake, and implementing a regular toileting schedule.
The correct interventions prioritize physiological integrity, safety, and comfort. Providing frequent oral hygiene maintains mucous membrane moisture and reduces the risk of further respiratory infections. Ensuring the client is positioned upright at a 45- to 90-degree angle during intake utilizes gravity to prevent aspiration, which is critical given the current diagnosis. Implementing a regular toileting schedule proactively manages incontinence caused by IV fluids and dementia, protecting skin integrity and promoting dignity.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation and identify specific risks.
The client has a diagnosis of aspiration pneumonia, underlying dementia, poor appetite, and is exhibiting restless behavior by pulling at the IV line.
Identifying specific vulnerabilities guides the prioritization of safe and effective basic care interventions.
2
Evaluate each potential intervention against fundamental safety and comfort principles.
Upright positioning, oral care, and toileting schedules safely promote hygiene and comfort. Applying restraints, delegating initial assessments, and using flat positioning violate clinical safety standards.
Nursing actions must prioritize airway protection, maintain skin integrity, and utilize the least restrictive environment.

Key Concept

Basic Care and Comfort - Interventions for Aspiration Risk, Skin Integrity, and Safety
Question 3468Question →

An off-duty nurse is the first responder at the scene of a severe multi-vehicle highway collision involving a commuter bus. Using the Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment (START) algorithm, which individual should the nurse classify as "Immediate" (red tag)?

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Answer: An individual lying on the embankment who has a respiratory rate of 24 breaths/minute, palpable radial pulses, and is unable to follow simple commands.

Answer

The individual lying on the embankment who has a respiratory rate of 24 breaths/minute, palpable radial pulses, and is unable to follow simple commands.
The correct answer identifies a client who requires immediate life-saving intervention based on the RPM (Respiration, Perfusion, Mental Status) criteria of the START triage method. Because this victim is not walking, is breathing fewer than 30 times per minute, and has adequate perfusion, their neurological status must be assessed. The inability to follow simple commands indicates compromised neurological function or impending shock, directly resulting in an 'Immediate' (red tag) classification.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the ability to walk.
The individual is lying on the embankment (not walking).
Walking victims are immediately designated as 'Minimal' (green tag).
2
Assess respiratory rate.
The respiratory rate is 24 breaths/minute.
Respirations must be under 30 breaths/minute to move to the next assessment step. If over 30, they are tagged red.
3
Assess perfusion.
Radial pulses are palpable.
Adequate perfusion (capillary refill under 2 seconds or present radial pulse) allows progression to the mental status check.
4
Assess mental status.
The individual is unable to follow simple commands.
Altered mental status signifies inadequate brain perfusion or severe injury, categorizing the patient as 'Immediate' (red tag).

Key Concept

Disaster Triage Principles (START Algorithm)
Question 3469Question →

The nurse is reviewing the health records of several clients to determine their risk for acid-base imbalances. Which of the following conditions place a client at high risk for developing respiratory acidosis? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: An overdose of an opioid analgesic; An exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

Answer

The conditions that place a client at risk for respiratory acidosis are an overdose of an opioid analgesic and an exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
Respiratory acidosis occurs when there is a decrease in the rate or efficiency of respiration (hypoventilation), leading to an accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood. An overdose of an opioid analgesic depresses the central respiratory drive, while an exacerbation of COPD involves airway obstruction and air trapping. Both conditions prevent the adequate exhalation of carbon dioxide, directly causing respiratory acidosis.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the defining mechanism of respiratory acidosis.
Respiratory acidosis is caused by hypoventilation and the retention of carbon dioxide (CO2).
Understanding the underlying pathophysiology is essential for identifying contributing clinical conditions.
2
Evaluate each condition for its effect on ventilation and CO2 elimination.
Opioid overdoses depress the respiratory center, and COPD obstructs expiratory airflow; both conditions lead directly to CO2 retention.
Conditions that decrease respiratory rate or obstruct airflow prevent the lungs from adequately clearing carbon dioxide.
3
Differentiate the incorrect options by identifying their corresponding acid-base imbalances.
Hyperventilation causes respiratory alkalosis. Nasogastric suctioning causes metabolic alkalosis. Diarrhea causes metabolic acidosis.
Eliminating distractors confirms that only the conditions causing hypoventilation lead to respiratory acidosis.

