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Question 1201Question →

A charge nurse on an oncology unit is reviewing infection control practices for a client who is 14 days post-allogeneic hematopoietic stem cell transplant and has newly developed a localized dermatomal rash confirmed as herpes zoster (shingles). Which of the following actions by the healthcare team are appropriate? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Assigning a registered nurse with documented varicella-zoster immunity to provide direct care for the client; Ensuring the client is placed in a single-patient room with monitored negative air pressure; Keeping the door to the client's room tightly closed at all times, except when personnel must enter or exit

Answer

The appropriate actions are assigning immune staff to the client, placing the client in a monitored negative-pressure room, and keeping the door to the room tightly closed.
Immunocompromised clients with localized herpes zoster must be managed with both airborne and contact precautions. This requires placing the client in a negative-pressure Airborne Infection Isolation Room (AIIR) and keeping the door closed to maintain the pressure gradient. Additionally, assigning staff with documented immunity to the varicella-zoster virus minimizes occupational exposure risks.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical profile and immune status.
The client is 14 days post-allogeneic stem cell transplant, meaning they are profoundly immunocompromised.
Immune status directly alters infection control requirements for certain pathogens.
2
Determine the appropriate isolation precautions based on the diagnosis and immune status.
The client has localized herpes zoster. Because the client is immunocompromised, this condition requires airborne and contact precautions, not just contact precautions.
Immunocompromised individuals are at high risk for disseminated disease and may shed the varicella-zoster virus extensively, even if lesions initially appear localized.
3
Evaluate each intervention against standard protocols for airborne and contact precautions, as well as nursing delegation guidelines.
Assigning immune staff, using a negative-pressure room, and keeping the door closed are correct. Transporting with an N95 on the patient and delegating education to a UAP are incorrect.
Airborne precautions demand strict environmental controls (closed doors, negative pressure). Clients wear standard masks during transport. Nursing education is out of the UAP scope of practice.

Key Concept

Localized herpes zoster requires both airborne and contact precautions when occurring in an immunocompromised client, in contrast to the contact precautions sufficient for an immunocompetent client.
Question 1202Question →

A healthcare provider orders haloperidol 5 mg5\text{ mg} intramuscularly for an agitated adult client. The pharmacy dispenses a multi-dose vial labeled haloperidol 2 mg/mL2\text{ mg/mL}. How many  mL\text{ mL} should the nurse draw up to administer the correct dose? Record your answer using one decimal place.

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Answer: 2.5

Answer

2.5
Using the standard formula of (Desired / Have) × Volume, dividing the prescribed 5 mg5\text{ mg} by the available concentration of 2 mg2\text{ mg} yields exactly 2.5 mL2.5\text{ mL}.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the standard formula for liquid medication calculations.
Formula: DesiredHave×Volume\frac{\text{Desired}}{\text{Have}} \times \text{Volume}
This standard formula ensures accurate conversion from the prescribed mass to the required physical volume.
2
Extract the given values from the prescription and the medication label.
Desired = 5 mg5\text{ mg}; Have = 2 mg2\text{ mg}; Volume = 1 mL1\text{ mL}.
Mapping the known values correctly into the formula prevents fundamental calculation errors.
3
Substitute the values into the formula and solve the equation.
5 mg2 mg×1 mL=2.5 mL\frac{5\text{ mg}}{2\text{ mg}} \times 1\text{ mL} = 2.5\text{ mL}.
Dividing 55 by 22 yields exactly 2.52.5, which represents the correct volume in mL\text{mL}.

Key Concept

Basic Parenteral Medication Dosage Calculation
Question 1203Question →

An older adult client is placed on strict bed rest due to severe generalized weakness and fragile skin. Which nursing action is most appropriate to promote comfort and prevent skin breakdown?

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Answer: Reposition the client using a lift sheet and limit the head of the bed elevation to 30 degrees.

Answer

The most appropriate action is to reposition the client using a lift sheet and limit the head of the bed elevation to 30 degrees.
Limiting the head of the bed elevation to 30 degrees or less reduces shearing forces on the sacrum and coccyx. Simultaneously, using a lift sheet or draw sheet prevents skin friction during repositioning. These complementary actions are essential for maintaining skin integrity and promoting comfort in vulnerable, immobile clients.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's current risk factors based on the clinical presentation.
The client is an older adult on strict bed rest with generalized weakness and fragile skin, indicating a high risk for pressure injuries caused by friction and shearing forces.
Identifying the primary physiological risks determines the priority comfort and safety interventions required in the care plan.
2
Evaluate the proposed positioning and handling techniques for safety and efficacy.
Using a lift sheet prevents skin friction, and keeping the head of the bed at or below 30 degrees prevents shearing forces on the sacrum.
Evidence-based guidelines for pressure injury prevention emphasize minimizing both shear (tissue layers sliding against each other) and friction (skin rubbing against surfaces).
3
Review the remaining options for scope of practice violations or clinical misconceptions.
Delegating skin evaluation to a UAP violates the nurse's scope of practice. Furthermore, dismissing new incontinence as normal aging ignores a potential acute pathology.
Safe nursing practice requires appropriate delegation of tasks and accurate differentiation between normal aging changes and pathological signs.

