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Question 1361Question →

A clinic nurse is assessing a client's readiness to quit smoking using the Stages of Change (Transtheoretical) Model. Arrange the following client statements in chronological order representing the stages of behavior change, from the initial stage to the final stage.

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Answer

The correct chronological order of the Stages of Change is: Precontemplation (no plans to quit), Contemplation (thinking about quitting), Preparation (buying patches and planning a date), Action (smoke-free for two weeks), and Maintenance (smoke-free for over a year).
The Stages of Change model progresses linearly through five phases. It begins with Precontemplation (unawareness or denial), moves to Contemplation (recognition and consideration), advances to Preparation (planning and small steps), enters Action (active modification of behavior for less than six months), and culminates in Maintenance (sustained behavior change for over six months).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the model being assessed in the clinical scenario.
The scenario uses the Stages of Change (Transtheoretical) Model.
This model is fundamental for health promotion and assessing client readiness to adopt healthy behaviors.
2
Recall the correct chronological sequence of the five stages in the model.
The sequence is Precontemplation, Contemplation, Preparation, Action, and Maintenance.
Behavior change progresses systematically through these specific cognitive and behavioral phases.
3
Analyze each client statement and match it to the corresponding stage.
Statement 1 matches Precontemplation. Statement 2 matches Contemplation. Statement 3 matches Preparation. Statement 4 matches Action. Statement 5 matches Maintenance.
Matching statements to definitions accurately categorizes the client's current behavioral state.
4
Arrange the statements in the correct chronological order based on the identified stages.
The items are ordered logically from the initial lack of awareness to long-term sustained change.
This confirms the understanding of the progressive nature of health promotion interventions.

Key Concept

The Stages of Change (Transtheoretical) Model is used in health promotion to assess a client's readiness to modify health behaviors, progressing through Precontemplation, Contemplation, Preparation, Action, and Maintenance.
Question 1362Question →

A nurse is coordinating the care for an older adult client of the Hindu faith who is admitted with a severe exacerbation of heart failure. Which of the following nursing actions demonstrate an appropriate incorporation of the client's religious and spiritual practices into the plan of care? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Assigning a same-sex healthcare provider to assist the client with bathing and personal hygiene tasks.; Consulting with the client and family prior to moving or removing any sacred threads (janeu) or religious jewelry for medical procedures.; Accommodating the family's request to position the client's bed so that their head faces east or south in the room.

Answer

The correct nursing actions include assigning a same-sex healthcare provider for hygiene, consulting the client before removing sacred threads, and accommodating requests to position the bed facing east or south.
The correct nursing actions prioritize cultural competence, client autonomy, and therapeutic care. In Hindu culture, modesty is highly valued, making a same-sex provider preferable for personal care. Sacred threads (janeu) and religious jewelry have profound spiritual significance and should never be removed without informed consent. Additionally, traditional Hindu practices often involve positioning a sick individual's bed so that their head faces east or south to align with spiritual beliefs.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's cultural and religious background (Hindu faith) to identify appropriate spiritual accommodations and modesty preferences.
Identified that modesty, protection of sacred items, and specific spatial orientations are important cultural considerations.
Individualizing care based on a client's specific religious and spiritual needs is a core component of holistic nursing.
2
Evaluate each nursing action to determine if it falls within the registered nurse scope of practice, utilizes therapeutic communication, and avoids cultural stereotyping.
Identified that delegating spiritual assessment, offering false reassurance, and assuming dietary preferences violate nursing standards.
Safe and effective care requires adherence to delegation rules (e.g., nurses cannot delegate assessment) and the use of evidence-based therapeutic communication.
3
Select the interventions that demonstrate respect for the client's autonomy and spiritual practices while maintaining safe ethical standards.
Selected the options supporting same-sex caregivers, preservation of sacred threads, and directional bed positioning.
These actions actively integrate the client's spiritual beliefs into the clinical environment without compromising medical safety.

Key Concept

Cultural competence and spiritual care integration in nursing practice.
Question 1363Question →

A school nurse is planning health initiatives for the upcoming academic year. Which of the following planned activities represents a primary level of disease prevention?

