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Question 1181Question →

An older adult client is admitted to the medical-surgical unit with generalized weakness, poor oral intake, and frequent episodes of fecal incontinence. The client occasionally exhibits periods of confusion and is currently bed-bound. Which interventions should the nurse include in the client's plan of care to promote comfort and prevent skin breakdown? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Place a pillow under the client's calves to suspend the heels entirely off the mattress.; Reposition the client at least every two hours utilizing a 30-degree lateral inclined position.; Gently cleanse the perineal area and apply a moisture barrier cream after each episode of incontinence.

Answer

The correct interventions are placing a pillow under the calves to suspend the heels, repositioning every two hours using a 30-degree lateral position, and applying a moisture barrier cream after incontinence.
Proper basic care and comfort for an immobile, incontinent client focuses on relieving pressure and protecting the skin barrier. Suspending the heels completely off the mattress eliminates pressure on the vulnerable heel area. Repositioning every two hours using a 30-degree lateral position avoids placing direct pressure on the trochanter (hip bone) while effectively relieving sacral pressure. Applying a moisture barrier cream after gently cleaning the area protects the epidermis from the corrosive effects of stool and urine, preventing moisture-associated skin damage.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's risk factors for impaired skin integrity.
The client has multiple risk factors: immobility, fecal incontinence, poor nutrition, and older adult status.
Identifying specific clinical risk factors guides the selection of targeted basic care and comfort interventions.
2
Evaluate each potential intervention for safety and adherence to evidence-based skin protection guidelines.
Heel suspension, 30-degree lateral turns, and moisture barriers are proven, safe preventive measures.
Using standard care protocols prevents friction, shear, and moisture-associated skin damage.
3
Identify contraindicated actions or improper nursing delegations among the choices.
Continuous high Fowler's positioning increases shear, UAPs cannot perform comprehensive assessments, and restraints require prior alternative measures.
Avoiding contraindicated actions protects the client from harm and aligns with the nursing scope of practice and legal mandates.

Key Concept

Basic Care and Comfort for Skin Integrity
Question 1182Question →

A registered nurse is caring for an older adult client with hepatic encephalopathy who is highly agitated, confused, and repeatedly attempting to climb over the bed rails. The client is receiving continuous intravenous (IV) fluids and has an active Clostridioides difficile infection requiring contact precautions. Which action by the nurse is the MOST appropriate priority intervention to prevent client injury?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Activate the bed exit alarm, place the bed in the lowest position, and arrange for a dedicated staff member to provide one-to-one continuous observation.

Answer

Activate the bed exit alarm, place the bed in the lowest position, and arrange for a dedicated staff member to provide one-to-one continuous observation.
The most appropriate priority intervention is to utilize the least restrictive safety measures to protect the client. Activating the bed alarm, lowering the bed, and utilizing a trained sitter directly addresses the imminent risk of falling and device dislodgment without resorting to physical restraints. This approach adheres to the standard of care for injury prevention in agitated clients.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation and associated risks.
The client is confused, agitated, and trying to climb out of bed, indicating an imminent high risk for falls and self-injury.
Identifying the primary safety risk dictates the urgency and type of intervention required.
2
Evaluate the restraint requirements and alternatives.
Restraints must be a last resort; less restrictive measures such as a bed alarm, low bed position, and a one-to-one sitter must be implemented first.
Standard safety and ethical guidelines mandate prioritizing the least restrictive environment to prevent injury.
3
Consider the client's infection control status.
The client has C. difficile, which requires contact precautions and hand washing with soap and water (not alcohol-based sanitizers).
Safety interventions must not violate strict infection control protocols.
4
Assess the scope of practice for delegation.
Neurological assessments cannot be delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP); they must be performed by the registered nurse.
Delegating nursing assessments violates the nursing scope of practice and jeopardizes client safety.

Key Concept

Safety Prioritization and Restraint Alternatives
Question 1183Question →

A nurse is caring for a 65-year-old client who is receiving an intravenous infusion of alteplase (rtPA) for an acute ischemic stroke. Thirty minutes into the infusion, the client reports a sudden, severe headache, becomes intensely nauseous, and exhibits a new unilateral pupillary dilation. To reduce the risk of catastrophic neurological deterioration, arrange the following nursing actions in the correct priority order from first to last.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

