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Question 861Question →

A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is developing a plan of care for a newly admitted adult client who practices Islam. Which nursing interventions demonstrate cultural awareness and sensitivity? Select all that apply.

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Answer: Ask the client about any specific dietary restrictions or food preferences.; Provide uninterrupted time and a private environment for the client to perform daily prayers.; Discuss the client's comfort level and preferences regarding the gender of healthcare providers.; Collaborate with the pharmacy to ensure the client's prescribed liquid medications do not contain alcohol.

Answer

The correct interventions are asking the client about dietary preferences, providing privacy for daily prayers, discussing preferences regarding the gender of caregivers, and ensuring liquid medications do not contain alcohol.
Culturally competent care requires the nurse to individualize the care plan by assessing the client's specific dietary needs and evaluating their preferences regarding the gender of caregivers. Accommodating spiritual practices, such as providing privacy for daily prayers, demonstrates respect for the client's psychosocial well-being. Additionally, collaborating with the pharmacy to avoid alcohol-containing medications aligns with Islamic dietary laws, which strictly prohibit the consumption of alcohol.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify potential cultural and spiritual needs based on the client's Islamic faith.
Recognize that the client may have specific requirements regarding diet (Halal), modesty, and daily prayer rituals.
Cultural awareness begins with understanding the general practices associated with a client's background.
2
Evaluate each nursing intervention for client-centered care and cultural sensitivity.
Determine which actions respect the client's autonomy without making rigid assumptions.
Culturally competent care requires treating the client as an individual rather than stereotyping based on their religion.
3
Select the interventions that actively assess preferences and safely accommodate religious practices.
Choose the options that involve individualized assessment, spiritual accommodation, and medication safety regarding alcohol.
These actions directly align with the standards of culturally competent nursing practice.

Key Concept

Cultural Awareness and Cultural Influences on Health
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 862Question →

A preceptor is evaluating a newly licensed nurse on the implementation of clinical safety protocols in a medical-surgical unit. Which of the following actions by the newly licensed nurse demonstrate correct adherence to safety guidelines? (Select all that apply.)

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Answer: Verifying a client's identity by asking them to state their full name and date of birth while comparing it to the identification band and medication record.; Utilizing a specialized enteral syringe with a non-Luer tip to administer prescribed liquid medications through a client's gastrostomy tube.; Discarding the remaining portion of a single-dose vial of a controlled substance in a designated receptacle while a second licensed nurse observes the process.

Answer

The correct actions that adhere to safety protocols are verifying the client's identity using two active identifiers, utilizing non-Luer tip syringes for enteral tubes, and having a second nurse witness and document the wasting of a controlled substance.
Adhering to safety guidelines requires active patient identification (having the client state their name and date of birth) to prevent wrong-patient errors. Using enteral-specific syringes with non-Luer tips is critical to prevent accidental intravenous administration of enteral fluids. Finally, wasting controlled substances requires a witness by a second licensed nurse to prevent diversion and ensure safety compliance.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the scenario to determine the focus of the question.
The question asks to identify nursing actions that correctly implement safety protocols and prevent errors or injuries.
Differentiating between safe and unsafe clinical practices is essential for medical error mitigation and environmental safety.
2
Evaluate the actions regarding patient identification and medication preparation.
Asking the client to actively state their name and using a non-Luer syringe for enteral medications are both correct safety practices.
These actions directly prevent wrong-patient and wrong-route administration errors.
3
Evaluate the actions involving delegation, restraints, and infection control.
Delegating an initial assessment, applying restraints before trying alternatives, and using alcohol rub for C. diff are unsafe practices.
Initial assessments are strictly the RN's responsibility; restraints require prior exhaustion of alternatives; and C. diff spores require soap and water.
4
Evaluate the action regarding controlled substances.
Wasting a controlled substance with a licensed witness is a correct safety practice.
It prevents medication diversion and complies with institutional safety standards.

Key Concept

Accident, Error, and Injury Prevention
Question 863Question →

A home health nurse is conducting a visit for a 72-year-old client whose adult child died unexpectedly in a motor vehicle collision two days ago. Upon the nurse's arrival, the client is pacing rapidly, clutching their chest, and crying, 'I cannot breathe, my heart is breaking, make it stop!' The client's 14-year-old grandchild is sitting silently in the corner of the room. Which of the following nursing actions are appropriate? Select all that apply.

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Answer: Remain with the client and immediately assess their vital signs and respiratory status.; Speak to the client using a calm tone and short, simple sentences.; Validate the client's emotional pain by stating, 'You are experiencing an unimaginable loss right now.'

