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Question 801Question →

A 42-year-old client is being monitored in the surgical step-down unit 18 hours after a subtotal thyroidectomy for the treatment of Graves' disease. The nurse is evaluating the client's current status to prevent post-operative complications. Which of the following assessment findings indicates the greatest risk for impending physiological decompensation and requires immediate intervention?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The client reports a mild tingling sensation around the lips and fingertips.

Answer

The client reporting a mild tingling sensation around the lips and fingertips.
The correct answer identifies circumoral paresthesia (tingling around the lips and fingertips) as the highest priority finding. During a thyroidectomy, the parathyroid glands can be inadvertently damaged or removed, leading to acute hypocalcemia. Tingling is an early, subtle indicator of hypocalcemia which, if left untreated, can rapidly progress to severe complications including tetany, seizures, and life-threatening laryngospasm. Recognizing this early sign allows for immediate risk mitigation through the administration of intravenous calcium gluconate.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the surgical procedure and its specific anatomical risks.
Identified risks for subtotal thyroidectomy include airway compromise, recurrent laryngeal nerve damage, and hypocalcemia from inadvertent parathyroid gland injury.
Understanding procedure-specific risks guides focused assessment for physiological decompensation.
2
Evaluate each assessment finding to distinguish expected postoperative variations from signs of impending crisis.
Hoarseness, semi-Fowler's positioning, and mild tachycardia are expected or therapeutic. The tingling sensation is an abnormal neurological finding.
Differentiating benign postoperative findings from life-threatening indicators prevents unnecessary interventions and ensures patient safety.
3
Correlate the abnormal finding with its physiological consequence to determine priority.
Circumoral paresthesia indicates early hypocalcemia, which can rapidly progress to tetany and fatal laryngospasm.
Establishes the highest priority for risk mitigation, prompting the administration of intravenous calcium gluconate.

Key Concept

Early recognition of post-thyroidectomy hypocalcemia
Question 802Question →

A surgical unit nurse is assessing a client who underwent a partial colectomy 8 hours ago. The client reports incisional pain rated as 4 on a 0 to 10 scale. Upon review of the electronic health record, the nurse notes the client's preoperative blood pressure was 128/76 mm Hg with a heart rate of 78 bpm. Current assessment reveals a blood pressure of 106/84 mm Hg, a heart rate of 116 bpm, and a respiratory rate of 22 breaths/min. Which action should the nurse take first?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Initiate a prescribed intravenous isotonic fluid bolus

Answer

Initiate a prescribed intravenous isotonic fluid bolus
The correct action directly addresses the client's circulatory compromise. A narrowing pulse pressure (the difference between systolic and diastolic pressure decreasing from 52 to 22 mm Hg) combined with tachycardia is a hallmark sign of early compensatory shock. As cardiac output drops, the body vasoconstricts to maintain blood pressure, which raises the diastolic number and keeps the systolic relatively stable initially. Administering an isotonic fluid bolus is the priority intervention to restore intravascular volume and maintain organ perfusion.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the baseline and current vital signs.
The pulse pressure has narrowed from 52 mm Hg to 22 mm Hg, and the heart rate has increased significantly from 78 bpm to 116 bpm.
Identifying trends in vital signs is essential for recognizing physiological decline.
2
Correlate the vital sign changes with the clinical context.
The postoperative client is showing early compensatory mechanisms (vasoconstriction and tachycardia) indicative of hypovolemic or hemorrhagic shock.
Recognizing early shock allows for prompt intervention before irreversible organ damage occurs.
3
Determine the highest priority nursing intervention.
Restoring intravascular volume with isotonic fluids is the most critical immediate action.
According to the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) of prioritizing care, circulatory collapse must be addressed immediately.

Key Concept

Early indicators of hypovolemic shock include tachycardia and a narrowing pulse pressure, which require immediate fluid resuscitation to prevent irreversible organ damage.
Question 803Question →

A nurse is assessing a client who returned to the telemetry unit 2 hours ago following a left heart catheterization performed via the right femoral artery. Which of the following findings require immediate intervention by the nurse? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The client reports new-onset, severe lower back pain.; The client's right foot is pale and the dorsalis pedis pulse is nonpalpable.; The client is resting in bed with the head elevated to a 60-degree angle.