Key Concept

Respiratory Acidosis Etiology
Question 3470Question →

An emergency department nurse is evaluating a young adult who presented with a severe acute asthma exacerbation. Upon arrival, the client exhibited audible wheezing, prominent intercostal retractions, and a respiratory rate of 36 breaths/min. The baseline arterial blood gas (ABG) results on room air were:

ParameterValue
pH7.50
PaCO226 mm Hg
HCO323 mEq/L
PaO270 mm Hg

One hour after the administration of continuous nebulized bronchodilators and intravenous corticosteroids, the nurse reassesses the client. The client is now lethargic, the respiratory rate has decreased to 12 breaths/min, and lung sounds are significantly diminished bilaterally with no audible wheezing. The repeat ABG results are:

ParameterValue
pH7.27
PaCO264 mm Hg
HCO324 mEq/L
PaO252 mm Hg

Which intervention is the most appropriate priority action based on these clinical changes?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Alert the healthcare provider and prepare the airway equipment for immediate intubation and mechanical ventilation.

Answer

Alert the healthcare provider and prepare the airway equipment for immediate intubation and mechanical ventilation.
The correct action is to prepare for immediate intubation and mechanical ventilation. During a severe asthma exacerbation, a shift from respiratory alkalosis (due to hyperventilation) to respiratory acidosis (rising PaCO2, falling pH) signals that the client has exhausted their respiratory muscles and can no longer maintain adequate ventilation. The physical signs of lethargy, a normalized or slow respiratory rate, and a lack of wheezing ('silent chest') confirm impending respiratory failure and the critical need for an advanced airway.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the initial ABG and clinical presentation.
The client initially presented in respiratory alkalosis (pH 7.50, low PaCO2) due to hyperventilation, which is a common early compensatory mechanism to overcome airway resistance in an asthma attack.
Understanding the baseline establishes the trajectory of the client's respiratory status.
2
Analyze the follow-up ABG results.
The repeat ABG shows uncompensated respiratory acidosis (pH dropped to 7.27, PaCO2 sharply rose to 64 mm Hg) and worsening hypoxemia (PaO2 52 mm Hg).
Identifying the acid-base shift is critical to recognizing alveolar hypoventilation.
3
Correlate the laboratory findings with the physical assessment.
The lethargy, decreased respiratory rate, and absence of wheezing ('silent chest') perfectly align with the hypercapnia. The client's respiratory muscles have fatigued, resulting in an inability to move air.
Clinical assessment validates the lab values and reveals the severity of the decompensation.
4
Determine the highest priority nursing intervention.
Immediate endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation are required because the client is in acute respiratory failure and can no longer maintain their own airway or ventilation.
Airway and breathing are the highest priorities; without mechanical support, the client will progress to cardiac arrest.

Key Concept

Recognition of impending respiratory failure and 'silent chest' in acute asthma exacerbation.
Question 3471Question →

An adult client is recovering on the surgical unit 48 hours after undergoing a right above-the-knee amputation. To prevent complications related to immobility and promote optimal physical comfort, which action should the nurse take?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Assist the client into a prone position for 20 to 30 minutes several times each day.

Answer

Assist the client into a prone position for 20 to 30 minutes several times each day.
Following an above-the-knee amputation, the client is at high risk for developing a hip flexion contracture, which can complicate or completely prevent rehabilitation with a prosthesis. Assisting the client into a prone position for 20 to 30 minutes, three to four times a day, stretches the flexor muscles and prevents contracture formation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the client's postoperative timeline and surgical procedure.
The client is 48 hours post-right above-the-knee amputation.
The timeline dictates which interventions are safe and which are contraindicated.
2
Determine the greatest mobility and positioning risk for a client with this specific amputation.
The most significant risk is the development of a hip flexion contracture.
Contractures severely limit joint mobility and can permanently prevent the future use of a prosthetic limb.
3
Evaluate the given options against contracture prevention strategies.
Prone positioning physically extends the hip joint, whereas elevating the limb or utilizing a high-Fowler's position promotes prolonged hip flexion.
To prevent flexion contractures, the joint must be periodically stretched in full extension.