Answer

The correct actions are to remain with the client to assess vital signs immediately, speak in a calm tone using short sentences, and validate the client's emotional pain.
The correct interventions prioritize client safety while providing appropriate psychosocial support. A client presenting with chest pain and shortness of breath must immediately be assessed physiologically to rule out a medical emergency, even in the context of acute grief. Because severe anxiety impairs cognitive processing, the nurse should use short, simple sentences. Validating the client's profound loss demonstrates empathy and builds a therapeutic relationship.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the client's physiological safety.
The nurse must rule out a physical emergency (e.g., myocardial infarction or respiratory distress) before assuming the symptoms are solely due to acute grief.
Chest pain and shortness of breath always require immediate physiological assessment, according to Maslow's hierarchy of needs and the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation).
2
Implement crisis communication techniques.
Using a calm tone and short, simple sentences helps the client process information.
During acute panic or severe distress, the client's cognitive ability to process complex information is significantly reduced.
3
Apply therapeutic communication principles.
Validating the client's pain provides emotional support without minimizing the loss.
Platitudes block communication, whereas acknowledgment fosters a therapeutic environment and builds trust.

Key Concept

In acute grief presenting with physical symptoms, the nurse must first prioritize physiological safety (ABCs) and then use crisis and therapeutic communication techniques, while respecting the developmental grieving needs of all family members.
Question 864Question →

A nurse is administering a prescribed intravenous medication to a client via an electronic infusion pump. Shortly after the medication is initiated, the client suddenly reports a severe headache, a tight feeling in the chest, and dizziness. The nurse observes intense facial flushing and notes a rapid, irregular pulse. Recognizing these manifestations as speed shock, in what chronological order should the nurse perform the following interventions? Arrange the actions from first to last.

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Answer

The correct sequence for managing speed shock is: Stop the medication infusion -> Disconnect the tubing and attach a new administration set primed with saline -> Obtain a complete set of vital signs -> Report the findings to the healthcare provider -> Document the event in the health record.
The correct sequence prioritizes immediate client safety by stopping the infusion first. Crucially, the nurse must change the entire tubing setup before running normal saline to prevent flushing residual medication into the client. Assessment follows to gather objective data, which is then communicated to the provider. Documentation occurs last, only after the client has been stabilized.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Stop the medication infusion immediately to halt further drug delivery.
Prevents additional concentrated medication from rapidly entering the client's bloodstream.
Speed shock is a systemic reaction caused by the rapid accumulation of a drug in the circulation; stopping the source is the immediate life-saving priority.
2
Disconnect the medication tubing and attach a new administration set primed with 0.9% sodium chloride.
Maintains patent intravenous access for potential emergency medications while completely eliminating the source of the offending drug.
Flushing the existing tubing would push a concentrated bolus of the residual medication into the client, severely exacerbating the speed shock reaction.
3
Obtain a complete set of vital signs and evaluate the client's cardiopulmonary status.
Provides objective clinical data regarding the severity of the client's hemodynamic compromise.
Accurate assessment data is required to determine the client's immediate stability and to formulate an effective SBAR communication for the healthcare provider.
4
Report the adverse reaction and current assessment findings to the healthcare provider.
Facilitates collaborative emergency care and the acquisition of new pharmacological prescriptions.
The provider must be informed of the adverse event, equipped with recent vital signs, to direct further medical management appropriately.
5
Document the event, interventions provided, and the client's physiological response in the health record.
Creates an accurate legal and medical record of the adverse drug event.
Documentation is critical but should always occur after the client is stabilized and immediate life-saving interventions are complete.

Key Concept

Management of Intravenous Speed Shock and Safe Parenteral Infusion Practices
Question 865Question →

A registered nurse (RN) is caring for a 75-year-old client experiencing acute delirium secondary to a severe infection. The client is restless, repeatedly attempts to pull out a continuous intravenous (IV) catheter, and tries to climb over the bed rails. The client's visiting adult child becomes frustrated and demands that the nurse physically restrain the client to prevent injury. Which legally sound nursing action should the RN implement first?

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Answer: Relocate the client to a room closer to the nurses' station, conceal the IV tubing, and attempt reorientation before considering restrictive measures.

Answer

The nurse should relocate the client, conceal the IV tubing, and attempt reorientation, as these are non-restrictive alternatives that must legally be utilized before applying restraints.
Under the Patient's Bill of Rights and federal healthcare regulations, clients have a legal right to be free from unnecessary physical and chemical restraints. The nurse is legally mandated to implement and document less restrictive alternatives (such as moving the client closer to the nursing station, hiding IV lines, or attempting reorientation) before considering restraints. Restraints are a measure of absolute last resort to prevent imminent harm when all other measures fail.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary legal issue presented in the scenario.
The family is demanding physical restraints for a confused client, implicating the client's legal right to freedom from unnecessary restraints (false imprisonment).
Recognizing the legal and ethical implications of restraint use is the first step in formulating a legally sound response.
2
Determine the legal standard for restraint application in nursing practice.
Federal law and nursing standards mandate that physical and chemical restraints are interventions of absolute last resort.
Nurses must advocate for and protect the client's right to the least restrictive environment possible.
3
Evaluate the options based on the requirement to use the least restrictive means.
Relocating the client, hiding the IV tubing, and reorienting are non-pharmacological, less restrictive alternatives that must be attempted and documented first.
This action complies with legal mandates and protects the client from potential battery or false imprisonment charges.