Key Concept

Pressure Injury Prevention and Safe Repositioning
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 1204Question →

A client with multiple sclerosis is admitted with an acute exacerbation, experiencing severe lower extremity spasticity, profound weakness, and functional incontinence. The healthcare provider prescribes strict bed rest. The nurse is updating the plan of care to promote optimal basic care, comfort, and safety. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Use a friction-reducing device for repositioning and place trochanter rolls along the client's hips.; Establish a scheduled toileting program by offering the bedpan every 2 hours during waking hours.; Perform passive range-of-motion (ROM) exercises slowly, stopping temporarily if a muscle spasm occurs.

Answer

The correct interventions are using a friction-reducing device with trochanter rolls, establishing a scheduled toileting program, and performing slow, passive range-of-motion exercises.
The correct interventions focus on safely maintaining skin integrity, promoting joint mobility, and ensuring safe elimination for an immobile client. Using a friction-reducing device with trochanter rolls prevents shearing and maintains neutral hip alignment. Establishing a scheduled toileting program manages functional incontinence proactively, protecting the skin from moisture-associated breakdown. Performing passive range-of-motion exercises slowly, while pausing during spasms, prevents contractures without causing muscle injury or severe pain.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation.
The client is completely immobile, has muscle spasticity, and is incontinent, placing them at high risk for skin breakdown, contractures, and deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
Identifying the primary physiological risks guides the selection of safe basic care interventions.
2
Evaluate the interventions for skin integrity and hygiene.
Friction-reducing devices prevent shearing, and scheduled toileting prevents moisture damage. However, delegating the evaluation of skin integrity to a UAP is an unsafe nursing practice.
Skin protection requires appropriate physical tools, proactive hygiene routines, and registered nurse-level assessment.
3
Evaluate the interventions for mobility and positioning.
Trochanter rolls maintain joint alignment, and slow passive ROM prevents contractures. Placing pillows under the popliteal spaces is strictly contraindicated due to the high risk of DVT.
Proper positioning must avoid compromising circulation in a bedbound client.
4
Evaluate the interventions for safety and comfort.
Using restraints to prevent a client from removing incontinence garments is a violation of restraint protocols.
Restraint use is heavily regulated and limited strictly to preventing immediate physical harm when all other alternatives have failed.

Key Concept

Basic Care and Comfort: Immobility Management
Question 1205Question →

A nurse is providing care for a client recovering from a traumatic brain injury who is becoming increasingly restless and repeatedly attempting to pull out their enteral feeding tube. To ensure client safety while following the legal and ethical principle of least restrictive interventions, arrange the following nursing actions in the correct sequence from first to last.

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Answer

The correct sequence begins with assessment to identify reversible causes, followed by escalating interventions from the least restrictive (environmental modifications and disguising the tube) to continuous observation, and finally ending with the most restrictive intervention (obtaining a prescription for physical restraints).
Safe restraint use requires strict adherence to the nursing process and the legal principle of least restrictive interventions. Assessment always comes first to rule out immediately reversible physiological causes (like a full bladder or hypoxia). Once physiological needs are met, the nurse must exhaust a hierarchy of alternatives: general environmental safety (alarms, quiet room), targeted device protection (binders, sleeves), and direct human supervision (sitter). Only when all these have failed to keep the client safe can the nurse legally request a prescription for physical restraints.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess for underlying physiological causes of agitation.
Identifies reversible issues like pain or hypoxia.
The nursing process requires assessment first; treating the root cause often eliminates the need for any safety restrictions.
2
Modify the client's environment.
Reduces overstimulation and alerts staff to movement via bed alarms.
This is the most basic, least restrictive safety measure.
3
Conceal the targeted medical device.
Removes the visual and tactile stimulus triggering the pulling behavior.
Disguising tubes is a targeted, non-restrictive alternative to tying down the client's hands.
4
Initiate continuous one-to-one observation.
Provides immediate physical redirection without mechanical restriction.
A sitter is the final step in the least-restrictive hierarchy before applying physical restraints.
5
Obtain a prescription for physical restraints.
Authorizes the legal application of soft wrist restraints.
Restraints are the absolute last resort when all other documented alternatives have failed to protect the client.

Key Concept

The principle of least restrictive interventions and restraint escalation protocols.
Question 1206Question →

While assuming care for a client with advanced hepatic cirrhosis who recently underwent a large-volume paracentesis, the nurse evaluates the client's current status. The procedure notes indicate that 44 liters of ascitic fluid were removed. Which assessment finding is the most critical indicator of a developing physiological complication that requires immediate intervention?