Key Concept

Preventing hip flexion contractures following lower extremity amputation
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 3472Question →

A client is receiving care in the urgent care clinic after experiencing severe, watery diarrhea for the past three days. Based on the significant loss of lower gastrointestinal fluids, which acid-base imbalance should the nurse anticipate?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Metabolic acidosis

Answer

Metabolic acidosis
The correct answer accurately reflects that severe diarrhea removes large quantities of bicarbonate from the body. Because bicarbonate is a primary base, its excessive loss causes the blood to become more acidic, resulting in metabolic acidosis.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary source of fluid loss described in the client's presentation.
The client has severe, watery diarrhea, which is a loss of lower gastrointestinal fluid.
Different body fluids contain different concentrations of electrolytes and acid-base buffers.
2
Determine the primary buffer lost in lower gastrointestinal fluids.
Intestinal fluids are rich in bicarbonate, which functions as a base in the body.
Understanding the composition of the lost fluid helps determine the resulting systemic imbalance.
3
Conclude the systemic effect of losing a large amount of base.
The excessive loss of bicarbonate leads to a relative excess of acid in the blood, resulting in metabolic acidosis.
The acid-base balance shifts toward acidity when a significant amount of base is depleted.

Key Concept

Lower gastrointestinal fluids are rich in bicarbonate. Excessive loss of these fluids through severe diarrhea leads to base depletion and subsequent metabolic acidosis.
Question 3473Question →

A community health nurse is assisting at a field triage station established near the epicenter of a major earthquake. Using the START (Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment) algorithm, which of the following non-ambulatory adult casualties should the nurse classify as Immediate (Red tag)? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: A casualty who is initially apneic but begins taking 14 breaths per minute after the nurse manually opens the airway.; A casualty who is breathing 24 times per minute, has a palpable radial pulse, but stares blankly and cannot follow the command to squeeze the nurse's hand.; A casualty with blunt head trauma who is breathing 36 times per minute.

Answer

The casualties that should be tagged as Immediate (Red) are the one who begins breathing after airway repositioning, the one with an altered mental status who cannot follow commands, and the one with a respiratory rate over 30 breaths per minute.
The START algorithm prioritizes casualties based on Respirations, Perfusion, and Mental Status (RPM). A Red tag is given if the respiratory rate is > 30, if breathing only occurs after airway repositioning, if perfusion is compromised (absent radial pulse or delayed cap refill), or if the client cannot follow simple commands. The correct choices reflect clients meeting the respiratory (> 30 breaths/min or requiring airway repositioning) and mental status (unable to follow commands) criteria.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the casualty's ability to walk.
The stem specifies all casualties are non-ambulatory, so none are classified as Minor (Green) at this step.
Walking wounded are immediately directed to a designated area to clear the scene and conserve resources.
2
Assess the respiratory rate of the non-ambulatory casualties.
Casualties breathing over 30 times per minute are tagged Red. Apneic casualties require manual airway repositioning; if breathing resumes, they are tagged Red. If they remain apneic, they are tagged Black.
Airway and breathing are the most critical determinants of immediate survival.
3
Assess perfusion in casualties with a respiratory rate under 30 breaths per minute.
If radial pulses are absent or capillary refill is greater than 2 seconds, the client is tagged Red.
Poor perfusion indicates impending cardiovascular collapse and shock.
4
Assess mental status in casualties with adequate breathing and perfusion.
If the casualty cannot follow simple commands, they are tagged Red. If they can follow commands, they are tagged Yellow.
Altered mental status indicates inadequate brain perfusion or severe head trauma.

Key Concept

START Adult Disaster Triage Algorithm
Question 3474Question →

A nurse is preparing to administer a prescribed parenteral medication from a glass ampule. Arrange the following actions in the correct chronological order to ensure safe preparation. (Place the first action at the top and the final action at the bottom.)