Answer

The findings requiring immediate intervention are the new-onset severe lower back pain, the pale foot with a nonpalpable pulse, and the head of the bed elevated to 60 degrees.
The findings requiring immediate intervention are those that indicate a life-threatening complication or a breach of safety protocols. Severe lower back pain is a cardinal sign of retroperitoneal bleeding. A pale foot with an absent pulse indicates acute arterial occlusion, which rapidly compromises tissue perfusion. A head of bed elevated to 60 degrees causes excessive hip flexion, risking disruption of the arterial clot and severe hemorrhage.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the procedure and its associated physiological risks.
The client had a cardiac catheterization via the right femoral artery, placing them at high risk for arterial bleeding, hematoma, retroperitoneal hemorrhage, and neurovascular compromise.
Understanding procedural risks focuses the assessment on recognizing early, life-threatening complications.
2
Evaluate each finding to identify signs of complications.
Severe back pain indicates potential retroperitoneal bleeding. A pale foot with no pulse indicates arterial occlusion. A head of bed at 60 degrees increases femoral artery pressure and bleeding risk.
These three findings represent acute safety risks requiring immediate nursing or medical intervention.
3
Differentiate abnormal findings from expected physiological responses.
Normal ABG values, mild insertion site tenderness, and adequate urine output are all expected or positive findings following this procedure.
Expected findings do not require immediate intervention and represent stable physiological adaptation.

Key Concept

Reduction of Risk Potential: Post-Cardiac Catheterization Care
Question 804Question →

A registered nurse is providing care for a client who requires multiple intravenous (IV) therapies, including continuous fluids and scheduled intermittent medications. Which of the following actions indicate that the nurse is safely administering pharmacological and parenteral therapies? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Flushing the peripheral intravenous catheter with 0.9% sodium chloride to confirm patency before administering an intravenous push medication; Scrubbing the needleless connector hub of the intravenous catheter with an antiseptic wipe using friction for at least 15 seconds before access; Administering prescribed intravenous potassium chloride via an electronic infusion pump at a controlled rate of 10 mEq per hour

Answer

The correct actions include flushing the IV catheter to confirm patency, scrubbing the needleless hub for at least 15 seconds prior to access, and administering IV potassium chloride at a safe, controlled rate via an infusion pump.
Safe parenteral therapy requires proactive measures to prevent complications. Flushing the IV line confirms patency and prevents extravasation. Scrubbing the needleless hub with friction for 15 seconds prevents bloodstream infections. Administering potassium chloride via an infusion pump at a maximum rate of 10 mEq/hr prevents rapid infusion and subsequent fatal cardiac dysrhythmias.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze each nursing action for adherence to safety standards regarding parenteral therapy and infection control.
Identified that verifying patency, scrubbing the hub, and controlling potassium infusion rates meet essential safety standards.
Intravenous therapies carry high risks for infection, tissue damage, and systemic adverse reactions if strict protocols are not followed.
2
Evaluate the remaining actions for potential risks or deviations from safe practice.
Identified that failing to check drug compatibility, using estimated weights in pounds, and ignoring early signs of shock are unsafe practices.
These deviations can lead to drug precipitates, severe dosing errors, and delayed treatment of life-threatening complications.

Key Concept

Safe administration of parenteral therapies requires strict adherence to infection control (scrubbing the hub), continuous monitoring for adverse reactions, accurate dosage calculations based on measured kilograms, and verification of drug compatibility.
Question 805Question →

While performing bedside rounding on a gastroenterology unit, a nurse observes a client who had a percutaneous liver biopsy completed 45 minutes ago. Which finding requires the nurse to take immediate corrective action to prevent physiological decompensation?

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Answer: The client is lying in a left lateral decubitus position while conversing with a family member.

Answer

The client lying in a left lateral decubitus position requires immediate corrective action to prevent bleeding.
The liver is a highly vascular organ, and hemorrhage is the most dangerous complication following a percutaneous liver biopsy. To reduce this risk, the client must be positioned on their right side (the operative side) for a minimum of 2 hours post-procedure. This uses the client's own body weight to apply direct, external pressure to the liver capsule and puncture site. Lying on the left side removes this pressure and significantly increases the risk of life-threatening bleeding.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the post-procedure risks associated with a percutaneous liver biopsy.
The liver is a highly vascular organ, making internal hemorrhage the most significant and immediate life-threatening complication.
Identifying the primary risk determines which nursing interventions are essential for prevention.
2
Evaluate each observation to determine if it increases the risk of hemorrhage or indicates a clinical emergency.
Lying on the left side removes external pressure from the biopsy site, drastically increasing the risk of active bleeding.
Direct mechanical pressure is required to facilitate hemostasis at the hepatic puncture site.
3
Differentiate expected procedural findings and routine care from true clinical complications.
Right shoulder pain is an expected referred pain, a pulse pressure of 42 mm Hg is hemodynamically normal, and UAP delegation for vital signs is standard practice.
Clinical prioritization requires distinguishing between stable, expected assessments and true safety hazards.

Key Concept

Post-procedure care and therapeutic positioning to prevent hemorrhage following a liver biopsy.
Question 806Question →

A registered nurse is prioritizing care for a group of clients on a medical-surgical unit after receiving the shift handoff report. Which individual's clinical presentation requires the nurse's immediate intervention?

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Answer: A client admitted with acute pancreatitis who exhibits a resting heart rate of 124 beats/min124 \text{ beats/min}, a capillary refill time of 5 seconds5 \text{ seconds}, and new-onset confusion.