Key Concept

Clients have a fundamental legal right to be free from physical and chemical restraints. Restraints may only be legally applied after all less restrictive alternatives have been implemented, documented, and proven ineffective.
Question 866Question →

A nurse is receiving shift report for a client with severe Crohn's disease who is malnourished and has just been started on continuous total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a newly placed peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). Which of the following nursing interventions should the nurse include in the client's daily plan of care? (Select all that apply.)

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Answer: Monitor the client's capillary blood glucose levels every 4 to 6 hours.; Change the TPN infusion tubing and intravenous filter every 24 hours.; Keep a liter bag of 10% dextrose in water (D10W) readily available on the unit.

Answer

The correct interventions for a client receiving TPN include monitoring capillary blood glucose every 4 to 6 hours, changing the TPN infusion tubing and filter every 24 hours, and keeping 10% dextrose in water (D10W) available at the bedside.
Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is a hypertonic solution containing a high concentration of dextrose, amino acids, and other nutrients. Because of the high dextrose load, clients are at significant risk for hyperglycemia, requiring routine capillary blood glucose monitoring every 4 to 6 hours. The high nutrient content also makes TPN an ideal medium for bacterial growth, so the infusion tubing and intravenous filter must be changed every 24 hours to prevent central line-associated bloodstream infections (CLABSI). Additionally, if the TPN solution must be abruptly stopped or the next bag is delayed, infusing 10% dextrose in water (D10W) at the same rate is necessary to prevent rebound hypoglycemia.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary therapy and its associated risks.
The client is receiving continuous TPN, which poses specific risks for hyperglycemia, systemic infection, rebound hypoglycemia, and IV incompatibility.
Recognizing the high glucose, hyperosmolar nature, and complex composition of TPN guides necessary safety interventions.
2
Evaluate each intervention for safety and appropriateness.
Monitoring glucose, changing tubing every 24 hours, and having D10W available appropriately mitigate these risks. Conversely, increasing infusion rates, co-infusing medications, and delegating central line assessments compromise patient safety.
Ensures adherence to core pharmacological and parenteral therapy administration standards.

Key Concept

Safe administration, monitoring, and complication prevention for Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN)
Question 867Question →

A home healthcare RN is evaluating an older adult client who lives independently. During the medication reconciliation, the client reports consuming half a bottle of whiskey daily along with a prescribed dose of lorazepam for anxiety. Which of the following nursing interventions should the RN include in the client's plan of care? (Select all that apply.)

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Answer: Screen the client for underlying depression and suicidal ideation.; Educate the client about the synergistic central nervous system depressant effects of alcohol and lorazepam.; Conduct a comprehensive fall risk assessment of the client's home environment.

Answer

The correct interventions are to screen for depression and suicidal ideation, educate on the synergistic effects of central nervous system depressants, and conduct a comprehensive fall risk assessment.
The correct interventions prioritize client safety, mental health, and harm reduction education. Screening for depression and suicidal ideation is crucial because older adults who misuse substances often have underlying and untreated mental health disorders. Educating the client about the synergistic central nervous system (CNS) depressant effects of alcohol and lorazepam is a primary harm reduction strategy to prevent fatal respiratory depression. Furthermore, conducting a comprehensive fall risk assessment is essential, as the combination of advanced age, alcohol intoxication, and benzodiazepine use severely impairs balance and coordination.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's risk factors based on the provided scenario.
The client is an older adult mixing a significant amount of alcohol (whiskey) with a prescription benzodiazepine (lorazepam).
Identifying the overlapping risk factors (advanced age, heavy alcohol consumption, prescription CNS depressants) is necessary to determine appropriate safety and educational interventions.
2
Evaluate the clinical appropriateness of the positive nursing interventions.
Screening for depression, teaching about drug-alcohol interactions, and assessing fall risk directly address the client's immediate life-threatening and psychosocial risks.
Nurses must prioritize interventions that address physiological safety, psychological well-being, and high-risk medication interactions.
3
Identify and eliminate contraindicated or non-therapeutic actions.
Dismiss options that involve normalizing pathological confusion, using non-therapeutic 'why' questions, or improperly delegating initial assessments to unlicensed staff.
Recognizing common nursing errors ensures that the plan of care remains safe, therapeutic, and legally sound.

Key Concept

High-risk behaviors involving substance misuse in the older adult population require prioritization of safety, mental health screening, and the avoidance of non-therapeutic communication or improper task delegation.
Question 868Question →

A nurse is preparing to witness a client's signature on an informed consent document for a scheduled lumbar laminectomy. The nurse places the document on the bedside table and hands the client a pen. The client hesitates and states, "The doctor said this will fix my back, but I am terrified of being paralyzed. Maybe I should just try physical therapy instead." Arrange the following nursing actions in the correct chronological sequence.