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct sequence is to tap the ampule to clear the stem, protect the fingers with gauze, snap the neck away from the body, draw the medication using a filter needle, and finally replace the filter needle with a standard administration device.
Safe medication preparation from a glass ampule requires a specific sequence to prevent injury and contamination. The medication must first be cleared from the stem to ensure accurate dosing. A barrier (gauze or alcohol swab) is then placed around the neck to protect the nurse's fingers before snapping the top away from the body to protect the face and eyes. A filter needle is essential to draw up the medication safely, preventing microscopic glass shards from entering the syringe. Finally, the filter needle must be discarded and replaced with a standard administration device, as using the same filter needle for injection would deliver trapped glass particles into the client.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Tap the upper chamber of the ampule lightly.
Trapped medication falls into the lower chamber of the ampule.
This ensures the entire volume of medication is accessible for withdrawal and prevents dosing errors.
2
Wrap a sterile gauze pad or unopened alcohol swab around the neck of the ampule.
The nurse's fingers are shielded by a physical barrier.
This minimizes the risk of laceration from glass shards during the snapping motion.
3
Snap the neck of the ampule firmly and quickly away from the body.
The ampule is safely opened.
Directing the breaking force away from the body protects the nurse's face and eyes from flying glass fragments.
4
Attach a filter needle to a sterile syringe and withdraw the medication.
The prescribed dose is drawn into the syringe free of glass contamination.
When a glass ampule is broken, microscopic shards inevitably fall into the fluid. The filter needle traps these particles.
5
Remove the filter needle and attach an appropriate administration device.
The syringe is safely prepared for client administration.
Using the filter needle for client injection is strictly contraindicated, as it would introduce the trapped glass particles into the client.

Key Concept

Safe medication preparation from a glass ampule
Question 3475Question →

Match each client's clinical presentation to the correct infection control precautions and room assignment requirement.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Client with suspected pulmonary tuberculosis
Client diagnosed with Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Client with vancomycin-resistant enterococci (VRE) in a urine culture
Client with asymptomatic HIV and a closed radial fracture

Matches

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Answer

The correct matches align tuberculosis with Airborne Precautions (AIIR and N95), Mycoplasma pneumoniae with Droplet Precautions (private room and surgical mask), VRE with Contact Precautions (private room, gown, and gloves), and the closed fracture in an HIV-positive client with Standard Precautions.
Each client's clinical presentation dictates specific isolation requirements based on the pathogen's mode of transmission. Tuberculosis requires Airborne Precautions due to aerosolized droplet nuclei. Mycoplasma pneumoniae requires Droplet Precautions due to large respiratory droplets. VRE requires Contact Precautions to prevent transmission via direct contact. A closed fracture in a client with HIV requires only Standard Precautions, as there is no anticipated contact with blood or body fluids.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the mode of transmission for pulmonary tuberculosis.
Tuberculosis is transmitted via the airborne route.
Determines the need for an Airborne Infection Isolation Room (AIIR) and an N95 respirator.
2
Identify the mode of transmission for Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
It is transmitted via large respiratory droplets.
Determines the need for Droplet Precautions, requiring a surgical mask when within 3 feet of the client.
3
Identify the mode of transmission for VRE in urine.
VRE is transmitted by direct or indirect contact.
Determines the need for Contact Precautions, requiring a gown and gloves upon entering the room.
4
Assess the transmission risk for a client with HIV and a closed fracture.
No active bleeding or body fluid exposure is present.
Standard Precautions are sufficient unless exposure to blood or body fluids is anticipated.

Key Concept

Standard and Transmission-Based Precautions
Question 3476Question →

A nurse is preparing to administer an intermittent bolus enteral feeding via a nasogastric (NG) tube to an adult client. In what order should the nurse perform the following actions? Arrange the steps in the correct chronological sequence from first to last.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