Answer

The client admitted with acute pancreatitis who exhibits a resting heart rate of 124 beats/min, a capillary refill time of 5 seconds, and new-onset confusion.
The correct answer identifies a client exhibiting classic manifestations of systemic inflammatory response and massive fluid shifts (third-spacing), which frequently complicate acute pancreatitis. A resting heart rate of 124 beats/minute, a prolonged capillary refill time of 5 seconds, and new-onset confusion are definitive signs of severely compromised tissue perfusion and decreased cerebral oxygenation. This client is in progressive hypovolemic shock and requires immediate intravenous fluid resuscitation to prevent cardiovascular collapse and multiorgan failure.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the arterial blood gas values for the client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
The pH is 7.36 (normal), indicating fully compensated respiratory acidosis, which is a stable baseline for this chronic condition.
To rule out acute respiratory failure.
2
Evaluate the clinical presentation of the client with acute pancreatitis.
Tachycardia, significantly delayed capillary refill, and confusion indicate severe fluid shifts (third-spacing) and poor systemic perfusion.
To identify subtle or rapidly progressing signs of impending cardiovascular collapse and hypovolemic shock.
3
Assess the severity of the symptoms in the clients with heart failure and postoperative appendectomy.
Weight gain and edema are subacute chronic issues; surgical site discomfort is an expected finding after an abdominal operation.
To differentiate between expected or subacute manifestations and true acute medical emergencies.
4
Apply the principles of triage and the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) to determine the highest priority.
The client with acute pancreatitis has an acute circulation and perfusion deficit.
Life-threatening circulatory collapse must be addressed before stable chronic conditions or expected postoperative pain.

Key Concept

Prioritization: Recognizing Shock and Physiological Decompensation
Question 807Question →

A nurse is preparing to remove a client's non-tunneled central venous catheter (CVC). To minimize the risk of an air embolism and ensure client safety, arrange the following nursing actions in the correct chronological sequence.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

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Answer

The correct sequence is to first place the client in a supine position, then instruct them to perform the Valsalva maneuver, followed by withdrawing the catheter, applying immediate firm pressure, and finally securing an occlusive dressing.
Removing a central venous catheter involves a significant risk of an air embolism if intrathoracic pressure falls below atmospheric pressure. By initially placing the client in a supine position and subsequently having them perform the Valsalva maneuver, the nurse artificially raises the central venous pressure. Withdrawing the catheter exclusively during this positive-pressure phase, immediately applying firm pressure to the site, and finally sealing the tract with an occlusive dressing effectively mitigates this life-threatening risk in the correct physiological sequence.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Place the client in a supine position.
Central venous pressure is increased.
Supine positioning uses gravity to prevent a negative pressure gradient, reducing the risk of air being drawn into the vein.
2
Instruct the client to bear down (Valsalva maneuver).
Intrathoracic pressure increases significantly.
Creates a positive pressure environment in the central veins, blocking potential air entry.
3
Withdraw the catheter smoothly.
The catheter is removed safely.
The device is removed precisely while the protective positive pressure is actively maintained by the client.
4
Apply firm pressure to the site with sterile gauze.
Bleeding is controlled and the tract is compressed.
Promotes hemostasis and prevents any immediate air entry through the newly opened skin tract.
5
Apply an occlusive dressing over the insertion site.
An airtight seal is established.
Prevents delayed air entry as the internal tract fully closes.

Key Concept

Reduction of Risk Potential: Central Venous Catheter Removal
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 808Question →

While conducting a physiological assessment on a client who experienced an anterior wall myocardial infarction the previous day, the nurse suspects the onset of hemodynamic compromise. Which clinical manifestations indicate the early development of cardiogenic shock? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Restlessness and new-onset confusion; Apical heart rate of 122 beats per minute; Urine output of 15 mL over the past hour

Answer

The correct indicators of early cardiogenic shock are restlessness and new-onset confusion, an apical heart rate of 122 beats per minute, and a urine output of 15 mL over the past hour.
In early cardiogenic shock, decreased cardiac output triggers the sympathetic nervous system. This compensatory response causes tachycardia to increase cardiac output and shunts blood away from non-vital organs (causing oliguria, such as 15 mL/hr) and the skin. Furthermore, the brain is highly sensitive to slight drops in oxygenation, making restlessness and confusion very early indicators of compromised systemic perfusion.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the pathophysiology of the condition.
Cardiogenic shock results from severe impairment of ventricular pumping action, leading to decreased cardiac output and systemic hypoperfusion.
Understanding the core mechanism explains the body's compensatory responses.
2
Identify early compensatory mechanisms.
The sympathetic nervous system activates, causing tachycardia to increase cardiac output and peripheral vasoconstriction to maintain blood pressure and shunt blood to vital organs.
These early physiological mechanisms produce specific clinical signs before profound hypotension occurs.
3
Evaluate the given options against known shock indicators.
Tachycardia, oliguria, and altered mental status are early signs of poor perfusion. Widening pulse pressure and warm skin contradict the sympathetic vasoconstrictive response seen in cardiogenic shock.
Differentiating between true cardiogenic shock signs and those of other shock types is essential for prompt, accurate intervention.