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Answer

The correct sequence is to first stop the alteplase infusion, then assess the airway and hemodynamics, notify the healthcare team, send the client for an emergent CT scan, and finally draw blood for coagulation studies.
The physiological integrity of the client is best preserved by immediately eliminating the source of harm (stopping alteplase). Once the immediate risk is mitigated, the nurse secures the airway and stabilizes hemodynamics. Following stabilization, communicating with the medical team allows for orders that direct diagnostic confirmation (CT scan) and subsequent supportive care preparation (drawing blood for coagulation factors).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Discontinue the intravenous alteplase infusion immediately.
The delivery of the fibrinolytic agent is halted.
Symptoms such as sudden severe headache, nausea, and pupillary changes during alteplase administration strongly indicate hemorrhagic conversion. Stopping the drug minimizes further coagulopathy and limits expanding intracranial hemorrhage.
2
Assess airway patency, breathing, and hemodynamic stability.
Immediate life threats regarding oxygenation, ventilation, and perfusion are identified.
An expanding intracranial hemorrhage can cause rapid depression of the central nervous system, leading to loss of airway reflexes. This assessment determines if immediate intubation or cardiovascular support is required.
3
Notify the rapid response team and the neurologist.
Advanced medical support and targeted interventions are mobilized.
The provider must evaluate the client and order emergency diagnostics and pharmacological reversal agents.
4
Transport the client for an emergent non-contrast head CT scan.
The presence of intracranial bleeding is confirmed or ruled out.
A non-contrast CT is the gold standard for rapidly identifying acute hemorrhage, which dictates the subsequent medical or surgical management.
5
Draw blood for a stat coagulation profile and type and screen.
Laboratory data is obtained to guide blood product administration.
Preparing for the administration of cryoprecipitate, platelets, or antifibrinolytic agents requires baseline coagulation values and blood typing.

Key Concept

Prioritization of interventions for life-threatening complications of fibrinolytic therapy requires immediately removing the causative agent before assessing ABCs and escalating care.
Question 1184Question →

A registered nurse is caring for a laboring client at 39 weeks of gestation. While observing the external fetal monitor, the nurse notes abrupt decreases in the fetal heart rate from a baseline of 140/min to 105/min, lasting approximately 20 seconds before rapidly returning to baseline. These decreases are V-shaped and occur inconsistently, often independent of uterine contractions. Based on these findings, what is the priority nursing intervention?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Assist the client into a side-lying or knee-chest position

Answer

Assist the client into a side-lying or knee-chest position
The fetal heart rate tracing describes variable decelerations, which are characterized by abrupt decreases in the heart rate that may or may not correlate with uterine contractions. Variable decelerations are caused by mechanical umbilical cord compression. The priority nursing intervention is to immediately reposition the client, such as turning them to a lateral side-lying or knee-chest position. This physical shift relieves the pressure on the umbilical cord, directly treating the underlying cause and rapidly improving fetal oxygenation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the fetal heart rate (FHR) tracing characteristics.
The FHR shows abrupt decreases that are V-shaped and occur independently of contractions.
Identifying the specific type of deceleration is required to determine the underlying physiological cause.
2
Correlate the FHR pattern with its clinical etiology.
Abrupt, variable decelerations are indicative of umbilical cord compression.
Using established clinical guidelines, an abrupt decrease in FHR (onset to nadir less than 30 seconds) signifies variable decelerations, typically caused by cord compression.
3
Select the immediate priority intervention.
Maternal repositioning (lateral or knee-chest) is prioritized.
Changing maternal position physically shifts the fetus, relieving pressure on the umbilical cord and rapidly restoring blood flow to the fetus.

Key Concept

Management of Variable Fetal Heart Rate Decelerations
Question 1185Question →

A nurse is caring for an older adult client who was recently admitted with bacterial pneumonia and has suddenly developed acute delirium. The client is highly restless, disoriented to place, and repeatedly attempts to climb over the bed rails. The client's visiting family member expresses intense concern and insists that physical restraints be applied immediately to prevent a fall. Which action should the nurse take first?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Move the client to a room closer to the nurses' station and implement a bed exit alarm system.

Answer

The nurse should first move the client to a room closer to the nurses' station and implement a bed exit alarm system.
The correct answer demonstrates the fundamental nursing principle of using the least restrictive environment to maintain client safety. Moving the client closer to the nurses' station allows for frequent observation, and a bed alarm provides an immediate alert if the client attempts to get up. Both are appropriate first-line interventions for a confused, high-risk client.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the client's behavior and the immediate risk to their safety.
The client is experiencing acute delirium, restlessness, and is at high risk for falls.
Accurate assessment identifies the specific safety hazards that need to be addressed before selecting an intervention.
2
Evaluate the family's request for physical restraints against legal and ethical nursing standards.
Physical restraints are determined to be a measure of last resort, not a first-line intervention.
Nurses are legally required to attempt and document less restrictive alternatives before applying physical restraints to any client.
3
Implement the least restrictive alternative interventions available on the unit.
The client is moved closer to the nurses' station and a bed alarm is applied.
These measures promote client safety, allow for rapid staff response, and maintain the client's freedom of movement and dignity.