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Answer

The correct sequence is to first elevate the head of the bed, then verify tube placement and check residual volume, flush the tube with water, administer the feeding formula, and finally flush the tube with water again.
Safe administration of an intermittent bolus enteral feeding requires a systematic approach to prevent severe complications such as aspiration or tube occlusion. The nurse must initially elevate the head of the bed to at least 30 to 45 degrees to protect the airway. Next, verifying tube placement and assessing the gastric residual volume ensures the tube remains in the stomach and the client is tolerating previous feedings. Once safety is confirmed, flushing the tube with 30 mL of water confirms patency. The formula is then administered by gravity to prevent rapid infusion complications like dumping syndrome or cramping. Finally, a post-feeding flush clears the viscous formula from the tube, preventing clogs and bacterial growth.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Elevate the head of the bed.
The client is placed in a semi-Fowler's position.
This utilizes gravity to reduce the risk of gastroesophageal reflux and pulmonary aspiration during the procedure.
2
Verify placement and assess gastric residual volume (GRV).
Tube location in the stomach is confirmed and digestion rate is evaluated.
Ensures the feeding will be delivered to the correct anatomical location and prevents overfilling the stomach.
3
Flush the tube with 30 mL of water.
The internal lumen of the NG tube is cleared.
Confirms the tube is patent and ready to receive the thicker feeding formula.
4
Administer the bolus feeding.
The prescribed nutrition is infused into the client's stomach.
Gravity flow provides a steady, safe rate of administration to prevent nausea or cramping.
5
Perform a post-feeding water flush.
Residual formula is washed out of the tube.
Maintains tube patency for future use and prevents formula from spoiling inside the tube.

Key Concept

Procedural sequencing for safe enteral nutrition administration
Question 3477Question →

The nurse is caring for a client with a spinal cord injury at the T4 level. The client suddenly reports a severe, pounding headache and profuse diaphoresis above the level of the injury. The blood pressure is 198/104 mm Hg and heart rate is 52 beats per minute. Arrange the following nursing interventions in the correct priority order from first to last.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

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Answer

The correct sequence is: Elevate the head of the bed, assess the urinary catheter or bladder, notify the healthcare provider, and administer antihypertensive medication.
The correct sequence prioritizes immediate physiological safety, followed by cause identification, and then medical escalation. Elevating the head of the bed utilizes orthostasis to immediately reduce blood pressure and prevent stroke. Finding and removing the noxious stimulus (commonly bladder distention) treats the root cause. If these measures do not resolve the crisis, the healthcare provider must be notified to provide orders for antihypertensives.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the complication based on the clinical presentation.
The client with a T4 spinal cord injury presenting with severe hypertension, bradycardia, pounding headache, and diaphoresis is experiencing autonomic dysreflexia.
Recognizing this life-threatening medical emergency is critical for determining the immediate interventions.
2
Determine the most immediate physical intervention to mitigate risk.
Elevate the head of the bed to a high Fowler's or sitting position.
Sitting the client upright takes advantage of gravity to induce orthostatic hypotension, which immediately helps lower the dangerously high blood pressure.
3
Investigate and remove the most likely noxious stimulus causing the reaction.
Assess the urinary catheter or bladder.
A distended bladder or kinked catheter is the most frequent trigger for autonomic dysreflexia. Removing the trigger is essential to stop the sympathetic nervous system response.
4
Escalate the situation and prepare for pharmacological management.
Notify the healthcare provider, followed by administering antihypertensive medications if needed.
If the blood pressure remains elevated after nursing interventions, medical management is required to prevent complications such as a cerebral hemorrhage.

Key Concept

Autonomic dysreflexia is a medical emergency characterized by extreme hypertension in clients with spinal cord injuries at or above T6. The immediate priority is placing the client in a sitting position to mechanically lower blood pressure, followed by identifying and removing the noxious stimulus.
Question 3478Question →

A 68-year-old client with a history of heart failure is admitted for an acute exacerbation and is receiving high-dose intravenous furosemide. During the afternoon assessment, the client appears increasingly lethargic with shallow respirations at a rate of 10 breaths/min. The latest laboratory results reveal a serum potassium level of 2.6 mEq/L. An arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis on room air shows:

pHpH: 7.53
PaCO2PaCO_2: 49 mm Hg
HCO3−HCO_3^-: 35 mEq/L
PaO2PaO_2: 82 mm Hg

Which immediate action should the nurse take to reduce the client's risk for a life-threatening physiological complication?

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Answer: Initiate continuous electrocardiogram monitoring and verify the prescription for an intravenous potassium chloride infusion.