Key Concept

Early recognition of cardiogenic shock
Question 809Question →

A 62-year-old client is transferred to the medical-surgical unit after undergoing an esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) with gastric biopsies. Which of the following assessment findings or situations require immediate intervention by the nurse? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: A resting heart rate of 114 beats/min accompanied by a narrowing pulse pressure; The client's abdomen feels rigid and board-like during light palpation; The client develops a sudden temperature elevation to 101.5°F (38.6°C)

Answer

The findings requiring immediate intervention are a resting heart rate of 114 beats/min with a narrowing pulse pressure, a rigid and board-like abdomen, and a sudden temperature elevation.
Following an EGD with biopsies, the nurse must monitor for severe complications such as hemorrhage and perforation. A narrowing pulse pressure combined with tachycardia indicates early hypovolemic shock resulting from internal bleeding. A rigid, board-like abdomen and a sudden fever are classic indicators of visceral perforation and resulting peritonitis. These three findings are life-threatening and require immediate medical intervention.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the procedure and its associated risks.
An EGD with biopsies carries primary risks of gastrointestinal hemorrhage, visceral perforation, and aspiration.
Understanding the risks directs the focused post-operative physical assessment.
2
Evaluate the hemodynamic and systemic assessment findings.
Tachycardia with a narrowing pulse pressure suggests early shock (bleeding). A rigid abdomen and sudden fever suggest peritonitis (perforation).
These are life-threatening physiological complications requiring emergency medical management.
3
Evaluate the remaining options for expected post-procedure status.
Belching, an absent gag reflex at 30 minutes, and lateral positioning are all normal or therapeutic aspects of post-EGD care.
Recognizing expected findings prevents unnecessary interventions and focuses attention on true instability.

Key Concept

Reduction of Risk Potential: Post-Endoscopy Complications
Question 810Question →

A nurse is caring for an adult client admitted with a traumatic brain injury who is receiving a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of 5% dextrose in water (D5W) at 75 mL/hr. Following a brief generalized tonic-clonic seizure, the healthcare provider prescribes a stat loading dose of IV phenytoin. Which of the following is the most appropriate action by the nurse?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Stop the D5W infusion, flush the IV line with 0.9% sodium chloride, administer the phenytoin, and flush again with 0.9% sodium chloride.

Answer

Stop the D5W infusion, flush the IV line with 0.9% sodium chloride, administer the phenytoin, and flush again with 0.9% sodium chloride.
The correct action demonstrates an understanding of IV drug compatibility. Phenytoin is highly incompatible with any solution containing dextrose (such as D5W) because it will immediately precipitate and form crystals. To safely administer phenytoin through an existing IV line infusing D5W, the nurse must temporarily stop the primary dextrose infusion. Then, the nurse must flush the line with a compatible solution, which is 0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline), to clear the dextrose. After administering the phenytoin at the appropriate rate, the line must be flushed again with normal saline before restarting the D5W infusion. This isolates the incompatible medication and ensures patient safety.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the compatibility of the prescribed IV medication (phenytoin) with the current continuous IV fluid (D5W).
Determine that phenytoin is physically incompatible with solutions containing dextrose.
Administering incompatible medications together can cause precipitation, rendering the drug ineffective and potentially creating a life-threatening embolus.
2
Determine the appropriate diluent and flush solution for phenytoin.
Identify that phenytoin is only compatible with 0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline).
Normal saline prevents the crystallization of phenytoin in the IV tubing.
3
Formulate a safe administration sequence.
Stop the primary D5W infusion, flush with 0.9% sodium chloride, administer the medication slowly, and flush again with 0.9% sodium chloride before restarting the D5W.
This 'sandwich' technique ensures the incompatible medication never comes into contact with the dextrose solution in the tubing.

Key Concept

IV Medication Compatibility and Safe Administration Guidelines
Question 811Question →

A critical care nurse is evaluating a 68-year-old client who is 4 hours post-operative following an open abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) repair. The client has a continuous intravenous infusion, an indwelling urinary catheter, and a nasogastric tube to low wall suction. Which clinical findings should the nurse identify as indicators of impending physiological decompensation that require immediate intervention? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Urine output of 30 mL total recorded over the past two hours; Lower extremities that are cool to the touch with pedal pulses absent by Doppler; Heart rate increasing gradually from 82 to 118 beats per minute with a narrowing pulse pressure