Key Concept

Prioritizing least restrictive safety alternatives before applying physical restraints
Question 1186Question →

A clinical team is preparing a unit to receive a direct admission from an outpatient clinic. The client has a history of night sweats and hemoptysis, and a chest radiograph shows upper lobe cavitary lesions. Additionally, the clinic report notes a heavily draining sacral wound that recently cultured positive for Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which of the following infection control interventions should the receiving nurse implement? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Admit the client to a single-occupancy room that maintains negative air pressure relative to the adjacent corridor.; Don a particulate respirator (e.g., N95), gown, gloves, and eye protection before performing wound irrigation.; Store a dedicated stethoscope, thermometer, and blood pressure cuff inside the client's room for their exclusive use.

Answer

The nurse should admit the client to a negative-pressure room, don an N95 respirator, gown, gloves, and eye protection for wound irrigation, and store dedicated medical equipment inside the client's room.
The client's presentation requires a combination of Airborne Precautions (due to suspected pulmonary tuberculosis indicated by night sweats, hemoptysis, and cavitary lesions) and Contact Precautions (due to the heavily draining MRSA wound). Airborne precautions mandate a single-occupancy negative-pressure room and the use of an N95 particulate respirator by healthcare workers. Contact precautions require a gown and gloves upon room entry and dedicating reusable equipment (like a stethoscope) to the client to prevent cross-contamination. Furthermore, because wound irrigation generates splashes, eye protection (e.g., a face shield or goggles) is required as part of Standard Precautions.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation to determine the required isolation precautions.
Night sweats, hemoptysis, and cavitary lesions indicate suspected active pulmonary tuberculosis (TB), which requires Airborne Precautions. The heavily draining MRSA wound requires Contact Precautions.
Identifying the modes of transmission for each pathogen dictates the necessary infection control measures.
2
Evaluate each intervention for adherence to Airborne and Contact Precautions, as well as Standard Precautions.
The nurse must use a negative-pressure room, wear an N95 respirator, gown, and gloves, and use dedicated equipment. Eye protection is needed for splash-generating procedures like wound irrigation.
Combining the appropriate tiers of precautions ensures the safety of the nurse, the client, and other individuals in the facility.
3
Identify and exclude inappropriate interventions related to transport, PPE doffing, and delegation.
Applying an N95 to the client, doffing gowns in the hallway, and delegating wound evaluation to UAP are incorrect and unsafe practices.
Strict adherence to facility protocols and legal scope of practice is required to prevent pathogen transmission and ensure safe care.

Key Concept

Clients with multiple infectious processes require combined transmission-based precautions, alongside standard precautions based on anticipated exposure to body fluids.
Question 1187Question →

A clinical nurse educator is observing staff members delivering care on a medical-surgical unit. Which observation requires the educator to intervene immediately to prevent client injury?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) elevating the head of the bed to 60 degrees for a client who returned from a right femoral cardiac catheterization 90 minutes ago

Answer

The educator must intervene immediately when observing the UAP elevating the head of the bed to 60 degrees for a client who is recently post-cardiac catheterization via the femoral artery.
The observation of a staff member elevating the head of the bed to 60 degrees for a client recently post-cardiac catheterization via the femoral artery requires immediate intervention. Following a femoral approach, the client's affected leg must remain straight, and the head of the bed should generally be kept flat or elevated no more than 30 degrees (per facility protocol) for several hours. Flexion of the hip drastically increases stress on the fresh arterial puncture site, creating a high risk for arterial bleeding and hematoma formation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the observation regarding the post-cardiac catheterization client.
Elevating the head of the bed to 60 degrees causes significant hip flexion.
Following a femoral approach, hip flexion increases stress on the arterial puncture site, creating an immediate and high risk for severe bleeding and hematoma formation. This requires urgent intervention.
2
Evaluate the restraint application observation.
Securing restraints to the movable bed frame with a quick-release knot is standard safety protocol.
This safe practice ensures the restraints do not tighten if the bed is repositioned and allows for rapid removal during an emergency.
3
Assess the infection control observation for the client with MRSA.
Donning a gown and gloves is the correct personal protective equipment (PPE) for contact precautions.
This safe practice prevents the transmission of multi-drug resistant organisms.
4
Evaluate the delegation of ambulation to the UAP.
Ambulating a stable client with a continuous peripheral IV is within the UAP's scope of practice.
Because the client is clinically stable and the task does not require nursing assessment, this is a safe and appropriate delegation.
5
Identify the action that poses an immediate threat to client safety.
The UAP elevating the bed of the cardiac catheterization client is the only unsafe action observed.
It is the only action that will directly and immediately compromise client physiological integrity.