Answer

The nurse should immediately place the client on continuous cardiac monitoring and prepare to administer intravenous potassium chloride.
The client is experiencing severe hypokalemia (2.6 mEq/L) and partially compensated metabolic alkalosis, which are classical complications of aggressive loop diuretic therapy. The elevated pHpH (7.53) and HCO3−HCO_3^- (35 mEq/L) indicate primary metabolic alkalosis, while the elevated PaCO2PaCO_2 (49 mm Hg) and hypoventilation (10 breaths/min) represent the body's compensatory mechanism to retain acid. The most immediate, life-threatening risk is a fatal cardiac dysrhythmia due to the critical potassium deficit. Therefore, initiating continuous cardiac monitoring and replacing the potassium are the most urgent nursing priorities.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the arterial blood gas (ABG) values.
The pHpH is elevated (alkalemia), the HCO3−HCO_3^- is elevated (primary metabolic alkalosis), and the PaCO2PaCO_2 is elevated (compensatory respiratory acidosis).
Accurate ABG interpretation is required to determine the client's primary acid-base imbalance and physiological state.
2
Correlate the diagnostic data with the clinical presentation and medication history.
High-dose furosemide causes significant potassium and hydrogen ion loss, resulting in the critical hypokalemia (2.6 mEq/L) and metabolic alkalosis.
Understanding the pharmacological effects of loop diuretics explains the etiology of the abnormal laboratory results.
3
Determine the physiological cause of the respiratory changes.
The shallow, slow respirations are due to severe hypokalemia (causing muscle weakness) and the body's natural compensatory effort to retain carbon dioxide to lower the elevated pHpH.
Recognizing compensatory mechanisms prevents the nurse from inappropriately intervening to stop them.
4
Identify the most immediate life-threatening risk and prioritize the nursing intervention.
Severe hypokalemia places the client at extreme risk for lethal ventricular dysrhythmias, making cardiac monitoring and cautious potassium replacement the absolute highest priorities.
Prioritization requires addressing the most acute, life-threatening physiological risk first.

Key Concept

Reduction of risk potential in clients receiving loop diuretics involves monitoring for profound hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis, and intervening immediately to prevent fatal cardiac dysrhythmias.
Question 3479Question →

A nurse is assessing a client who has been receiving continuous nasogastric (NG) tube suctioning for 48 hours due to a mechanical small bowel obstruction. The client is now reporting severe muscle cramping and tingling in the extremities. The nurse observes that the client's respirations are shallow at a rate of 10 breaths/min. Based on the client's clinical presentation and the physiological effects of gastric fluid loss, which of the following arterial blood gas (ABG) results should the nurse anticipate?

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Answer: pH 7.51, PaCO2 49 mm Hg, HCO3 34 mEq/L

Answer

The expected result is pH 7.51, PaCO2 49 mm Hg, HCO3 34 mEq/L, representing metabolic alkalosis with partial respiratory compensation.
The correct answer reflects an elevated pH (alkalosis) and an elevated HCO3 (metabolic origin), which is the direct result of acid loss from NG suctioning. Furthermore, the elevated PaCO2 correctly demonstrates the body's physiological adaptation of hypoventilating (shallow respirations at 10 breaths/min) to retain acid and partially compensate for the alkalosis.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary source of fluid loss and its effect on acid-base balance.
Continuous NG suctioning removes significant amounts of stomach acid (hydrochloric acid).
The loss of acid leaves the body with a relative excess of base (bicarbonate), leading to primary metabolic alkalosis (elevated pH and elevated HCO3).
2
Analyze the client's symptoms.
The client has muscle cramping, tingling, and a decreased respiratory rate (10 breaths/min).
Alkalosis causes a decrease in ionized calcium, resulting in neuromuscular irritability (tingling and cramping). The shallow, slow breathing is the body's expected physiological response.
3
Determine the body's compensatory mechanism for the primary imbalance.
The lungs compensate for metabolic alkalosis by hypoventilating.
Hypoventilation retains carbon dioxide (an acid) to help lower the pH back toward normal, resulting in an elevated PaCO2 level (partial respiratory compensation).
4
Select the ABG values that match these findings.
Identify the option with elevated pH (> 7.45), elevated HCO3 (> 26 mEq/L), and elevated PaCO2 (> 45 mm Hg).
Only the correct option demonstrates metabolic alkalosis with an elevated PaCO2, reflecting appropriate respiratory compensation.