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Answer: Administering scheduled immunizations to incoming students

Answer

Administering scheduled immunizations to incoming students
The correct answer is administering immunizations because it represents primary prevention, which includes interventions aimed at preventing disease or injury before it occurs by reducing risk factors or increasing resistance.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the question to determine the specific level of prevention being asked.
The question asks for an example of 'primary prevention'.
Identifying the target concept ensures the correct classification criteria are applied to the options.
2
Define primary prevention in the context of community and public health.
Primary prevention involves actions that prevent a disease or injury from occurring in the first place (e.g., vaccines, education, protective gear).
A clear definition is required to evaluate each nursing intervention.
3
Evaluate each option against the definitions of primary, secondary, and tertiary prevention.
Immunizations prevent disease before it occurs (primary). Screenings and testing aim for early detection (secondary). Support groups manage existing conditions (tertiary).
Systematic evaluation eliminates distractors representing secondary or tertiary prevention.

Key Concept

Primary prevention strategies focus on promoting health and preventing the initial occurrence of disease or injury.
Question 1364Question →

During the immediate postoperative period following a posterior total hip arthroplasty, the nurse plans care to maintain joint stability. Which specific action must the nurse implement to protect the new prosthesis from dislocation?

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Answer: Maintain an abduction wedge between the client's lower extremities.

Answer

Maintain an abduction wedge between the client's lower extremities.
Following a total hip arthroplasty with a posterior approach, the joint is highly susceptible to dislocation if it is adducted, internally rotated, or flexed beyond 90 degrees. Maintaining an abduction wedge between the legs physically prevents adduction (the legs crossing the midline), thereby reducing the risk of the prosthesis popping out of the joint socket.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the surgical procedure and its specific structural risks.
The client underwent a posterior total hip arthroplasty, which carries a high risk of posterior dislocation.
Different surgical approaches dictate specific postoperative movement restrictions.
2
Determine the contraindicated movements for a posterior approach.
The restricted movements are hip flexion greater than 90 degrees, adduction (crossing the midline), and internal rotation.
Understanding the mechanism of injury is required to select the correct preventative nursing intervention.
3
Select the nursing action that actively prevents these hazardous movements.
Placing an abduction wedge between the legs prevents adduction, directly mitigating the risk of dislocation.
This intervention aligns with the core goal of reducing risk potential in the immediate postoperative period.

Key Concept

Postoperative risk reduction for a posterior total hip arthroplasty requires strict avoidance of hip adduction, internal rotation, and severe flexion.
Question 1365Question →

A nurse is admitting a client with severe anxiety and a history of self-directed violence to an inpatient psychiatric unit. Which actions by the nurse support the establishment and maintenance of a safe and therapeutic environment? (Select all that apply.)

Select all that apply

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Answer: Removing belts, shoelaces, glass items, and personal medications from the client's luggage during the admission search; Assigning the client to a semi-private room located in direct view of the central nurses' station; Explaining the unit's behavioral expectations and providing a written schedule of daily therapeutic activities

Answer

The appropriate actions to establish a therapeutic environment are removing potentially hazardous items during the admission search, assigning the client to a highly visible room near the nurses' station, and providing a structured daily schedule to reduce anxiety.
A therapeutic environment (milieu) provides physical and emotional safety, structure, and support. Removing contraband such as glass, belts, and shoelaces eliminates immediate hazards for a client with a history of self-directed violence. Assigning the client to a room near the nurses' station ensures continuous monitoring. Orienting the client to the daily schedule and behavioral expectations provides predictability, which is a fundamental intervention for reducing severe anxiety and establishing a therapeutic routine.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's presentation and history from the stem.
The client presents with severe anxiety and a history of self-directed violence, indicating a high risk for self-harm and a need for a secure, predictable environment.
Identifying specific client safety risks and emotional needs is the first step in establishing an individualized therapeutic milieu.
2
Evaluate each option against the principles of milieu therapy, patient safety, and scope of practice.
Contraband removal (safety), strategic room assignment (observation), and providing structure (predictability) are correct actions. Delegating assessment (scope violation), preventative restraints (least restrictive violation), and false reassurance (non-therapeutic communication) are incorrect.
The nurse must prioritize interventions that ensure physical safety while utilizing the least restrictive measures and maintaining therapeutic communication.