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Answer: A steady increase in heart rate from 8686 to 114114 bpm combined with a narrowing pulse pressure

Answer

A steady increase in heart rate from 86 to 114 bpm combined with a narrowing pulse pressure
The correct answer identifies classical early compensatory signs of hypovolemic shock. Large-volume paracentesis frequently causes profound intravascular fluid shifts into the peritoneal space. The body compensates for this sudden loss of circulating volume by increasing the heart rate (tachycardia) and increasing peripheral vascular resistance, which manifests as a narrowing pulse pressure. This critical finding demands immediate medical intervention to prevent severe physiological deterioration.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the procedural risks associated with the client's history.
Large-volume paracentesis (removal of significant amounts of fluid, such as 44 liters) can lead to profound and rapid fluid shifts in clients with compromised liver function.
Removing ascitic fluid abruptly decreases intra-abdominal pressure, causing vasodilation and shifting fluid out of the intravascular space (third-spacing).
2
Evaluate the assessment findings against potential physiological complications.
Tachycardia (heart rate increasing to 114114 bpm) and a narrowing pulse pressure are classical early compensatory signs of hypovolemic shock.
The body attempts to compensate for the sudden decrease in circulating intravascular volume by increasing the heart rate and constricting peripheral vessels.
3
Prioritize the findings to determine the most critical indicator.
The hemodynamic instability takes immediate precedence over normal ABGs, therapeutic positioning, and expected mild post-procedural fatigue.
Unrecognized and untreated hypovolemic shock can rapidly progress to vital organ ischemia and cardiovascular collapse, demanding immediate interventions such as IV albumin administration.

Key Concept

Post-Paracentesis Hemodynamic Monitoring and Shock Recognition
Question 1207Question →

A nurse is caring for a client who was admitted to the medical unit with a 3-day history of severe, persistent diarrhea. Based on this clinical presentation, which acid-base imbalance is the client at greatest risk of developing?

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Answer: Metabolic acidosis

Answer

Metabolic acidosis
Intestinal fluids below the pyloric sphincter are highly alkaline because they are rich in bicarbonate. When a client experiences severe diarrhea, they lose excessive amounts of this base. The depletion of bicarbonate leaves a relative excess of hydrogen ions (acid) in the blood, causing the serum pH to drop and resulting in metabolic acidosis.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary source and type of fluid loss.
The client has severe diarrhea, meaning they are losing large amounts of lower gastrointestinal fluids.
Different bodily fluids have different pH levels, so the source of the fluid loss determines the resulting acid-base imbalance.
2
Determine the primary solute lost in diarrhea.
Lower intestinal fluids are highly alkaline because they contain large amounts of bicarbonate.
The pancreas secretes bicarbonate into the intestines to neutralize stomach acid.
3
Correlate the solute loss to the corresponding acid-base imbalance.
Loss of a base (bicarbonate) leads to an increasingly acidic environment in the blood, resulting in metabolic acidosis.
When bicarbonate levels drop, the ratio of acid to base increases, lowering the serum pH.

Key Concept

Acid-base imbalances related to gastrointestinal fluid loss
Question 1208Question →

A nurse is evaluating a 64-year-old client who is 12 hours postoperative following a massive bowel resection with the creation of a colostomy. The client is receiving continuous intravenous fluids and has a nasogastric (NG) tube connected to low intermittent wall suction. Which of the following assessment findings represent a high-risk physiological complication requiring the nurse's immediate intervention? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: The client's radial pulse is 122 beats/min and thready, with a narrowing pulse pressure.; Arterial blood gas (ABG) results indicate a pH of 7.52, PaCO2 of 42 mm Hg, and HCO3- of 34 mEq/L.; The client exhibits a positive Trousseau's sign when blood pressure is being measured.

Answer

The findings requiring immediate intervention are the thready tachycardia with narrowing pulse pressure (indicating shock), the severe metabolic alkalosis on the ABG, and the positive Trousseau's sign (indicating hypocalcemia).
A thready heart rate of 122 beats/min with a narrowing pulse pressure indicates early hypovolemic shock, requiring immediate fluid resuscitation. The ABG reveals severe metabolic alkalosis (pH > 7.45, HCO3- > 26 mEq/L) directly caused by the continuous loss of gastric hydrochloric acid from the NG suction. Furthermore, metabolic alkalosis decreases ionized calcium levels in the blood, leading to acute hypocalcemia which manifests as neuromuscular excitability (a positive Trousseau's sign). All three of these findings represent severe physiological decompensation requiring immediate medical intervention.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the clinical scenario
The client is 12 hours post-op from a massive bowel resection and has active NG suction.
Establishing the postoperative timeframe and current therapies helps predict potential complications versus normal findings.
2
Evaluate vital signs for signs of shock
Identified a thready heart rate of 122 beats/min and a narrowing pulse pressure as abnormal.
These are classic early indicators of hypovolemia or hemorrhage, which are high-risk complications after major abdominal surgery.
3
Interpret ABG values in the context of NG suction
Identified a pH of 7.52 and HCO3- of 34 mEq/L as uncompensated metabolic alkalosis.
Continuous low wall suction removes large amounts of hydrochloric acid from the stomach, causing alkalosis.
4
Connect metabolic alkalosis to electrolyte shifts
Identified the positive Trousseau's sign as a manifestation of hypocalcemia.
Alkalemia increases calcium binding to albumin, reducing ionized calcium and causing neuromuscular excitability.
5
Rule out expected postoperative findings and appropriate care
Ruled out the absent bowel sounds, normal PaO2, and semi-Fowler's position.
Absent bowel sounds are expected for 24-72 hours post-op, normal ABG oxygenation needs no intervention, and slight knee flexion reduces abdominal tension appropriately.