Key Concept

Continuous loss of gastric acid through NG suctioning or vomiting leads to metabolic alkalosis. The body compensates for this imbalance through respiratory hypoventilation to retain CO2.
Question 3480Question →

A clinical protocol for unfractionated heparin is being used to manage a client with a recent pulmonary embolism. The client's admission weight is 75 kg75 \text{ kg}. The intravenous (IV) medication bag contains 25,000 units25,000 \text{ units} of heparin mixed in 250 mL250 \text{ mL} of 0.9% sodium chloride.

At 10:00, the client's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is reported as 4242 seconds. The client's heparin infusion is currently running at 15 units/kg/hr15 \text{ units/kg/hr}.

The facility's heparin nomogram includes the following directives:

aPTT ResultIV Bolus DirectiveContinuous Infusion Directive
3131 to 4545 seconds40 units/kg40 \text{ units/kg}Increase by 2 units/kg/hr2 \text{ units/kg/hr}
4646 to 7070 secondsNoneContinue current rate
7171 to 9090 secondsNoneDecrease by 2 units/kg/hr2 \text{ units/kg/hr}

After administering the required IV bolus, what is the correct new rate for the continuous infusion pump in mL/hr\text{mL/hr}? (Round to the nearest tenth).

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Answer: 12.8 mL/hr12.8 \text{ mL/hr}

Answer

The correct new rate for the continuous infusion pump is 12.8 mL/hr12.8 \text{ mL/hr}.
According to the protocol, an aPTT of 4242 seconds requires increasing the infusion by 2 units/kg/hr2 \text{ units/kg/hr}. The new dose is 17 units/kg/hr17 \text{ units/kg/hr}. For a 75 kg75 \text{ kg} client, this equals 1275 units/hr1275 \text{ units/hr}. Given a concentration of 100 units/mL100 \text{ units/mL} (25,000 units/250 mL25,000 \text{ units} / 250 \text{ mL}), the pump rate is 1275÷100=12.75 mL/hr1275 \div 100 = 12.75 \text{ mL/hr}, which rounds to 12.8 mL/hr12.8 \text{ mL/hr}.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the correct protocol directive based on the aPTT result.
The aPTT is 4242 seconds, falling into the 31-45 seconds range. The directive is to increase the continuous infusion by 2 units/kg/hr2 \text{ units/kg/hr}.
Applying the correct protocol action is required before calculating the new dosage.
2
Calculate the new weight-based dosage rate.
Current dose (15 units/kg/hr15 \text{ units/kg/hr}) + Increase (2 units/kg/hr2 \text{ units/kg/hr}) = 17 units/kg/hr17 \text{ units/kg/hr}.
The continuous infusion must be adjusted based on the client's body weight to safely reach the therapeutic range.
3
Calculate the total units per hour required for this client.
17 units/kg/hr×75 kg=1275 units/hr17 \text{ units/kg/hr} \times 75 \text{ kg} = 1275 \text{ units/hr}.
The pump requires a total volume per hour, so the weight-based dose must be converted to an absolute hourly dose.
4
Convert the hourly dose to a volume rate (mL/hr\text{mL/hr}) based on the drug concentration.
Concentration is 25,000 units/250 mL=100 units/mL25,000 \text{ units} / 250 \text{ mL} = 100 \text{ units/mL}. New Rate = 1275 units/hr÷100 units/mL=12.75 mL/hr1275 \text{ units/hr} \div 100 \text{ units/mL} = 12.75 \text{ mL/hr}.
Electronic infusion pumps are programmed in mL/hr\text{mL/hr}.
5
Round the final answer to the nearest tenth.
12.7512.75 rounds to 12.8 mL/hr12.8 \text{ mL/hr}.
Following specific rounding instructions is critical for accurate medication administration.

Key Concept

Calculating weight-based continuous IV medication titrations according to a standardized protocol
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