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Answer

The correct sequence is to first stop the client from signing, assess their specific concerns, notify the surgeon of the knowledge deficit, verify the surgeon has addressed these concerns, and finally witness the signature once the client is ready.
Informed consent requires the client to fully understand the risks, benefits, and alternatives of a procedure before signing. When a client expresses doubt or asks about alternatives, the nurse's immediate priority is to stop the signing process. Next, the nurse assesses the specific concerns to communicate them effectively. Because explaining medical risks and alternatives is outside the RN scope of practice, the nurse must advocate by notifying the surgeon. Once the surgeon has fulfilled their legal duty to re-educate the client, the nurse can safely resume their role as a witness and authenticate the voluntary signature.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Halt the consent process.
The client does not sign the document prematurely.
Ensures the client's legal rights are protected and prevents the execution of an invalid informed consent.
2
Assess the client's understanding.
The nurse gathers specific information about the client's fears and knowledge gaps.
Provides the necessary clinical context to effectively communicate the problem to the healthcare provider.
3
Notify the surgeon.
The surgeon is made aware of the client's hesitation and need for further discussion.
Fulfills the nurse's role as a client advocate, as nurses cannot legally explain surgical risks or alternatives.
4
Verify provider education.
The surgeon discusses risks and alternatives with the client.
Ensures the legal requirement for the provider to obtain informed consent is met before proceeding.
5
Witness the signature.
The consent form is legally finalized.
Validates that the signature is authentic, voluntary, and provided by a competent, fully informed client.

Key Concept

The nurse's role in informed consent is to act as an advocate and witness, halting the process and notifying the provider if the client demonstrates a lack of understanding or expresses a desire for alternative treatments.
Question 869Question →

A 55-year-old client is admitted to the telemetry unit with acute chest pain and is scheduled for a cardiac catheterization. The client suddenly removes their telemetry monitor, puts on their street clothes, and states, "I am leaving right now. I don't want any more tests." Which of the following actions by the nurse represent legally sound practice? Select all that apply.

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Answer: Explain the potential medical complications and risks of leaving the facility without undergoing the scheduled cardiac procedure.; Request that the client sign an Against Medical Advice (AMA) form to legally document their refusal of recommended care.; Document the specific risks discussed, the client's exact statements, and the time the provider was notified in the medical record.

Answer

The legally correct actions are to explain the potential medical complications, request the client to sign an Against Medical Advice (AMA) form, and thoroughly document the client's statements and the specific risks discussed.
The legally appropriate process for a client leaving Against Medical Advice (AMA) centers on informed refusal and protecting both the client and the facility. The nurse must explain the specific medical risks of leaving without treatment so the client understands the consequences of their decision. The nurse must also attempt to secure the client's signature on an AMA form to legally document this autonomous refusal of care. Finally, meticulous documentation of the client's exact statements, the risks discussed, and the timely notification of the healthcare provider is required to prove that the legal standard of care was met and to defend against potential negligence claims.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the client's legal competency to refuse care.
The client is considered legally competent to make healthcare decisions unless formally proven otherwise.
Legally competent clients have the fundamental right to refuse medical treatment and leave a facility at any time.
2
Provide education regarding the risks of leaving without treatment.
The client receives the necessary information to make an informed refusal.
The nurse has a legal duty to ensure the client understands the potential life-threatening consequences of abandoning care for acute chest pain.
3
Attempt to obtain an AMA signature and document the entire encounter objectively.
The client's autonomous decision and the nurse's interventions are officially recorded.
Proper documentation of informed refusal and provider notification protects the facility and healthcare staff from subsequent liability claims of negligence or abandonment.

Key Concept

Legal considerations and nursing responsibilities for Against Medical Advice (AMA) discharges.
Question 870Question →

Following a traumatic motor vehicle collision, a young adult client is recovering from an emergent above-the-knee amputation. The client's spouse visits the surgical unit briefly each evening but remains near the doorway, deliberately avoids looking at the residual limb, and states, "I just cannot handle seeing medical things." The client tearfully tells the nurse, "My spouse is disgusted by me and won't be able to help me at home." Which action should the nurse take first to address this support system concern?

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Answer: Arrange a private conversation with the spouse to acknowledge their distress and explore their specific fears about the recovery process.

Answer

Arrange a private conversation with the spouse to acknowledge their distress and explore their specific fears about the recovery process.
In times of severe physical trauma, family members often experience acute anxiety and exhibit avoidance behaviors. Because the spouse is the primary support system for home discharge, the nurse must directly assess the spouse's emotional state, fears, and capacity to provide care. Doing this in a private conversation validates the spouse's distress without increasing the client's anxiety, establishing a baseline to develop an effective family care plan.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the clinical scenario and identify the core problem.
The client is experiencing distress and fear of abandonment due to the primary support system's (the spouse's) avoidance behaviors following a traumatic amputation.
Understanding the interaction between the client and their support system dictates the appropriate nursing intervention.
2
Determine the priority nursing action for an impaired support system.
Before implementing teaching or arranging alternative care, the nurse must assess the root cause of the spouse's avoidance (e.g., fear, anxiety, lack of knowledge).
The nursing process requires assessment before intervention. The spouse's capacity to act as a support system must be evaluated.
3
Evaluate the choices based on therapeutic communication and nursing scope of practice.
Providing false reassurance, delegating assessment to a UAP, and making cultural assumptions are unsafe or non-therapeutic. Engaging the spouse privately is the correct assessment tool.
It addresses the support system deficit directly while maintaining emotional safety for both the client and the spouse.