Answer

The correct findings indicating decompensation are a urine output of 30 mL over two hours, cool lower extremities with absent pedal pulses, and a rising heart rate with a narrowing pulse pressure.
Following an open AAA repair, the most critical risks are hemorrhage and graft occlusion. A urine output of less than 30 mL/hr (30 mL over two hours = 15 mL/hr) indicates severely compromised renal perfusion, potentially due to occlusion above the renal arteries or systemic hypovolemia. Tachycardia with a narrowing pulse pressure is the body's early compensatory response to active internal bleeding and hypovolemic shock. Furthermore, cool extremities with absent pedal pulses indicate an acute lack of peripheral blood flow, strongly suggesting an arterial graft occlusion that requires immediate surgical evaluation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the surgical procedure and the timeframe.
The client is in the early post-operative phase (4 hours) following an open abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) repair.
This establishes the client's high risk for life-threatening complications, specifically hemorrhage, graft occlusion, and acute renal failure.
2
Evaluate the clinical findings for signs of graft occlusion or ischemia.
A urine output of 15 mL/hr (30 mL over two hours) and absent pedal pulses by Doppler are identified as abnormal.
Urine output less than 30 mL/hr indicates renal hypoperfusion, while absent pedal pulses indicate acute peripheral graft occlusion.
3
Assess the vital signs for indicators of hemodynamic instability.
The heart rate has increased to 118 bpm alongside a narrowing pulse pressure.
These are key early indicators of compensatory hemorrhagic shock, requiring immediate volume resuscitation or surgical return.
4
Differentiate critical complications from expected post-operative findings.
The ABG values are identified as normal, and hypoactive bowel sounds are identified as an expected post-surgical finding.
Recognizing normal baseline data prevents unnecessary interventions and focuses the nurse's attention on true physiological decompensation.

Key Concept

Early recognition of hemorrhage, renal ischemia, and graft occlusion following major vascular surgery.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 812Question →

A healthcare provider prescribes a continuous intravenous heparin infusion for a client diagnosed with a deep vein thrombosis. The client weighs 92 kg92\text{ kg}. The facility's weight-based heparin protocol requires an initial infusion rate of 18 units/kg/hr18\text{ units/kg/hr}. The pharmacy dispenses a premixed intravenous bag containing 25,000 units25,000\text{ units} of heparin in 250 mL250\text{ mL} of 5% Dextrose in Water5\%\text{ Dextrose in Water}. At what rate, in mL/hr\text{mL/hr}, should the infusion pump be programmed? Record your answer using one decimal place.

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 16.6

Answer

16.6
The correct infusion rate is calculated by first determining the hourly weight-based dose (92 kg×18 units/kg/hr=1656 units/hr92\text{ kg} \times 18\text{ units/kg/hr} = 1656\text{ units/hr}). This dose is then divided by the concentration of the heparin solution (100 units/mL100\text{ units/mL}) to yield 16.56 mL/hr16.56\text{ mL/hr}. Rounding to one decimal place gives 16.6 mL/hr16.6\text{ mL/hr}.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Calculate the total required hourly dose of heparin.
1656 units/hr1656\text{ units/hr}
The prescribed rate is weight-based (18 units/kg/hr18\text{ units/kg/hr}), so it must be multiplied by the client's total body weight (92 kg92\text{ kg}).
2
Determine the concentration of the intravenous heparin bag.
100 units/mL100\text{ units/mL}
To convert the hourly dose from units to milliliters, the concentration of the available solution (25,000 units÷250 mL25,000\text{ units} \div 250\text{ mL}) must be calculated.
3
Calculate the infusion pump rate.
16.56 mL/hr16.56\text{ mL/hr}
Dividing the required hourly dose (1656 units/hr1656\text{ units/hr}) by the solution concentration (100 units/mL100\text{ units/mL}) yields the volume to be infused per hour.
4
Round to the nearest tenth.
16.616.6
The question specifically asks to record the answer using one decimal place.

Key Concept

Weight-based intravenous medication dosage calculation and pump rate programming.
Question 813Question →

Following a left-sided thoracentesis for a massive pleural effusion, a client is now recovering on the respiratory step-down unit. The procedure yielded 1,200 mL of fluid. During the initial post-procedure assessment, which observation demands the most urgent intervention by the nurse?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The onset of a persistent, hacking cough combined with unequal chest wall movement

Answer

The onset of a persistent, hacking cough combined with unequal chest wall movement.
A sudden, persistent dry cough, dyspnea, and asymmetrical chest expansion are classic manifestations of a pneumothorax. Because a thoracentesis involves inserting a needle into the pleural space, accidentally puncturing the visceral pleura is a primary risk. Identifying these respiratory changes promptly is critical to reducing the risk of severe physiological decompensation, such as a tension pneumothorax, and requires immediate medical intervention.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the procedure and its associated risks.
The client underwent a left-sided thoracentesis, which carries a primary risk of pneumothorax due to potential needle puncture of the lung tissue.
Identifying procedure-specific risks guides the targeted physical assessment and prioritization.
2
Evaluate the clinical observations in each option against expected post-procedure outcomes.
The ABG is normal, mild tachycardia is an expected stress response, and lying on the unaffected side is a safe positioning choice. The sudden cough and asymmetrical chest movement represent abnormal, high-risk pathology.
Differentiating between benign physiological responses and pathological changes is essential for accurate risk reduction.
3
Determine the priority intervention based on the abnormal finding.
The persistent cough and asymmetrical chest expansion indicate a developing pneumothorax, requiring immediate provider notification.
Early identification of respiratory compromise prevents severe physiological decompensation.