Key Concept

Following a femoral cardiac catheterization, the client must remain flat or with the head of the bed elevated no more than 30 degrees (depending on facility policy) with the affected extremity kept straight to prevent life-threatening arterial hemorrhage.
Question 1188Question →

A nurse preceptor is observing a newly graduated registered nurse (RN) implement infection control measures on a medical-surgical unit. Which of the following actions by the new RN demonstrate correct application of standard and transmission-based precautions? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Donning a gown and gloves before entering the room of a client with a confirmed norovirus infection.; Applying a fit-tested N95 respirator prior to entering the room of a client diagnosed with measles (rubeola).; Placing a standard surgical mask over the mouth and nose of a client with active pulmonary tuberculosis during transport for a diagnostic test.

Answer

The correct actions include donning a gown and gloves prior to entering a norovirus room, applying an N95 respirator for measles, and placing a standard surgical mask on a client with tuberculosis during transport.
Correct infection control practices require specific interventions based on the mode of transmission. Norovirus is spread via contact, requiring a gown and gloves upon room entry. Measles is transmitted via airborne droplet nuclei, necessitating a fit-tested N95 respirator. When a client with active pulmonary tuberculosis (an airborne pathogen) must leave their negative-pressure room for essential transport, they must wear a standard surgical mask to contain their respiratory secretions.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the actions regarding personal protective equipment (PPE) for specific pathogens.
Norovirus requires contact precautions (gown and gloves upon entry). Measles requires airborne precautions (N95 respirator upon entry).
Matching the pathogen to the correct isolation tier is the primary step in preventing transmission.
2
Analyze the procedure for transporting a client on airborne precautions.
A client with active tuberculosis must wear a standard surgical mask during transport.
The surgical mask contains the client's respiratory droplets and droplet nuclei, protecting the environment and staff outside the isolation room.
3
Review the principles of PPE removal and environmental safety.
PPE must be removed inside the isolation room (VRE), hands must be washed with soap and water for spore-forming bacteria (C. difficile), and immunocompromised clients need positive-pressure rooms.
Improper removal of PPE, incorrect hand hygiene, and wrong room pressurization contribute to healthcare-associated infections.

Key Concept

Standard and Transmission-Based Precautions: Application of PPE, Transport, and Environmental Controls
Question 1189Question →

An infection control nurse is reviewing the electronic health records of newly admitted clients to ensure appropriate transmission-based protocols are active. Correlate each client's specific clinical presentation with the precise isolation requirements necessary for their care.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Immunocompromised client exhibiting a localized dermatomal rash with fluid-filled vesicles
Client experiencing frequent, foul-smelling liquid stools following a prolonged course of broad-spectrum antibiotics
Young adult presenting with sudden onset of fever, nuchal rigidity, and a non-blanching petechial rash
Adult with a persistent cough, hemoptysis, night sweats, and an apical cavitary lesion on chest imaging

Matches

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Answer

The immunocompromised client with a localized vesicular rash matches Airborne and Contact precautions; the client with post-antibiotic liquid stools matches Contact precautions with soap and water; the client with nuchal rigidity and petechial rash matches Droplet precautions for 24 hours; and the client with a cavitary lung lesion matches Airborne precautions in a negative-pressure room.
Each clinical presentation directly dictates a specific infection control protocol based on the pathogen's mode of transmission, the patient's immune status, and the physical properties of the infectious agent (such as spore formation).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the clinical presentation of the client with the localized vesicular rash.
Identify suspected herpes zoster (shingles) in an immunocompromised host.
Immunocompromised status increases the risk of viral dissemination, mandating both Airborne and Contact precautions rather than Standard precautions alone.
2
Evaluate the client with diarrhea after broad-spectrum antibiotic use.
Identify suspected Clostridioides difficile infection.
C. difficile forms spores resistant to alcohol hand rubs, making strict soap and water hand hygiene a critical component of Contact precautions.
3
Assess the young adult with nuchal rigidity and a petechial rash.
Identify suspected meningococcal meningitis or septicemia.
Neisseria meningitidis requires Droplet precautions to prevent spread via large respiratory droplets, but these precautions can be safely discontinued 24 hours after starting effective antibiotics.
4
Review the presentation of the adult with hemoptysis and an apical cavitary lesion.
Identify suspected active pulmonary tuberculosis.
Tuberculosis droplet nuclei can remain suspended in the air, requiring strict Airborne precautions including an N95 respirator and a negative-pressure room.

Key Concept

Pathogen-Specific Isolation Criteria and Duration
Question 1190Question →

A nurse is caring for a client in active labor whose membranes have just spontaneously ruptured. Upon visual inspection of the perineum, the nurse observes a portion of the umbilical cord protruding from the vagina. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform first?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Assist the client into a knee-chest position.