Key Concept

Assessing and Facilitating Support Systems
Question 871Question →

A nurse is caring for a client who is 15 minutes into a packed red blood cell (PRBC) transfusion. The client suddenly reports acute lower back pain, severe shortness of breath, and a feeling of impending doom. Arrange the following nursing interventions in the correct prioritized sequence. (Place the first action at the top and the final action at the bottom).

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Answer

The correct sequence prioritizes immediate cessation of the antigen, followed by maintaining intravenous access with a new line, assessing the client, notifying the provider, and finally sending the equipment for diagnostic analysis.
In any acute medical emergency, especially an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction, the absolute priority is to stop the offending agent. Once stopped, the nurse must ensure a patent circulation route (by maintaining an IV line with normal saline using completely new tubing) before gathering further objective data (vital signs). Notification of the provider requires this assessment data to secure appropriate orders, and administrative/diagnostic tasks (returning the bag to the lab) are consistently completed last.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Stop the transfusion immediately.
Halts the delivery of the incompatible blood product.
Continuing the transfusion, even for a few seconds, increases the severity of the acute hemolytic reaction and the risk of mortality.
2
Disconnect the tubing and initiate normal saline with a new line.
Maintains patent venous access without administering more blood.
A patent IV is critical for administering emergency medications. New tubing must be used so that residual blood in the old tubing is not inadvertently flushed into the client.
3
Perform a focused assessment, including vital signs.
Provides objective clinical data regarding the client's hemodynamic and respiratory status.
The healthcare provider will require current vital signs to prescribe the appropriate emergency interventions (e.g., vasopressors, fluids, corticosteroids).
4
Notify the healthcare provider and the blood bank.
Initiates collaborative medical management and the institutional transfusion reaction protocol.
The provider must intervene to manage shock, and the blood bank must prepare for a clinical and laboratory investigation.
5
Send the blood bag, tubing, and a client blood sample to the laboratory.
Facilitates direct antiglobulin testing and hemolysis analysis.
This confirms the specific etiology of the reaction (e.g., ABO incompatibility) after the client has been hemodynamically stabilized.

Key Concept

Prioritization of Care: Acute Hemolytic Transfusion Reaction Management
Question 872Question →

A client is scheduled for an elective partial thyroidectomy. The surgeon has discussed the procedure with the client and left the surgical unit. Before signing the consent document, the client asks the registered nurse, "What exactly did the doctor mean when she said I might have trouble speaking normally after this is done?" Which of the following is the most appropriate action by the nurse?

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Answer: Contact the surgeon to return to the unit and provide further clarification about the procedural risks to the client.

Answer

The most appropriate action is to contact the surgeon to return and provide further clarification about the procedural risks.
The correct action is to contact the surgeon to return and clarify the procedural risks. For informed consent to be legally valid, the client must fully understand the procedure, including all associated risks, benefits, and alternatives. It is the strict legal responsibility of the healthcare provider performing the procedure to explain these elements. When a nurse assesses that a client has lingering questions or misunderstandings regarding the medical details of a surgery, the nurse must fulfill their role as a client advocate by pausing the consent process and notifying the provider to address the client's concerns.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's statement regarding the surgery.
The client's question indicates a clear lack of understanding about the specific risks and potential complications of the thyroidectomy.
Valid informed consent requires the client to fully comprehend the procedure, including its risks, benefits, and alternatives.
2
Identify the registered nurse's scope of practice regarding informed consent.
The nurse acts as a witness to the signature and an advocate for the client, but the healthcare provider is legally responsible for explaining the procedure and its risks.
Explaining surgical risks and answering specific medical questions about the procedure is outside the registered nurse's scope of practice.
3
Determine the appropriate nursing intervention.
The nurse must temporarily halt the consent process and notify the surgeon.
The provider must return to clarify the medical information so the client can make a truly informed, voluntary decision before signing the document.

Key Concept

The registered nurse's role in informed consent is to witness the signature, assess the client's level of understanding, and advocate for the client by notifying the healthcare provider if the client requires further explanation of the procedure's risks, benefits, or alternatives.
Question 873Question →

A nurse is caring for a 32-year-old client admitted to the burn unit with severe facial burns following a workplace accident. While the nurse is preparing for a dressing change, the client turns away from the mirror and states, 'I do not even want my spouse or children to visit me. I look like a monster. They will not be able to stand looking at my face.' Which of the following responses by the nurse demonstrate effective therapeutic communication? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: You are worried that your family will be distressed by the changes in your appearance.; Help me understand what concerns you the most when you think about your spouse and children seeing you.; I can sit here with you for a few minutes before we start the dressing change if you would like to talk.