Key Concept

Recognition of life-threatening complications (hypovolemic shock, metabolic alkalosis, and acute hypocalcemia) following massive abdominal surgery and gastric suction.
Question 1209Question →

A 6565-year-old client is receiving a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of diltiazem at 15 mg/hr15 \text{ mg/hr} through a single-lumen peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) for the management of atrial fibrillation. The client suddenly becomes lethargic and diaphoretic. The nurse assesses a heart rate of 32 beats/min32 \text{ beats/min} and a blood pressure of 72/40 mmHg72/40 \text{ mmHg}. The healthcare provider prescribes atropine 1 mg1 \text{ mg} IV push STAT. The client has no other IV access. Which sequence of actions is the safest and most appropriate for the nurse to administer the prescribed atropine?

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Answer: Stop the diltiazem infusion, aspirate 5 mL5 \text{ mL} of blood from the PICC hub, flush with normal saline, administer the atropine, and flush again.

Answer

The nurse must first stop the diltiazem infusion, aspirate blood from the PICC hub to clear the residual medication from the catheter dead space, and then flush and administer the atropine.
The correct action safely addresses the medical emergency by prioritizing the administration of the rescue medication while actively preventing further harm. Because the single-lumen PICC is filled with diltiazem (the drug causing the toxicity), the nurse must aspirate the dead space before flushing. This removes the residual drug from the catheter, preventing a rapid bolus of diltiazem from entering the heart.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the cause of the client's deterioration.
The client is experiencing symptomatic bradycardia and hypotension, which are life-threatening adverse effects of the continuous diltiazem infusion.
Recognizing drug toxicity dictates the immediate cessation of the offending agent.
2
Determine the safest method to administer the rescue medication (atropine) using the existing single-lumen PICC.
The catheter must be cleared of the offending drug before the rescue medication is given.
Central venous catheters have internal volume (dead space) that holds medication. The nurse must not flush this residual medication into the client.
3
Select the correct sequence of line management.
Stop the pump, attach an empty syringe, aspirate 3-5 mL of blood to remove the residual diltiazem, discard the syringe, flush with normal saline, administer the atropine, and flush again.
This sequence ensures the client receives the life-saving atropine rapidly without inadvertently receiving a dangerous bolus of diltiazem.

Key Concept

When converting a central line lumen that is infusing a vasoactive or highly potent medication into a port for an emergent IV push, the nurse must aspirate the catheter's dead space to prevent inadvertently administering a rapid, potentially fatal bolus of the continuous medication.
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 1210Question →

A client with a history of heart failure is admitted to the progressive care unit. During the night shift, the client suddenly awakens with severe dyspnea, a productive cough with frothy pink sputum, and an oxygen saturation of 84% on room air. The nurse observes profound jugular venous distention and hears diffuse coarse crackles upon auscultation. Arrange the following nursing actions in the correct order of priority from first to last.

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Answer

The correct priority sequence is to first position the client upright with legs dependent, then apply high-flow oxygen, followed by administering intravenous furosemide, and finally inserting an indwelling urinary catheter.
In acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema, the priority is to immediately improve oxygenation and reduce cardiac workload. Positioning the client in a high-Fowler's position with legs dependent uses gravity to decrease venous return (preload) and allows the lungs to expand more fully. This is the fastest, most immediate independent nursing intervention. Next, applying high-flow oxygen addresses the severe hypoxemia caused by fluid in the alveoli. Once the client's airway and breathing are acutely supported, intravenous furosemide is administered to initiate rapid diuresis, thereby removing fluid and further reducing preload. Finally, inserting a urinary catheter is necessary to accurately track the massive diuresis expected from the furosemide, making it the logical final step in this sequence.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the client's immediate physiological needs based on ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation).
The client is determined to be in acute respiratory distress due to fluid overload (flash pulmonary edema).
Establishing the primary threat to life dictates the prioritization of all subsequent nursing interventions.
2
Prioritize mechanical respiratory and hemodynamic interventions.
Positioning the client upright with legs dependent is selected as the immediate first action.
Sitting the client up immediately decreases venous return to the heart (reducing preload) and allows for maximum diaphragmatic excursion to ease breathing.
3
Address the acute hypoxemia.
Applying oxygen via a non-rebreather face mask is prioritized as the second action.
The client's oxygen saturation is 84%, requiring immediate high-concentration oxygen therapy to prevent severe tissue hypoxia.
4
Administer pharmacological treatment for the underlying fluid overload.
Intravenous furosemide is given.
Loop diuretics reduce the circulating fluid volume, thereby decreasing pulmonary congestion, but they must be administered after immediate airway and breathing stabilization.
5
Implement necessary monitoring tools for the pharmacological intervention.
An indwelling urinary catheter is inserted.
Accurate measurement of urine output is critical to evaluate the effectiveness of the rapid-acting loop diuretic.