Answer

Assist the client into a knee-chest position.
The priority nursing action for a prolapsed umbilical cord is to immediately relieve pressure on the cord to prevent fetal hypoxia and potential death. Assisting the client into a knee-chest position utilizes gravity to shift the fetal presenting part away from the maternal pelvis and off the umbilical cord, maintaining fetal blood flow.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the obstetrical complication from the assessment findings.
A protruding umbilical cord after membrane rupture indicates an umbilical cord prolapse.
Recognizing the emergency determines the pathway of care.
2
Determine the primary physiological threat associated with this complication.
The fetal presenting part will compress the cord against the pelvis, rapidly cutting off fetal oxygen supply.
Understanding the mechanism of injury (compression) dictates the required physical intervention.
3
Select the immediate priority intervention that addresses the physiological threat.
Assisting the client into a knee-chest (or Trendelenburg) position is required.
Gravity causes the fetus to shift upward toward the maternal diaphragm, immediately relieving the life-threatening cord compression.

Key Concept

Umbilical Cord Prolapse Emergency Management
Question 1191Question →

A client is brought to the emergency department experiencing a severe panic attack. The client is visibly anxious, diaphoretic, and breathing rapidly at a rate of 34 breaths per minute. Which of the following arterial blood gas (ABG) values would the nurse anticipate for this client? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: pH 7.52; PaCO2 28 mm Hg

Answer

The expected ABG values for a hyperventilating client are a pH greater than 7.45 (such as 7.52) and a PaCO2 less than 35 mm Hg (such as 28 mm Hg).
Acute hyperventilation from a panic attack causes the body to exhale excessive amounts of carbon dioxide. Because carbon dioxide functions as an acid in the blood, this rapid loss leads to a decrease in PaCO2 (below the normal baseline of 35 mm Hg) and a corresponding increase in blood pH (above the normal baseline of 7.45). This physiological state is known as respiratory alkalosis.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary clinical manifestation in the scenario.
The client is hyperventilating (breathing rapidly and deeply) due to a panic attack.
Recognizing the breathing pattern is essential to determine how carbon dioxide is being handled by the respiratory system.
2
Determine the physiological effect of hyperventilation on gas exchange.
Rapid breathing leads to excessive elimination of carbon dioxide (CO2) from the lungs.
CO2 acts as an acid in the blood; blowing it off reduces the total acid concentration in the body.
3
Correlate the physiological change to ABG values.
The loss of CO2 causes PaCO2 to decrease below 35 mm Hg, which subsequently increases the blood pH above 7.45.
This specific combination of a high pH and a low PaCO2 defines acute respiratory alkalosis.

Key Concept

Respiratory Alkalosis secondary to hyperventilation
Question 1192Question →

The nurse receives a client who has just returned to the nursing unit following a diagnostic cardiac catheterization performed via the right femoral artery. Which of the following positioning interventions is most important for the nurse to implement to reduce the risk of postoperative bleeding?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Maintain the right leg in an extended, straight position.

Answer

Maintain the right leg in an extended, straight position.
Maintaining the affected extremity in an extended, straight position is essential following a femoral artery puncture. This position keeps the femoral artery undisturbed, allowing a stable clot to form and significantly reducing the risk of hematoma development or active arterial hemorrhage.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the procedure and the specific vascular access site used.
The client underwent a cardiac catheterization via the right femoral artery.
The anatomical location of the puncture site dictates the specific postoperative positioning restrictions.
2
Determine the primary physiological risk associated with this procedure.
The primary immediate risk is arterial hemorrhage or hematoma formation at the femoral puncture site.
The femoral artery is a large, high-pressure blood vessel that requires prolonged, undisturbed compression and healing time to maintain hemostasis.
3
Select the positioning intervention that minimizes mechanical stress on the site.
Keeping the right leg extended and unbent prevents hip flexion.
Hip flexion disrupts the puncture site, increases local pressure, and can dislodge the protective clot, leading to severe bleeding.

Key Concept

Post-procedure Positioning to Reduce Bleeding Risk
Question 1193Question →

A nurse is preparing to assist a client who has dysphagia and right-sided facial weakness with a meal. Arrange the following nursing actions in the correct chronological sequence to ensure safe oral intake and prevent aspiration. All options must be used.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