Answer

The correct therapeutic responses involve restating the client's feelings, exploring their concerns, and offering the nurse's presence.
The correct responses utilize established therapeutic communication techniques. Stating that the client is worried about their family's distress uses 'restatement' and 'reflection,' which validates the client's feelings. Asking the client to help the nurse understand their concerns uses 'open-ended exploration,' gently encouraging the client to elaborate on their fears. Offering to sit with the client uses 'offering self,' which demonstrates acceptance, empathy, and a willingness to support the client emotionally without demanding they speak.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's statement to identify the core emotion and concern.
The client is expressing severe anxiety, altered body image, and a deep fear of rejection by their loved ones.
Identifying the underlying emotion is essential for selecting a response that provides validation and psychosocial support.
2
Evaluate each response option against the principles of therapeutic communication.
Responses that validate feelings, encourage elaboration, or offer self are therapeutic. Responses that minimize feelings, give personal advice, or change the subject act as communication barriers.
Therapeutic communication aims to foster a safe, non-judgmental environment for the client to explore their feelings and regain a sense of control.

Key Concept

Therapeutic Communication: Responding to Altered Body Image and Severe Anxiety
Question 874Question →

A client with severe cardiogenic shock is receiving a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of milrinone via a single 22-gauge22\text{-gauge} peripheral catheter. The client rapidly develops severe dyspnea, diffuse pulmonary crackles, and an oxygen saturation of 82%82\%. The healthcare provider prescribes a stat dose of IV bumetanide. Upon consulting the pharmacological reference, the nurse notes that bumetanide and milrinone are physically incompatible. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Establish a second peripheral IV access site immediately to administer the stat dose of the loop diuretic.

Answer

Establish a second peripheral IV access site immediately to administer the stat dose of the loop diuretic.
The client requires both medications urgently: milrinone to maintain cardiac output in cardiogenic shock, and bumetanide to treat acute pulmonary edema. Because the medications are physically incompatible, they cannot share an IV line. Furthermore, a life-sustaining inotropic infusion cannot be paused even momentarily without risking severe hemodynamic instability. Therefore, the nurse must immediately establish a second IV access site to safely administer the diuretic without compromising the inotropic support.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's current hemodynamic status and the nature of the primary infusion.
The client is in cardiogenic shock and relies on milrinone, a continuous life-sustaining inotrope, to maintain cardiac output.
Understanding the critical nature of the primary infusion dictates whether it can be safely interrupted.
2
Evaluate the IV compatibility of the newly prescribed stat medication.
Bumetanide is physically incompatible with milrinone.
Administering incompatible medications through the same IV line causes precipitation, posing severe embolic risks.
3
Determine the safest administration method that prioritizes both circulation (maintaining the inotrope) and breathing (administering the diuretic).
The nurse must immediately insert a new, secondary peripheral IV line.
The standard protocol of pausing and flushing an IV line for incompatible medications is contraindicated when the primary fluid is a life-sustaining vasoactive drip.

Key Concept

Administration of Incompatible Medications and Management of Continuous Vasoactive Infusions
Question 875Question →

A nurse in an outpatient primary care clinic is conducting health screenings and wellness assessments for several clients. Which action by the nurse demonstrates the correct application of evidence-based health screening guidelines and assessment principles?

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Answer: Recommending an immediate screening colonoscopy for an asymptomatic 42-year-old client whose father was diagnosed with colorectal cancer at age 50

Answer

The correct action is recommending an immediate screening colonoscopy for the 42-year-old client, as familial risk guidelines dictate starting screening 10 years prior to the first-degree relative's age of diagnosis.
The correct answer demonstrates accurate application of familial risk screening guidelines. For colorectal cancer, individuals with a first-degree relative diagnosed with the disease should begin screening at age 40, or 10 years prior to the youngest age of diagnosis of a family member, whichever comes first. Since the father was diagnosed at 50, screening should begin at age 40.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the screening requirement for the client with a family history of colorectal cancer.
Identified that guidelines require screening to start at age 40, or 10 years before the relative's diagnosis (which would be 40 in this case). The client is 42 and overdue.
Evidence-based guidelines mandate earlier screening intervals for high-risk populations to ensure early detection.
2
Evaluate the classification of the zoster vaccine intervention.
Determined that administering a vaccine is primary prevention, not secondary prevention.
Secondary prevention involves screening for existing asymptomatic disease, whereas primary prevention prevents the disease from occurring.
3
Assess the clinical presentation of the 78-year-old client.
Recognized that sudden-onset confusion indicates acute pathology (delirium) requiring immediate diagnostic workup, not a normal age-related change.
Normal cognitive aging does not present as acute, sudden confusion; this presentation is a medical emergency in geriatrics.
4
Review the abdominal assessment technique.
Identified that the nurse used the wrong sequence by palpating before auscultating.
Abdominal assessment requires auscultation prior to percussion and palpation to avoid falsely altering bowel motility.