Key Concept

Prioritization of care in acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema follows the principles of immediate preload reduction and airway management, beginning with physical positioning, followed by oxygenation, pharmacological diuresis, and precise fluid monitoring.
Question 1211Question →

A nurse is developing a plan of care for an older adult client who is bedbound, has a continuous peripheral IV infusion, and occasionally experiences urinary incontinence. The client's family reports that the client has suddenly become much more confused over the past 24 hours. Which of the following nursing actions should the nurse include in the plan of care? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Implement a turning schedule to reposition the client at least every 2 hours using pillows for support.; Apply a moisture-repellent barrier cream to the perineal skin after cleansing the area following incontinent episodes.

Answer

The correct nursing actions are implementing a 2-hour turning schedule with pillows for support and applying a moisture-repellent barrier cream to the perineal skin after incontinent episodes.
The correct nursing actions focus on maintaining skin integrity and promoting comfort through established, evidence-based practices. Implementing a turning schedule every 2 hours with pillow support effectively offloads pressure from vulnerable bony prominences. Additionally, applying a moisture-repellent barrier cream after cleansing incontinent episodes protects the epidermal layer from the caustic effects of urine and feces, preventing incontinence-associated dermatitis.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical presentation and identify primary risk factors.
The client is an older adult, bedbound, incontinent, with a peripheral IV, and experiencing a sudden onset of acute confusion. The main risks are skin breakdown, potential infection or delirium, and safety hazards.
Identifying the client's specific vulnerabilities is essential to prioritize safe and effective basic care interventions.
2
Evaluate the proposed interventions for maintaining skin integrity.
Repositioning every 2 hours and using barrier creams are correct, evidence-based practices. Delegating skin assessment and keeping the head of the bed at 60 degrees are incorrect and potentially harmful actions.
Assessment remains strictly an RN responsibility. A 60-degree elevation significantly increases sacral shearing forces, whereas the recommended angle is 30 degrees or less for resting.
3
Evaluate the proposed interventions for managing the client's confusion and safety.
Applying immediate restraints and attributing sudden confusion to normal aging are incorrect actions.
Sudden confusion indicates an acute pathological process (like an infection or delirium), not normal aging. Restraints are strictly a last resort after all other less restrictive measures have failed.

Key Concept

Basic care and comfort for the bedbound older adult involves prioritizing skin integrity through proper positioning and hygiene, using the least restrictive safety measures, recognizing acute cognitive changes as abnormal, and understanding the legal scope of practice for delegation.
Question 1212Question →

At the start of the night shift on a specialized neurovascular unit, a registered nurse is distributing clinical tasks among the healthcare team, which includes a licensed practical nurse (LPN/VN) and an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which of the following assignments represent safe and appropriate delegation? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Authorizing the LPN/VN to initiate a scheduled continuous enteral feeding via a healed gastrostomy stoma; Tasking the UAP with performing routine passive range-of-motion movements for a hemodynamically stable client 5 days post-infarction; Directing the UAP to secure pneumatic compression sleeves on the legs of an immobile client with chronic polyneuropathy

Answer

The safe delegations are authorizing the LPN/VN to initiate enteral feeding via a healed stoma, tasking the UAP with passive range-of-motion exercises for a stable client, and directing the UAP to apply pneumatic compression sleeves.
The registered nurse must ensure that delegation aligns with both the client's acuity and the team member's scope of practice. Unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) can perform routine, unchanging procedures for stable clients, such as performing passive range-of-motion exercises and applying pneumatic compression sleeves. Licensed practical nurses (LPN/VNs) can safely care for stable clients with predictable outcomes, which includes initiating continuous enteral feedings through a healed gastrostomy tube. None of these correct assignments require advanced clinical judgment, initial assessment, or evaluation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the licensure and scope of practice for each team member.
The RN retains evaluation, assessment, teaching (EAT), and care of unstable clients. LPN/VNs care for stable clients and perform standard procedures. UAPs perform routine tasks of daily living.
Delegation must adhere to legal boundaries and the Five Rights of Delegation.
2
Evaluate the stability of the clients described in the options.
The client with an expanding subdural hematoma and the client on thrombolytic therapy are acutely unstable and require direct RN care.
Unstable clients can experience rapid physiological changes requiring immediate advanced clinical judgment.
3
Analyze the complexity of the delegated tasks for the remaining stable clients.
Evaluation of a modified diet requires RN judgment. Enteral feeding via a healed stoma, range-of-motion exercises, and applying compression sleeves are standard, non-evaluative tasks.
Delegating standard tasks for stable clients optimizes unit workflow while maintaining safety.