Key Concept

Thoracentesis Complications and Risk Reduction
Question 814Question →

Following an open laparotomy, a client is receiving pain management via a continuous epidural infusion containing bupivacaine and fentanyl. Upon entering the room, the nurse observes that the client is deeply sedated and unarousable. The client's respiratory rate is 7 breaths per minute. Which action represents the nurse's immediate priority?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Stop the epidural infusion and prepare to administer intravenous naloxone.

Answer

The immediate priority is to stop the epidural infusion and prepare to administer intravenous naloxone.
The client is exhibiting severe respiratory depression (7 breaths per minute) and profound sedation, which are signs of opioid toxicity from the epidural fentanyl. The nurse's absolute priority is to address the breathing compromise (ABCs) by immediately stopping the source of the medication and preparing the specific pharmacological antidote, naloxone, to reverse the respiratory depression.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Recognize the clinical signs presented in the scenario.
The client is unarousable with a respiratory rate of 7 breaths per minute.
These are hallmark indicators of severe opioid toxicity induced by the fentanyl in the epidural infusion.
2
Prioritize nursing interventions using the ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) framework.
Breathing is severely compromised and takes absolute priority over other assessments.
Respiratory failure is the most immediate threat to the client's life.
3
Determine the appropriate pharmacological and parenteral intervention.
Halt the continuous epidural infusion and prepare the opioid antagonist.
Stopping the epidural prevents further medication delivery, and naloxone reverses the existing central nervous system and respiratory depression.

Key Concept

Management of opioid toxicity and safe administration of continuous epidural therapies.
Question 815Question →

A nurse is assessing a client admitted with severe pyelonephritis who is suspected of developing early (hyperdynamic) septic shock. Which of the following clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to find during this initial compensatory stage? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Heart rate of 118 beats/min; Respiratory rate of 28 breaths/min; Warm, flushed skin

Answer

The correct findings include a heart rate of 118 beats/min, a respiratory rate of 28 breaths/min, and warm, flushed skin.
In early septic shock, endotoxins trigger a systemic inflammatory response leading to profound peripheral vasodilation. This hyperdynamic state causes the skin to be warm and flushed. To compensate for the decreased systemic vascular resistance and maintain oxygen delivery, the heart rate and respiratory rate increase.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's condition and the stage of shock presented in the scenario.
The client is in the early (hyperdynamic or 'warm') stage of septic shock.
Identifying the specific type and stage of shock is essential for predicting the physiological manifestations.
2
Evaluate the hemodynamic and respiratory changes typical of early septic shock.
Inflammatory mediators cause massive vasodilation (warm, flushed skin), leading to a compensatory increase in heart rate (tachycardia) and respiratory rate (tachypnea).
The body attempts to maintain oxygen delivery and cardiac output despite decreased systemic vascular resistance.
3
Differentiate these early signs from late septic shock or other types of shock.
Cool extremities, narrowing pulse pressure, and respiratory acidosis are eliminated as they represent late septic shock or hypovolemic/cardiogenic shock.
Applying the correct physiological adaptation principles prevents confusing different shock etiologies and stages.

Key Concept

In the early (hyperdynamic) stage of septic shock, inflammatory mediators cause massive systemic vasodilation resulting in warm, flushed skin, bounding pulses, tachycardia, and tachypnea.
Question 816Question →

Following a high-speed collision, an adult client is brought into the trauma bay with a suspected splenic laceration. Initial assessment reveals generalized restlessness, pale mucous membranes, a blood pressure of 96/76 mm Hg, and an apical pulse of 118 beats/min. A stat arterial blood gas panel indicates a pH of 7.29, PaCO2 of 35 mm Hg, and HCO3 of 16 mEq/L. Which intervention should the nurse implement immediately?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Initiate rapid intravenous infusion of an isotonic crystalloid solution

Answer

Initiate rapid intravenous infusion of an isotonic crystalloid solution
The client's narrow pulse pressure, tachycardia, restlessness, and metabolic acidosis all point to hemorrhagic shock and poor tissue perfusion. The most critical immediate action is to restore circulating volume using isotonic fluids to improve blood pressure, cardiac output, and cellular oxygen delivery.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the vital signs and physical assessment findings.
The client has a narrow pulse pressure of 20 mm Hg (96 - 76 = 20), tachycardia (118 beats/min), restlessness, and pale mucous membranes.
These findings are classic early indicators of compensatory hypovolemic (hemorrhagic) shock due to acute blood loss.
2
Interpret the arterial blood gas (ABG) results.
A pH of 7.29 and HCO3 of 16 mEq/L indicate metabolic acidosis.
In the context of trauma and hypoperfusion, this represents lactic acidosis caused by anaerobic metabolism from inadequate cellular oxygen delivery.
3
Prioritize the immediate nursing interventions based on the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation).
The immediate priority is restoring circulating blood volume to support circulation and perfusion.
Administering isotonic crystalloids addresses the root cause of both the shock and the secondary metabolic acidosis.