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Answer

First, elevate the head of the bed. Second, place food on the left side. Third, instruct the client to tuck their chin. Fourth, assess for pocketed food. Finally, maintain an upright position.
Safe oral feeding for a client with dysphagia and hemiparesis requires a systematic approach prioritizing airway protection. Upright positioning must occur before any food is introduced. Food is then placed on the unaffected side to maximize control, followed by a chin-tuck maneuver to physically protect the airway during the swallow. Immediate post-swallow assessment ensures clearance, and prolonged upright positioning prevents subsequent reflux or delayed aspiration.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Establish safe positioning.
The head of the bed is elevated to 90 degrees.
Gravity assists swallowing and severely reduces the initial risk of aspiration.
2
Introduce food appropriately.
Food is placed on the strong (left) side of the mouth.
The unaffected side has intact motor control and sensation, allowing the client to safely manipulate the bolus.
3
Protect the airway during the swallow.
The client performs a chin-tuck maneuver.
This physical positioning narrows the airway opening and prevents food from entering the trachea.
4
Verify oral clearance.
The oral cavity is checked for residual food.
Weak facial muscles can lead to food pocketing on the right side, which can be aspirated later if not removed.
5
Prevent post-meal complications.
The client remains in an upright position for at least 30 minutes.
This sustained posture prevents gastroesophageal reflux and silent aspiration of residual particles.

Key Concept

Aspiration precautions and feeding techniques for clients with dysphagia and unilateral facial weakness.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 1194Question →

A nurse assumes care for a postoperative client who just arrived from the surgical recovery room after an exploratory laparotomy. The client has an active Vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus (VRE) infection in the peritoneal cavity and multiple surgical drains in place. Which of the following actions should the nurse implement? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Place the client in a private room with a designated bathroom or bedside commode.; Wear a face shield and a surgical mask when emptying the client's surgical drains.; Leave a dedicated stethoscope and blood pressure cuff inside the client's room for exclusive use.

Answer

The correct actions are placing the client in a private room, wearing splash protection when emptying drains, and using dedicated equipment.
VRE requires Contact precautions, which mandate a private room and dedicated equipment to prevent transmission via touch. Furthermore, standard precautions dictate that protective eyewear and a mask must be worn during procedures likely to generate splashes, such as emptying surgical drains.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary pathogen and its mode of transmission.
The client has Vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus (VRE), which is transmitted via direct and indirect contact.
Determining the transmission route dictates the appropriate isolation tier (Contact precautions).
2
Determine the required environment and equipment for Contact precautions.
A private room and dedicated patient-care equipment (stethoscope, blood pressure cuff) are necessary.
These measures prevent the transfer of the pathogen to other vulnerable clients.
3
Evaluate the specific nursing tasks for additional risk factors.
Emptying surgical drains presents a risk for fluid splashes.
Standard precautions apply to all clients, requiring nurses to add a mask and eye protection whenever body fluid splashing is anticipated.
4
Apply prioritization and delegation rules to the scenario.
Physiological stability (ABCs) takes precedence over infection control checks, and clinical assessment cannot be delegated.
The RN must prioritize airway and breathing in a postoperative client and must personally perform all wound assessments.

Key Concept

Standard and Transmission-Based Precautions (Contact) paired with Prioritization and Delegation.
Question 1195Question →

A nurse is preparing to administer a prescribed intravenous (IV) antibiotic intermittent infusion (piggyback) to a client who is currently receiving a continuous IV infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride. Which of the following is the priority nursing action before initiating the antibiotic infusion?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Verify the compatibility of the antibiotic with the 0.9% sodium chloride solution using a medication reference guide.

Answer

Verify the compatibility of the antibiotic with the 0.9% sodium chloride solution using a medication reference guide.
Before administering any medication through an existing continuous IV line, the nurse must verify that the new medication is compatible with the infusing fluid. Incompatibility can cause crystallization, precipitation, or deactivation of the medication, which poses a severe safety risk to the client, including the potential for an embolism.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary continuous IV fluid and the prescribed intermittent medication.
The client is receiving 0.9% sodium chloride and is prescribed an IV antibiotic.
Knowing both solutions is required to assess their interaction.
2
Recognize the risk of medication incompatibility when two fluids mix in the same IV line.
Determined that the two solutions will mix at the Y-site of the IV tubing.
Mixing incompatible fluids can lead to harmful precipitates or loss of drug efficacy.
3
Consult a reliable medication reference guide to check Y-site compatibility before hanging the antibiotic.
The safety of administering the antibiotic with the 0.9% sodium chloride is confirmed.
This is the mandatory safety standard to prevent medication errors and client harm.

Key Concept

Intravenous Medication Compatibility and Safety
Question 1196Question →

An intensive care nurse is caring for a hemodynamically unstable client who has a triple-lumen central venous catheter. The current continuous intravenous (IV) infusions are:

* Proximal port: Total parenteral nutrition (TPN)
* Medial port: 0.45% sodium chloride with 20 mEq/L of potassium chloride at 75 mL/hr
* Distal port: Propofol emulsion for continuous sedation

The client's mean arterial pressure abruptly drops to 54 mmHg. The healthcare provider prescribes an immediate 500 mL IV bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride and a continuous infusion of norepinephrine. Which action demonstrates the safest administration of these new prescriptions?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Establish a new large-bore peripheral IV catheter to administer the fluid bolus and initiate the norepinephrine.