Key Concept

Assignment, Delegation and Supervision
Question 1213Question →

A nurse has completed wound care for a client diagnosed with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) of the lower extremity and influenza. The client is appropriately placed on contact and droplet precautions. The nurse is currently wearing an isolation gown, a surgical mask, a face shield, and clean gloves. Arrange the following steps for removing (doffing) the personal protective equipment in the correct chronological sequence to prevent self-contamination.

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Answer

The correct doffing sequence is: 1) Remove gloves, 2) Remove face shield, 3) Remove gown, 4) Remove mask, 5) Perform hand hygiene.
According to standard infection control guidelines, the removal of personal protective equipment must proceed from the most contaminated items to the least contaminated to prevent self-inoculation. Gloves are removed first, followed by eyewear (handling only the clean earpieces). The gown is then removed and rolled inside-out. The mask is removed last to maintain respiratory protection during the preceding steps. Finally, hand hygiene is strictly performed to eliminate any bacteria or viruses that may have been transferred to the skin.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Remove gloves.
Hands are now bare.
Gloves are the most heavily contaminated item and must be removed first.
2
Remove the face shield.
Eye protection is safely removed.
Protects the face from contamination; it is removed from the back to avoid touching the contaminated front.
3
Remove the isolation gown.
Gown is contained.
Rolled inside-out to trap pathogens and prevent uniform or environmental contamination.
4
Remove the surgical mask.
Airway protection is removed.
Removed last to ensure respiratory protection is maintained while handling the other contaminated PPE.
5
Perform hand hygiene.
Hands are decontaminated.
Removes any transient pathogens that may have transferred to the hands during the doffing process.

Key Concept

Proper doffing sequence of personal protective equipment (PPE)
Question 1214Question →

Upon receiving a prescription for a loading dose of intravenous phenytoin, a nurse evaluates a client's vascular access. The client currently has a single peripheral catheter with 5% dextrose in water (D5W) infusing at 75 mL/hr. Which sequence of actions ensures safe delivery of the antiepileptic?

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Answer: Suspend the primary fluid, flush the catheter with 0.9% sodium chloride, administer the phenytoin, and flush again with 0.9% sodium chloride.

Answer

The nurse must suspend the primary dextrose fluid, flush the catheter with 0.9% sodium chloride, administer the phenytoin, and flush again with 0.9% sodium chloride.
Phenytoin is highly incompatible with dextrose-containing solutions and will form a solid precipitate if mixed. To administer the medication safely through a single line currently running a dextrose solution, the nurse must temporarily pause the continuous infusion, flush the line with 0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline) to clear any residual dextrose, administer the phenytoin, and then perform a final flush with normal saline before resuming the primary infusion.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the prescribed medication and the current continuous infusion.
The nurse identifies that intravenous phenytoin is prescribed and 5% dextrose in water (D5W) is currently infusing through the only available vascular access.
Establishing baseline parameters is necessary to determine medication compatibility and safe administration routes.
2
Determine the compatibility of phenytoin with the primary infusion fluid.
The nurse recognizes that phenytoin is highly incompatible with all dextrose-containing solutions.
When mixed with dextrose, phenytoin quickly forms a solid micro-precipitate that can cause a life-threatening embolus.
3
Formulate a safe administration strategy using the existing single peripheral line.
The nurse plans to pause the D5W, flush the line thoroughly with 0.9% sodium chloride (normal saline), administer the drug at a safe rate, and flush again with normal saline before restarting the D5W.
This specific sequence completely separates the incompatible fluids, ensuring the medication safely reaches the client without crystallizing in the tubing.

Key Concept

Intravenous Compatibility and Safe Phenytoin Administration
Question 1215Question →

A nurse is delegating care tasks to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) for a client who is receiving continuous enteral tube feedings, wears bilateral sequential compression devices (SCDs), and is on contact precautions for a Clostridioides difficile infection. Which instruction provided by the nurse to the UAP is appropriate?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Remove the sequential compression sleeves during the bed bath and ensure the legs are completely dry before reapplying them.

Answer

The correct instruction is to remove the sequential compression sleeves for the bed bath and ensure the client's legs are completely dry before reapplying them.
The UAP is permitted to remove and reapply sequential compression devices (SCDs) to perform basic hygiene tasks like a bed bath. Instructing the UAP to ensure the skin is completely dry before reapplication is a correct and necessary intervention to prevent moisture accumulation, which can lead to skin maceration and breakdown. This task safely falls within the UAP's scope of providing basic care and comfort.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's risk factors and prescribed therapies.
Identified continuous tube feeding (aspiration risk), SCDs (skin integrity risk), and C. difficile (transmission risk).
Comprehensive care requires addressing mobility, nutrition, and infection control safely during basic care tasks.
2
Evaluate the UAP scope of practice for the suggested interventions.
Determined that operating feeding pumps is outside the UAP's scope, while assisting with hygiene and SCD removal/reapplication is within scope.
Safe delegation requires matching the task to the personnel's legal and educational boundaries.
3
Assess the physical positioning and safety implications of each instruction.
Identified that lowering the bed flat without RN intervention to pause the pump causes aspiration risk, and alcohol rub fails to eradicate C. difficile spores.
Nursing instructions must not inadvertently cause harm or violate standard safety protocols.
4
Select the appropriate basic care instruction.
Selected the instruction regarding SCD removal and skin drying.
This is a safe, delegable basic care task that promotes skin integrity and comfort.