Key Concept

Recognizing and managing hypovolemic shock and secondary lactic acidosis in trauma clients.
Question 817Question →

A nurse is caring for an older adult client who underwent a right total hip arthroplasty 12 hours ago. During the assessment, the nurse notes the client is increasingly restless and confused. Vital parameters are: heart rate 118 beats per minute, blood pressure 92/60 mm Hg, and respiratory rate 28 breaths per minute. A point-of-care arterial blood sample reveals a pH of 7.28, PaCO2 of 56 mm Hg, and HCO3- of 24 mEq/L. Which initial action should the nurse take to minimize the risk of further clinical deterioration?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Apply supplemental oxygen and notify the rapid response team.

Answer

Apply supplemental oxygen and notify the rapid response team.
The client is exhibiting early signs of shock and respiratory failure (tachycardia, hypotension, restlessness, confusion), which are critical complications following major orthopedic surgery like a total hip arthroplasty. The arterial blood gas confirms uncompensated respiratory acidosis (low pH, high PaCO2). Applying supplemental oxygen addresses the immediate physiological deficit, while activating the rapid response team brings critical care resources to manage the impending systemic collapse.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's vital signs and clinical presentation.
The client is tachycardic, hypotensive, tachypneic, restless, and confused.
These are early clinical indicators of shock, hypoxia, or a complication such as a pulmonary embolism or hemorrhage, which require immediate life-saving intervention.
2
Interpret the point-of-care arterial blood gas values.
The pH is 7.28 (acidotic), PaCO2 is 56 mm Hg (elevated), and HCO3- is 24 mEq/L (normal).
This confirms uncompensated respiratory acidosis, meaning the client is retaining carbon dioxide and failing to ventilate adequately.
3
Select the intervention that best mitigates the acute risk without causing procedural harm.
Providing supplemental oxygen and activating the rapid response team is the safest and most effective initial action.
It supports the failing respiratory system while mobilizing the necessary advanced care providers to treat the underlying cause of shock.

Key Concept

Early recognition of shock and uncompensated respiratory acidosis in post-operative orthopedic clients.
Question 818Question →

An emergency department nurse is managing the care of a client who presents with suspected septic shock secondary to pneumonia. Initial vital signs include a blood pressure of 88/54 mmHg, heart rate of 112 beats/min, respiratory rate of 22 breaths/min, and an oral temperature of 39.1 °C (102.4 °F). A peripheral intravenous (IV) line is currently infusing 0.9% sodium chloride. After reviewing the newly prescribed parenteral therapies, which of the following actions indicate safe pharmacological practice? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Initiate the prescribed secondary intravenous infusion of ceftriaxone through the existing 0.9% sodium chloride line.; Prepare to titrate a prescribed continuous intravenous infusion of norepinephrine if the client's mean arterial pressure remains below 65 mmHg after fluid resuscitation.; Assess the client's peripheral pulses and urine output frequently after initiating the prescribed continuous norepinephrine infusion.

Answer

The correct actions are to initiate the ceftriaxone through the compatible normal saline line, prepare to titrate norepinephrine for persistent hypotension, and closely assess peripheral pulses and urine output during the vasopressor infusion.
In the management of severe sepsis, early administration of intravenous antibiotics is a critical priority; ceftriaxone is physically compatible with 0.9% sodium chloride and can be safely administered through this existing line. If the client's hypotension does not resolve with fluid resuscitation, a vasopressor like norepinephrine is indicated to maintain a mean arterial pressure greater than 65 mmHg. Because norepinephrine causes profound vasoconstriction, the nurse must closely monitor markers of end-organ perfusion, such as urine output and peripheral pulses, to ensure tissue viability.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation.
The client is exhibiting signs of severe sepsis and septic shock, indicated by significant hypotension, tachycardia, and fever.
Identifying the client's physiological state determines the priority and appropriateness of nursing interventions.
2
Evaluate the safety and priority of the proposed parenteral therapies.
Antibiotics (ceftriaxone) are a top priority and are compatible with 0.9% sodium chloride. Norepinephrine is indicated for fluid-refractory hypotension and requires careful monitoring of tissue perfusion.
Safe pharmacological administration requires verifying compatibility, correct indications, and understanding necessary monitoring parameters.
3
Identify contraindicated and unsafe actions.
Delaying antibiotics, using historical weights for critical weight-based drips, and mixing incompatible drugs (levofloxacin and heparin) are identified as unsafe practices.
These actions directly compromise patient safety and violate medication administration standards.