Key Concept

Therapeutic Milieu and Environmental Safety
Question 1366Question →

A nurse is preparing to perform a routine capillary blood glucose test for a client with diabetes mellitus. Arrange the following steps of the procedure in the correct chronological order to ensure accurate diagnostic results and minimize the risk of infection.

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Answer

The correct chronological sequence is to first cleanse the site, allow it to air dry, puncture the skin, wipe away the first drop of blood, and finally apply the second drop to the test strip.
Proper sequencing of capillary blood glucose testing is essential for risk reduction and diagnostic accuracy. Cleansing and drying the site prevents infection and chemical interference from the alcohol. Wiping away the first drop of blood removes serous fluid that can dilute the sample, ensuring that the second drop used for the test provides an accurate and reliable measurement.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Cleanse and dry the puncture site.
The site is free of surface pathogens and residual alcohol.
Prevents infection and ensures alcohol does not falsely alter the glucose reading.
2
Puncture the skin and wipe away the first drop of blood.
Interstitial fluid from the trauma of the puncture is removed.
The first drop contains tissue fluid that dilutes the blood, leading to inaccurate diagnostic results.
3
Collect the second drop of blood on the test strip.
Pure capillary blood is analyzed by the glucometer.
Provides the most accurate reflection of the client's current systemic blood glucose level, reducing the risk of inappropriate insulin dosing.

Key Concept

Capillary Blood Glucose Collection Technique
Question 1367Question →

A client diagnosed with community-acquired pneumonia is scheduled to receive a 0.5-gram0.5\text{-gram} dose of oral amoxicillin. The unit medication supply contains a liquid suspension with a concentration of 250 mg/5 mL250\text{ mg}/5\text{ mL}. How many milliliters must the nurse administer to provide the required dose?

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Answer: 10 mL10\text{ mL}

Answer

The nurse should administer 10 mL10\text{ mL} of the oral suspension.
The correct volume is 10 mL10\text{ mL}. To find this, the prescribed dose of 0.5 g0.5\text{ g} is first converted to 500 mg500\text{ mg}. Using the dosage formula (Desired/Have)×Quantity(Desired / Have) \times Quantity, the calculation is (500 mg/250 mg)×5 mL(500\text{ mg} / 250\text{ mg}) \times 5\text{ mL}, which equals 10 mL10\text{ mL}.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Convert the prescribed dose from grams to milligrams.
0.5 g=500 mg0.5\text{ g} = 500\text{ mg}
The available medication concentration is measured in milligrams, so the units must match before performing the calculation.
2
Apply the standard dosage formula: (Desired/Have)×Quantity(Desired / Have) \times Quantity.
(500 mg/250 mg)×5 mL=10 mL(500\text{ mg} / 250\text{ mg}) \times 5\text{ mL} = 10\text{ mL}
This determines the exact fluid volume needed to deliver the required mass of the medication.

Key Concept

Basic Dosage Calculation and Metric Conversions
Question 1368Question →

Following a high-speed motor vehicle collision, a pregnant client at 34 weeks gestation is admitted to the obstetric triage unit for continuous observation. The client reports no abdominal pain, and palpation reveals a relaxed, non-tender uterus. The client's vital signs are remarkably stable: blood pressure 112/70 mmHg, heart rate 82 bpm, respiratory rate 18/min, and oxygen saturation 99% on room air. Upon reviewing the continuous fetal telemetry data, the nurse observes a baseline heart rate of 155 bpm with completely absent beat-to-beat variability. The tracing displays a continuous, smooth, undulating sine-wave formation oscillating at 4 cycles per minute, which has persisted for the last 25 minutes without any abrupt changes, accelerations, or decelerations. Which of the following is the most accurate clinical interpretation of these findings and the corresponding priority intervention?

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Answer: Interpretation: The pattern signifies profound fetal anemia and severe hypoxia. Action: Notify the obstetric provider immediately and prepare the client for an emergent surgical delivery.