Key Concept

Delegation of basic care tasks while maintaining safety protocols for enteral feeding, infection control, and skin integrity.
Question 1216Question →

A client is admitted to the neurotrauma unit following a complete spinal cord injury at the C5 level. Several hours after admission, the nurse assesses the client and finds a blood pressure of 82/46 mm Hg, a heart rate of 44 beats/minute, and warm, flushed skin on the extremities. Based on these clinical findings, which intervention should the nurse anticipate as the highest priority?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Prepare to administer intravenous atropine and a continuous vasopressor infusion.

Answer

The priority action is to prepare to administer intravenous atropine and a continuous vasopressor infusion.
The client's presentation of hypotension, bradycardia, and warm, flushed skin following a high spinal cord injury indicates neurogenic shock. This life-threatening condition occurs due to a sudden disruption of sympathetic nervous system pathways, leading to massive vasodilation (causing warm skin and hypotension) and unopposed parasympathetic tone (causing bradycardia). The priority intervention is to restore vascular tone using continuous vasopressor infusions and to manage the severe bradycardia with medications such as intravenous atropine.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's vital signs and physical assessment findings.
The client is exhibiting profound hypotension (82/46 mm Hg), severe bradycardia (44 beats/min), and warm, flushed skin.
Identifying abnormal vital sign patterns is the first step in recognizing life-threatening complications following a spinal cord injury.
2
Correlate the clinical findings with the mechanism of injury to identify the specific physiological complication.
The combination of a cervical spine injury, hypotension, bradycardia, and warm skin points directly to neurogenic shock, rather than hypovolemic shock.
Neurogenic shock occurs due to a massive loss of sympathetic nervous system tone, which uniquely causes bradycardia and vasodilation (warm skin) instead of the compensatory tachycardia and vasoconstriction seen in other forms of shock.
3
Determine the most appropriate immediate medical intervention to stabilize the client.
The nurse must anticipate administering vasopressors (to cause vasoconstriction and increase blood pressure) and atropine (to block vagal stimulation and increase heart rate).
Because the root cause is a loss of vasomotor tone and unopposed parasympathetic stimulation, treatment must artificially restore vascular resistance and heart rate.

Key Concept

Neurogenic Shock Recognition and Management
Question 1217Question →

A 65-year-old individual with a documented history of severe alcohol dependence and combat-related post-traumatic stress disorder is receiving treatment for acute pancreatitis. Exactly 48 hours after admission, the individual's behavior drastically changes. They begin pacing the corridor, sweating profusely, and displaying coarse bilateral hand tremors. The individual suddenly shouts, "The food here is laced with poison! I am leaving right now!" and aggressively steps toward the unit's exit doors.

What is the priority nursing intervention to safely manage this situation?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Maintain a safe physical distance while keeping a clear exit path, use short and concrete sentences to orient the individual, and anticipate initiating the substance withdrawal protocol.

Answer

The priority is to safely de-escalate the situation by maintaining physical distance, ensuring a clear exit pathway, providing concrete verbal orientation, and preparing to treat the underlying alcohol withdrawal.
The correct action prioritizes safety by maintaining distance and a clear exit, which prevents physical confrontation with a paranoid, agitated client. Using short, concrete sentences helps orient a delirious client without increasing sensory overload. Furthermore, anticipating the withdrawal protocol addresses the underlying physiological cause (alcohol withdrawal), which typically peaks at 48 to 72 hours and manifests with tremors, diaphoresis, and altered mental status.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the clinical timeline and physical assessment findings.
The onset of symptoms exactly 48 hours post-admission, combined with profuse sweating and coarse tremors, indicates alcohol withdrawal delirium rather than a purely psychiatric event.
Differentiating the root cause of acute agitation is critical for selecting both behavioral and medical interventions.
2
Evaluate the behavioral presentation and immediate safety risks.
The client is exhibiting paranoia, loud vocalizations, pacing, and is attempting to elope, creating a high risk for physical violence.
Safety of the client, staff, and milieu takes absolute priority in psychiatric and behavioral emergencies.
3
Select the most appropriate behavioral de-escalation technique.
The nurse must maintain physical distance, avoid blocking exits, and use short, orienting statements rather than confronting the delusion.
Cornering or physically touching a paranoid individual escalates defensive aggression, while complex reasoning is ineffective during delirium.
4
Anticipate the necessary collaborative intervention.
The nurse prepares to initiate the facility's substance withdrawal protocol (e.g., administering benzodiazepines).
While verbal de-escalation manages the immediate behavior, the underlying physiological instability must be treated to resolve the delirium completely.