Answer

Establish a new large-bore peripheral IV catheter to administer the fluid bolus and initiate the norepinephrine.
Establishing a new large-bore peripheral IV is the safest action. When all central venous catheter lumens are occupied by high-risk, dedicated (TPN, propofol), or incompatible (potassium) continuous infusions, the nurse must obtain new vascular access. Although norepinephrine is a vesicant that is ideally infused via a central line, current critical care emergency guidelines permit temporary administration through a large-bore peripheral IV to prevent fatal delays in life-saving treatment during shock.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the safety constraints of the current continuous infusions on the central venous catheter.
The proximal line (TPN) and distal line (propofol) strictly require dedicated access. The medial line contains potassium chloride.
Mixing medications with TPN or propofol increases infection and incompatibility risks.
2
Evaluate the physiological impact of rapidly bolusing fluid through the existing lumens.
Bolusing through the propofol line would rapidly push a sedative bolus into the client. Bolusing through the potassium line would deliver a fatal potassium bolus (speed shock).
Fluid boluses act as a rapid 'flush' for whatever medication is currently dwelling inside the IV tubing.
3
Determine the safest alternative access route for emergency resuscitation.
Establish a new large-bore peripheral IV to safely administer the fluids and temporary norepinephrine.
While central access is preferred for vasopressors, temporary peripheral administration is safe and indicated to prevent life-threatening delays during a hypotensive crisis when central lines are occupied.

Key Concept

IV Compatibility and Safe Administration of Parenteral Therapies during Emergencies
Question 1197Question →

An obstetric nurse is evaluating the electronic fetal monitoring strip of a gravida 2, para 1 at 39 weeks of gestation. The tracing displays gradual, symmetric decreases in the fetal heart rate that perfectly align with the beginning, peak, and end of each uterine contraction. Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Document the finding as a normal physiological response and continue routine assessments.

Answer

Document the finding as a normal physiological response and continue routine assessments.
The description of gradual, symmetric decreases in the fetal heart rate that precisely mirror uterine contractions is the classic definition of early decelerations. Early decelerations are a benign, expected physiological response caused by compression of the fetal head as it descends into the maternal pelvis during contractions. Because they do not indicate fetal hypoxia or distress, they do not require any medical intervention. The only appropriate action is to document the finding and continue routine labor monitoring.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the description of the fetal heart rate tracing.
The tracing shows gradual, symmetric decreases that mirror the uterine contractions (starting, peaking, and ending with the contraction).
Accurate interpretation of the timing and shape of decelerations is necessary to identify their etiology.
2
Correlate the tracing pattern with the correct type of deceleration.
The pattern perfectly describes early decelerations.
Early decelerations are uniform in shape and directly mirror the contraction curve.
3
Determine the physiological cause and required intervention.
Early decelerations are caused by fetal head compression during contractions and are considered a benign, normal finding.
Because they do not indicate fetal hypoxia or distress, no resuscitative medical intervention is needed; routine documentation and continued observation are sufficient.

Key Concept

Interpretation and Management of Early Decelerations
Question 1198Question →

A nurse is caring for a client weighing 80 kg80\text{ kg} who is admitted with acute decompensated heart failure. The client is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of milrinone at 0.5 mcg/kg/min0.5\text{ mcg/kg/min} via a single patent 20-gauge peripheral IV line in the left forearm.

The client's respiratory status acutely worsens, with oxygen saturation dropping to 84% on room air and severe bilateral crackles present on auscultation. The healthcare provider prescribes a stat dose of furosemide 1 mg/kg1\text{ mg/kg} IV push.

The available furosemide vial concentration is 10 mg/mL10\text{ mg/mL}. Facility policy mandates that IV furosemide must not be administered faster than 20 mg/min20\text{ mg/min} to prevent ototoxicity.

After multiple unsuccessful attempts to establish a second peripheral IV line by the vascular access team, which of the following is the most appropriate action by the nurse?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Pause the milrinone infusion, flush the IV line with 0.9% sodium chloride, administer 8 mL8\text{ mL} of furosemide over a minimum of 4 minutes, flush the line again, and resume the milrinone.