Key Concept

Safe administration of parenteral therapies in severe sepsis requires immediate prioritization of antibiotics, strict verification of IV compatibility, use of accurate current weights for vasoactive infusions, and continuous monitoring of end-organ perfusion.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 819Question →

A nurse is caring for a client with a T3 spinal cord injury who suddenly reports a severe, throbbing headache. The client presents with facial erythema, diaphoresis above the level of the lesion, and a blood pressure of 215/115 mmHg. Arrange the following nursing actions in the correct priority sequence from first to last.

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Answer

The correct priority sequence is: Position the client in a high-Fowler's position, then loosen restrictive clothing, followed by assessing the urinary catheter, and finally administering the antihypertensive medication.
Autonomic dysreflexia is a medical emergency characterized by uncontrolled hypertension in clients with spinal cord injuries at or above T6. The initial action is always to elevate the head of the bed to 90 degrees (high-Fowler's) to immediately decrease blood pressure through orthostasis. Next, constrictive clothing should be loosened to remove surface stimuli. The nurse then systematically assesses for and eliminates the noxious stimulus, starting with the most common cause: bladder distension or catheter obstruction. Finally, if conservative measures fail to lower the blood pressure, prescribed antihypertensives are administered.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Position the client in a high-Fowler's position.
The client is sitting upright, utilizing gravity to induce orthostatic hypotension.
Extreme hypertension places the client at immediate risk for a cerebral hemorrhage. Sitting the client up is the fastest way to lower blood pressure before gathering equipment or conducting further assessments.
2
Loosen any restrictive clothing or tight devices.
Potential cutaneous triggers, such as a tight belt or restrictive blanket, are removed.
Cutaneous stimulation can trigger or exacerbate the sympathetic nervous system response. This is a rapid intervention performed immediately after positioning.
3
Assess the indwelling urinary catheter tubing for kinks or obstruction.
The nurse checks for the most common cause of autonomic dysreflexia.
A distended bladder is the leading cause of this condition. Identifying and eliminating the noxious stimulus is the primary definitive treatment to stop the sympathetic surge.
4
Administer the prescribed PRN rapid-acting antihypertensive medication.
Pharmacological management is initiated to control blood pressure.
If removing the noxious stimuli (such as clothing or bladder distension) does not quickly resolve the crisis, or if the cause cannot be immediately found, antihypertensive medications are required to protect the client.

Key Concept

Autonomic Dysreflexia Prioritization
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 820Question →

An emergency department nurse is evaluating a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who was brought in with pronounced weakness, altered mental status, and a two-day history of a gastrointestinal viral infection. The client's initial arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis reveals a pH of 7.22, PaCO2 of 28 mm Hg, and HCO3 of 13 mEq/L. Based on these physiological parameters and the suspected underlying condition, which of the following assessment findings should the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.)

Select all that apply

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Answer: Deep, rapid, and unlabored respiratory pattern; Tachycardia accompanied by weak, thready peripheral pulses; Decreased skin turgor and parched mucous membranes

Answer

The expected assessment findings are a deep, rapid, and unlabored respiratory pattern; tachycardia accompanied by weak, thready peripheral pulses; and decreased skin turgor with parched mucous membranes.
The client is experiencing diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), evidenced by the severe metabolic acidosis on the ABG analysis. The body physiologically adapts to metabolic acidosis by increasing the rate and depth of respirations (Kussmaul respirations) to expel excess carbon dioxide. Furthermore, DKA causes severe osmotic diuresis, leading to profound dehydration and impending hypovolemic shock, which manifest as poor skin turgor, dry mucous membranes, tachycardia, and weak peripheral pulses.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the arterial blood gas (ABG) values.
The pH is 7.22 (acidemia), HCO3 is 13 mEq/L (metabolic acidosis), and PaCO2 is 28 mm Hg (partial respiratory compensation).
Accurate ABG interpretation is essential to determine the primary acid-base imbalance and the body's compensatory mechanisms.
2
Correlate the ABG results and clinical history with a specific pathophysiological state.
The combination of type 1 diabetes, a precipitating infection, and severe metabolic acidosis indicates the development of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA).
Identifying the underlying condition allows the nurse to anticipate systemic physiological adaptations and potential complications.
3
Identify expected assessment findings based on the pathophysiology of DKA.
The nurse should expect Kussmaul respirations (to compensate for acidosis) and signs of profound dehydration and early hypovolemic shock (due to osmotic diuresis).
Clinical manifestations are direct results of the body's attempts to manage severe acidosis and profound fluid volume deficit.
4
Evaluate each option against the expected physiological findings.
Select the options describing Kussmaul respirations, tachycardia with weak pulses, and poor skin turgor. Reject options describing alkalosis (tetany) or fluid overload (jugular venous distention).
Distinguishing between expected signs and distractors representing opposing physiological states ensures correct clinical judgment.

Key Concept

Physiological adaptation and compensatory mechanisms in Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA) and Metabolic Acidosis
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