Key Concept

Evidence-Based Health Screening and Assessment Guidelines
Question 876Question →

An oncology nurse is providing palliative care to a client with terminal pancreatic cancer who identifies as a devout Buddhist. The client is currently reporting severe abdominal discomfort. When the nurse prepares to administer a scheduled intravenous opioid analgesic, the client refuses the medication, stating, "I must keep my consciousness completely clear for my transition. My state of mind at death will determine my next incarnation." Which action is the most appropriate for the nurse to take?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Collaborate with the interdisciplinary team to implement analgesic strategies that provide comfort without inducing cognitive clouding.

Answer

The most appropriate action is to collaborate with the interdisciplinary team to implement analgesic strategies that provide comfort without inducing cognitive clouding.
The correct action demonstrates cultural competence and patient advocacy. In Buddhist traditions, transitioning into death with a clear, mindful consciousness is often considered critical for achieving a favorable rebirth. By withholding the sedating opioid and collaborating with the healthcare team, the nurse respects the client's autonomy and seeks alternative modalities (such as localized pain relief, alternative non-sedating medications, or specific non-pharmacological techniques) that honor the client's profound spiritual requirements.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's statement and underlying rationale.
The client is actively refusing opioid analgesics due to the specific Buddhist belief that a clear, mindful state at death directly influences the soul's next incarnation.
Understanding the cultural and spiritual context of a medication refusal is essential before determining the next nursing intervention.
2
Evaluate the competing clinical priorities.
The standard medical goal of eradicating severe physiological pain conflicts with the client's right to self-determination and spiritual integrity.
Competent adults possess the ethical and legal right to refuse medical treatments that conflict with their personal values, even at the end of life.
3
Determine the most culturally competent nursing action.
The nurse must advocate for the client by seeking non-pharmacological or non-sedating pain relief methods.
This collaborative approach supports the client's strict spiritual requirements while continuing to address their physical discomfort to the best extent possible without causing cognitive impairment.

Key Concept

Religious and Spiritual Influences on Health: Buddhism and End-of-Life Care
Question 877Question →

A nurse is assuming care for a client with severe Crohn's disease who is receiving continuous total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a double-lumen central venous catheter. The client is currently resting comfortably. Which of the following nursing interventions are appropriate for managing this client's parenteral therapy? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Keep a bag of 10% dextrose in water (D10W) readily available on the nursing unit.; Monitor the client's capillary blood glucose levels every 4 to 6 hours.; Change the TPN solution bag and intravenous administration tubing every 24 hours.

Answer

The correct interventions are keeping 10% dextrose in water (D10W) available, monitoring blood glucose levels every 4 to 6 hours, and changing the TPN bag and tubing every 24 hours.
Safe management of continuous Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) involves proactive measures to prevent both metabolic and infectious complications. Because TPN contains a high concentration of dextrose, routine blood glucose checks (every 4 to 6 hours) are necessary to monitor for hyperglycemia. Conversely, if the TPN infusion is suddenly interrupted, the client is at high risk for rebound hypoglycemia; therefore, keeping 10% dextrose in water (D10W) readily available on the unit ensures the glucose infusion can be safely maintained. Finally, the nutrient-dense composition of TPN creates an ideal environment for microbial growth, making it a critical standard of practice to change the TPN bag and the entire administration tubing set strictly every 24 hours.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the risk of hypoglycemia associated with abrupt TPN cessation.
Identify that a backup supply of D10W must be available to maintain blood glucose levels if the primary TPN bag runs out.
Sudden discontinuation of high-dextrose TPN can trigger severe rebound hypoglycemia.
2
Assess the metabolic complications of continuous high-dextrose infusions.
Determine that frequent blood glucose monitoring (every 4 to 6 hours) is required to detect hyperglycemia.
The high carbohydrate load in TPN can overwhelm the pancreas, leading to elevated blood glucose regardless of diabetic history.
3
Analyze the infection control requirements for hyperalimentation and central venous catheters.
Confirm that TPN bags and tubing must be replaced every 24 hours, and that sterile technique is strictly required for central line dressing changes.
TPN solutions are ideal media for bacterial and fungal growth; strict asepsis and timely equipment changes prevent CLABSI.
4
Review safe administration principles for continuous parenteral therapy.
Determine that TPN rates should never be sped up to catch up, and that the TPN lumen must remain dedicated exclusively for nutrition.
Speeding up the rate causes hyperosmolar diuresis. Mixing medications in the TPN lumen causes dangerous incompatibilities.

Key Concept

Safe administration of Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) requires strict infection control, frequent metabolic monitoring, and adherence to dedicated intravenous line protocols.
Question 878Question →

A home healthcare psychiatric nurse evaluates a client with severe major depressive disorder who began taking a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) three weeks ago. During previous visits, the client exhibited severe psychomotor retardation, flat affect, and hygiene deficits. Today, the client is meticulously dressed, speaks with elevated energy, and hands the nurse a highly prized vintage watch, stating, "I want you to have this because I finally feel completely at peace." Which of the following is the priority action for the nurse?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Ask the client directly if they are currently having thoughts of suicide or self-harm.