Answer

Interpretation: The pattern signifies profound fetal anemia and severe hypoxia. Action: Notify the obstetric provider immediately and prepare the client for an emergent surgical delivery.
The correct answer accurately identifies the fetal telemetry data as a true sinusoidal pattern. A sinusoidal pattern is an ominous, Category III finding characterized by a smooth, sine wave-like undulating baseline with a frequency of 3 to 5 cycles per minute and absent beat-to-beat variability. It signifies profound fetal anemia (often resulting from fetomaternal hemorrhage in the setting of trauma), severe hypoxia, or acidosis. Because it indicates impending fetal death, the immediate priority is to notify the provider and prepare for an emergent surgical delivery.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the maternal assessment findings.
The client has perfectly stable vital signs, a relaxed uterus, and denies any pain following a motor vehicle collision.
To rule out impending maternal hypovolemic shock and typical signs of placental abruption, such as a rigid, board-like abdomen.
2
Interpret the continuous fetal telemetry data.
The tracing shows a baseline of 155 bpm with completely absent variability and a smooth, sine wave-like undulating pattern at 4 cycles per minute, persisting for 25 minutes.
To accurately categorize the fetal heart rate pattern according to standardized clinical guidelines.
3
Synthesize the fetal heart rate interpretation with the clinical context.
The tracing is identified as a true sinusoidal pattern. In the setting of blunt maternal trauma, this pattern strongly suggests a massive fetomaternal hemorrhage causing severe fetal anemia.
To determine the underlying pathophysiology responsible for the abnormal tracing.
4
Determine the priority nursing action for a Category III sinusoidal tracing.
The nurse must notify the provider immediately and prepare the client for an emergent surgical delivery (cesarean birth).
A sinusoidal pattern is an ominous, life-threatening sign that requires immediate delivery to prevent intrauterine fetal demise.

Key Concept

A true sinusoidal fetal heart rate pattern (Category III) is characterized by a smooth, sine wave-like oscillation with absent variability. It signifies severe fetal anemia or hypoxia and requires immediate surgical delivery.
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 1369Question →

A school nurse is counseling a 15-year-old student who confides that they and their peers have been participating in "choking games" (intentional strangulation) during unsupervised after-school hours to achieve a brief euphoric high. The student states, "It is totally safe because we always have a friend watch and let go right before anyone actually passes out." Which action should the nurse take first?

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Answer: Perform a focused physical assessment of the student's head, neck, and eyes for petechiae, abrasions, or subtle neurological deficits.

Answer

The nurse's first action must be to perform a focused physical assessment of the student's head, neck, and eyes for signs of trauma or neurological deficits.
According to the nursing process, the nurse's first priority is always to assess the client for physiological harm, especially when the mechanism of injury (intentional strangulation) is potentially lethal. The nurse must inspect for petechiae, conjunctival hemorrhages, neck abrasions, and neurological deficits to rule out immediate, life-threatening complications before proceeding with psychosocial interventions.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the clinical scenario and identify the primary threat.
The student is engaging in intentional strangulation, which poses an immediate physiological risk of vascular damage, increased intracranial pressure, and cerebral hypoxia.
Recognizing the mechanism of injury dictates the clinical priority.
2
Apply the nursing process (ADPIE) to determine the first intervention.
Assessment must precede intervention, education, or reporting.
Without a physical assessment, the nurse cannot determine if the student is currently experiencing occult, life-threatening complications that require emergency medical transport.
3
Evaluate the distractors against safety guidelines and developmental principles.
The distractors represent critical errors: guaranteeing confidentiality for lethal behavior, inappropriately relying on written education for adolescent peer-driven behaviors, and delaying necessary safety notifications.
Eliminating unsafe or non-therapeutic actions confirms that physiological assessment is the only correct initial priority.

Key Concept

In cases of high-risk adolescent behaviors involving physical harm, the nurse must prioritize physiological assessment for acute injury before initiating education, counseling, or mandatory notifications.
Question 1370Question →

A nurse is assessing a client who is 4 hours postoperative following a total thyroidectomy. Which of the following assessment findings indicate a potential life-threatening complication and require immediate intervention? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: High-pitched, harsh respiratory sound during inspiration; Frequent, spontaneous swallowing motions while resting; Tingling and numbness around the lips and fingertips