Answer

The nurse must pause the milrinone infusion, clear the line with a compatible flush, administer the correct volume of 8 mL8\text{ mL} furosemide slowly over at least 4 minutes, flush again, and restart the milrinone.
The correct sequence prioritizes client safety by preventing a dangerous chemical incompatibility while delivering the exact calculated dose (80 mg80\text{ mg} or 8 mL8\text{ mL}) over the required minimum time (4 minutes) to prevent ototoxicity. Pausing the milrinone temporarily is safe because its half-life is sufficiently long (2.3 to 2.4 hours) that a 5-minute pause will not precipitate immediate hemodynamic collapse, whereas untreated acute pulmonary edema is rapidly fatal.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Calculate the total required dose based on the client's weight.
80 kg×1 mg/kg=80 mg80\text{ kg} \times 1\text{ mg/kg} = 80\text{ mg} of furosemide.
Accurate weight-based dosing is critical for therapeutic efficacy.
2
Calculate the volume of medication to administer.
80 mg÷10 mg/mL=8 mL80\text{ mg} \div 10\text{ mg/mL} = 8\text{ mL}.
Converts the ordered dose into the administrable liquid volume.
3
Determine the minimum safe administration time.
80 mg÷20 mg/min=4 minutes80\text{ mg} \div 20\text{ mg/min} = 4\text{ minutes}.
Rapid administration of high-dose loop diuretics can cause permanent ototoxicity (hearing loss).
4
Assess IV compatibility and determine the administration sequence.
Milrinone and furosemide are incompatible. The nurse must use the stop-flush-push-flush-start sequence.
Mixing incompatible medications causes precipitation. When only one IV line is available, the continuous infusion must be temporarily paused and the line flushed before and after the push medication.

Key Concept

Management of incompatible intravenous medications and weight-based dosage calculations.
Question 1199Question →

An older adult client with a history of heart failure is prescribed daily oral digoxin and furosemide. During the morning rounds, the client reports a new onset of loss of appetite, mild nausea, and seeing a 'yellowish haze' around the lights in the room. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Withhold the scheduled dose of digoxin and obtain a prescription for serum digoxin and potassium levels.

Answer

The nurse should immediately withhold the scheduled dose of digoxin and prepare to check the client's serum digoxin and potassium levels.
The client's symptoms of anorexia, nausea, and yellow visual halos are hallmark signs of digoxin toxicity. Because the client is also taking furosemide, which causes potassium loss, they are at an exceptionally high risk for this toxicity (as hypokalemia potentiates digoxin). The immediate priority to ensure client safety is to withhold the medication to prevent further harm and to check serum levels to confirm the diagnosis.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's reported clinical symptoms.
The combination of anorexia, nausea, and visual disturbances (yellowish haze or halos) is identified as the classic presentation of digoxin toxicity.
Recognizing the adverse effects and toxicity signs of specific pharmacological therapies is essential for patient safety.
2
Correlate the client's current medication regimen with the presenting symptoms.
The client is taking furosemide, a loop diuretic known to cause potassium depletion.
Hypokalemia increases the myocardium's sensitivity to digoxin, significantly elevating the risk of toxicity even if the serum digoxin level is within the normal therapeutic range.
3
Determine the highest priority nursing action based on the assessment.
The nurse must withhold the next dose of digoxin to prevent further absorption and notify the provider to evaluate laboratory values.
Administering the medication would exacerbate the toxicity and could lead to life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias.

Key Concept

Digoxin toxicity recognition and the effect of hypokalemia
Question 1200Question →

A nurse is receiving shift report for a group of clients on the postpartum unit. Which client should the nurse assess first?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: A client who is 4 hours postpartum with a uterine fundus that is palpable above the umbilicus and displaced to the right.

Answer

The client who is 4 hours postpartum with a uterine fundus that is palpable above the umbilicus and displaced to the right.
A uterine fundus that is displaced (usually to the right) and palpable above the umbilicus indicates bladder distention. A full bladder displaces the uterus and prevents it from contracting effectively. This leads to uterine atony, placing the client at immediate risk for postpartum hemorrhage. This client requires priority assessment and intervention to empty the bladder (via voiding or catheterization) and immediate reassessment of fundal tone.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the clinical findings for each postpartum client to differentiate between normal physiological adaptations and potential complications.
Three clients exhibit normal postpartum findings, while one client exhibits a sign of a developing complication.
Identifying the client at greatest risk of instability is necessary to establish the correct priority of care.
2
Evaluate the finding of a displaced uterine fundus in a 4-hour postpartum client.
A fundus located above the umbilicus and deviated to the right strongly indicates bladder distention.
A distended bladder prevents the uterus from contracting properly (uterine atony), which is the leading cause of postpartum hemorrhage.
3
Apply prioritization principles (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) to the client group.
The client with the displaced fundus is at immediate risk for hemorrhage (Circulation) and requires prompt intervention to empty the bladder and reassess uterine tone.
Clients at risk for life-threatening complications, such as hemorrhage, must be assessed and managed before clients experiencing normal postpartum discomforts.

Key Concept

Postpartum Complications and Prioritization (Bladder Distention)
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