Key Concept

De-escalation techniques and recognition of substance withdrawal in the acute care setting.
Question 1218Question →

A client is receiving continuous gastric suctioning via a nasogastric tube following abdominal surgery. Based on the physiological loss of gastric secretions, which acid-base imbalance should the nurse monitor for in this client?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Metabolic alkalosis

Answer

Metabolic alkalosis is the correct acid-base imbalance to monitor for in this scenario.
Gastric secretions contain a high amount of hydrochloric acid. When these secretions are continuously removed from the body via a nasogastric tube, the body loses a significant amount of hydrogen ions. This direct loss of acid causes a relative increase in circulating blood bicarbonate levels, shifting the body's pH upward and resulting in metabolic alkalosis.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary physiological fluid being lost.
The client is losing significant amounts of gastric secretions through continuous nasogastric suctioning.
Determining the source and type of fluid loss is necessary to understand which electrolytes and acids or bases are being depleted from the body.
2
Determine the acid-base composition of the lost fluid.
Gastric fluid contains a high concentration of hydrochloric acid.
Knowing the chemical composition of the fluid helps predict the resulting systemic imbalance.
3
Deduce the systemic effect of losing this fluid.
Losing acid from the body leaves a relative excess of base (bicarbonate) in the bloodstream, leading to metabolic alkalosis.
The body's pH shifts toward an alkalotic state when significant amounts of acid are physically removed through the gastrointestinal tract.

Key Concept

Acid-Base Imbalances: Gastrointestinal Fluid Loss
Question 1219Question →

A client is admitted to the intensive care unit with suspected Neisseria meningitidis infection and is initially placed on standard and droplet precautions. The client's respiratory status rapidly deteriorates, necessitating an emergent endotracheal intubation. Which combination of personal protective equipment (PPE) must the nurse wear while assisting the healthcare provider with this procedure?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: N95 respirator, eye protection, clean gown, and non-sterile gloves

Answer

The nurse must wear an N95 respirator, eye protection, a clean gown, and non-sterile gloves.
Endotracheal intubation is an aerosol-generating procedure (AGP). According to evidence-based infection control guidelines, when an AGP is performed on a client with a pathogen typically transmitted via droplets (such as Neisseria meningitidis), precautions must be temporarily escalated to airborne precautions. This requires the use of an N95 respirator (or PAPR) instead of a standard surgical mask. Furthermore, because of the high risk of fluid splashing and aerosol dispersion, full barrier protection including a clean gown, non-sterile gloves, and eye protection (goggles or face shield) is mandatory.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the baseline precautions for the client's suspected infection.
Neisseria meningitidis requires standard and droplet precautions (surgical mask).
Transmission of this pathogen occurs primarily through large respiratory droplets.
2
Analyze the impact of the scheduled procedure on precaution levels.
Endotracheal intubation is an aerosol-generating procedure (AGP).
AGPs mechanically disperse fine droplet nuclei (aerosols) into the surrounding air.
3
Determine the necessary PPE modifications based on the procedure.
Escalate to airborne precautions (N95 respirator or PAPR) and ensure full barrier protection (eye protection, clean gown, non-sterile gloves).
AGPs bypass standard droplet distances, requiring specialized particulate filtration to ensure healthcare worker safety.

Key Concept

Escalation of droplet precautions to airborne precautions during aerosol-generating procedures (AGPs).
Question 1220Question →

A client with right-sided hemiparesis requires assistance moving from the bed to a sitting position in a wheelchair. In which order should the nurse perform the following actions to safely complete this transfer?

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct sequence is to first position the wheelchair on the strong side, lock all brakes, assist the client to sit and dangle, apply the gait belt, and finally have the client pivot on their strong leg.
Safe client transfers require sequential preparation to minimize fall risk. The environment must first be set up correctly by placing the wheelchair on the client's unaffected (strong) side and locking all brakes. Once the environment is secure, the client is brought to a seated position to stabilize blood pressure (dangling). A gait belt is then applied for physical support before the actual physical movement occurs. Finally, the client uses their strong side to bear weight and pivot into the wheelchair.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Position the wheelchair on the left side at a 45-degree angle.
The destination is prepared optimally.
Placing the wheelchair on the strong side ensures the client can use their unaffected side to guide the transfer.
2
Lock the brakes on the bed and wheelchair.
The equipment is immobilized.
Prevents shifting of the bed or wheelchair, significantly reducing the risk of a fall.
3
Assist the client to sit on the edge of the bed and dangle.
The client is sitting safely on the bed edge.
Allows for assessment of orthostatic hypotension and stabilizes blood pressure before standing.
4
Apply a gait belt around the waist.
The nurse has a secure way to hold the client.
Provides a safe handhold for the nurse to control the client's center of gravity during the pivot.
5
Instruct the client to bear weight on the left leg and pivot.
The client safely completes the transfer into the wheelchair.
Bearing weight on the strong (left) leg compensates for the right-sided hemiparesis and prevents the knee from buckling.

Key Concept

Safe client transfer techniques and mobility assistance for hemiparesis.
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