Answer

Ask the client directly if they are currently having thoughts of suicide or self-harm.
Clients with severe depression who begin antidepressant therapy are at the highest risk for suicide approximately 2 to 4 weeks after starting the medication. During this window, the client regains the physical energy to carry out a suicide plan, even though the psychological despair has not fully resolved. A sudden, unexplained sense of peace and the act of giving away cherished possessions are classic, high-alert warning signs that the client has finalized a suicide plan. The nurse's absolute priority is to ask directly and clearly about suicidal thoughts to ensure immediate safety.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's behavioral changes.
The client has transitioned from severe psychomotor retardation to high energy, claims to feel 'at peace,' and is giving away prized possessions.
Identifying shifts in baseline behavior is essential for recognizing psychiatric emergencies.
2
Correlate the behavioral changes with the medication timeline.
The client has been on an SSRI for three weeks, which is the time frame where energy improves before the severe depressive thoughts fully resolve.
Increased energy provides the client with the physical capacity to carry out a suicide plan.
3
Determine the priority nursing intervention.
The nurse must immediately and directly ask the client about suicidal ideation and intent.
Direct questioning is the standard of care to ensure client safety when warning signs of suicide are present.

Key Concept

Suicide Risk Assessment and Warning Signs
Question 879Question →

A client is scheduled for a below-the-knee amputation due to severe and progressive peripheral arterial disease. The client signed the informed consent document the previous day. Today, as the nurse approaches to administer the prescribed preoperative intravenous midazolam, the client withdraws their arm and states, "I cannot go through with this. I would rather die with my leg attached." Arrange the following nursing actions in the correct order of priority from first to last.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

First, withhold the preoperative sedative. Second, assess the client's reasons for refusal. Third, notify the surgeon and operating room. Fourth, ensure the surgeon discusses the consequences of refusal. Finally, document the event.
The correct sequence strictly follows the nursing process and legal principles of client advocacy. The absolute first priority is safety and preserving the client's legal rights; withholding the sedative prevents chemical impairment and potential battery. Next, the nurse assesses the client's rationale to gather data. Once assessed, the nurse notifies the provider and surgical team of the revocation. The nurse then advocates for the client by ensuring the surgeon discusses the life-threatening consequences of refusal (establishing informed refusal). Finally, after the clinical situation is safely addressed, the nurse documents the entire event in the medical record.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Withhold the preoperative intravenous midazolam.
The client's legal competence and right to refuse are protected.
Administering a sedative after a client expresses refusal constitutes battery and chemically impairs their ability to make a legally binding informed refusal.
2
Explore the reasons behind the client's decision.
The nurse gathers pertinent assessment data regarding the client's fears and rationale.
The nursing process requires assessment before intervention. This data is necessary to provide a complete and accurate report to the provider.
3
Notify the surgeon and operating room staff.
The surgical team is alerted to the change in status and preparations are halted.
The provider must be informed immediately after assessment to manage the medical implications of the cancellation and adjust the surgical schedule.
4
Collaborate with the surgeon to facilitate informed refusal.
The client receives a direct medical explanation of the risks of not having the surgery.
It is solely the provider's responsibility to explain medical risks, while the nurse acts as an advocate to ensure this legal and ethical discussion occurs.
5
Document the entire sequence of events.
A legal record of the client's decision and the healthcare team's response is created.
Comprehensive documentation must occur after the immediate clinical situation has been managed to ensure accuracy and continuity of care.

Key Concept

When a client revokes consent, the nurse's priority is to halt any interventions that would impair competence (like sedation), assess the rationale, notify the provider, advocate for informed refusal, and thoroughly document.
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 880Question →

The charge nurse on a medical-surgical unit is coordinating room assignments for four newly admitted clients. Which client must be placed in a private room with monitored negative-pressure airflow?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: A 65-year-old client with disseminated herpes zoster and a history of leukemia

Answer

The 65-year-old client with disseminated herpes zoster and a history of leukemia requires a private room with negative-pressure airflow.
Airborne precautions are indicated for pathogens that remain infectious over long distances when suspended in the air, such as the varicella-zoster virus (which causes disseminated herpes zoster). These precautions mandate placement in an Airborne Infection Isolation Room (AIIR) with monitored negative pressure, a minimum of 6 to 12 air changes per hour, and direct exhaust to the outside. The immunocompromised client with disseminated zoster poses a high risk for airborne transmission.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the mode of transmission for each client's condition.
Disseminated herpes zoster is airborne/contact; Neisseria meningitidis is droplet; localized zoster in an immunocompetent client is standard; Mycoplasma pneumoniae is droplet.
Determining transmission routes is essential for selecting the correct isolation tier.
2
Determine which isolation tier requires negative-pressure airflow.
Airborne precautions require an Airborne Infection Isolation Room (AIIR) with negative pressure.
To prevent infectious small droplet nuclei from drifting into hallways or other client rooms.
3
Match the pathogen requiring airborne precautions to the appropriate client scenario.
The client with disseminated herpes zoster is the only one who requires airborne precautions.
This client poses a high risk for airborne transmission of the varicella-zoster virus.

Key Concept

Airborne precautions and indications for negative-pressure airflow rooms
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