Answer

The findings that require immediate intervention are the high-pitched respiratory sound, frequent swallowing motions, and tingling around the lips and fingertips.
The correct options represent life-threatening complications of a total thyroidectomy. A high-pitched, harsh respiratory sound (stridor) indicates airway obstruction. Frequent swallowing suggests internal bleeding and hematoma formation. Tingling around the lips and fingers is an early sign of hypocalcemia (due to parathyroid damage), which can lead to life-threatening tetany.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's postoperative timeframe and surgical procedure.
The client had a total thyroidectomy 4 hours ago, placing them at high risk for airway compromise, hemorrhage, and hypocalcemia.
Identifying procedure-specific risks is essential for focused assessment.
2
Evaluate each assessment finding against expected versus abnormal postoperative outcomes.
Stridor, frequent swallowing, and circumoral tingling are abnormal and dangerous. Scant drainage and a sore throat are expected.
Differentiating normal physiological responses from complications guides clinical judgment.
3
Prioritize the findings that require immediate intervention based on physiological risks.
The respiratory sound, swallowing motions, and tingling represent immediate threats to the airway and physiological stability.
Prioritization ensures life-threatening complications are addressed first.

Key Concept

Postoperative complications of thyroidectomy include airway obstruction (stridor), hemorrhage (frequent swallowing), and hypocalcemia (tingling/tetany).
Question 1371Question →

During routine care for a client isolated with Clostridioides difficile, a nurse gathers heavily soiled wound dressings into a red biohazard bag. As the nurse lifts the bag to discard it, the bottom tears and bloody drainage begins to drip onto the floor. Which action should the nurse take first?

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Answer: Place the torn bag entirely inside a second, intact red biohazard bag.

Answer

The nurse should immediately place the torn bag entirely inside a second, intact red biohazard bag to contain the leak.
When a biohazard bag becomes compromised, the standard infection control procedure is to double-bag the waste. The nurse should place the leaking bag entirely inside a second, intact biohazard bag to immediately contain the spill, minimize the risk of environmental contamination, and prevent further exposure.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the immediate hazardous exposure risk.
A torn biohazard bag is actively leaking infectious material onto the floor.
Recognizing the source of contamination dictates the priority intervention.
2
Select the safest method of primary containment.
The compromised bag is double-bagged.
Placing the torn bag into an intact one contains the leak without unnecessarily exposing the nurse or environment to further contamination.
3
Plan for secondary decontamination.
The floor will need to be cleaned using a bleach-based sporicidal solution.
C. difficile spores are highly resistant to alcohol and require specific cleaning agents.

Key Concept

Biohazardous Waste Containment
Question 1372Question →

A nurse in a community health clinic is evaluating a 24-month-old child whose parents have brought them in for a general assessment. After observing the child's interactions and motor skills, the nurse reviews the findings. Which assessment finding should the nurse identify as a developmental delay requiring further evaluation?

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Answer: The child has a spoken vocabulary of six words and relies primarily on pointing to communicate.

Answer

The child having a spoken vocabulary of only six words and relying on pointing indicates a language development delay.
By 24 months (2 years) of age, a child is expected to have a vocabulary of 50 or more words and begin putting two words together to form simple phrases (e.g., 'more milk'). A vocabulary restricted to only six words with a reliance on pointing is a significant language delay and requires immediate referral for a hearing evaluation and speech-language therapy.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the client's current age and the core concept being assessed.
The client is 24 months (2 years) old, and the nurse must evaluate if the observed behaviors meet expected developmental milestones.
Accurate age identification is necessary to apply the correct cognitive, motor, and psychosocial parameters.
2
Evaluate the language milestone presented in the options.
A 24-month-old should speak at least 50 words and use two-word phrases. A vocabulary of six words falls far below this expectation.
Identifying missing critical milestones highlights areas needing early intervention.
3
Analyze the remaining options to ensure they describe normal behavior for a 24-month-old.
Parallel play, negativism ('No!'), and the inability to pedal a tricycle are all completely normal and expected for a 2-year-old.
Distinguishing normal developmental behaviors from actual delays prevents unnecessary referrals and guides appropriate parental reassurance.

Key Concept

Toddler Developmental Milestones (24 Months)
Question 1373Question →

A nurse is creating a comprehensive basic care and comfort plan for an older adult client with advanced dementia who is bedbound, has a history of sacral pressure injuries, and is receiving continuous enteral tube feedings. Which of the following nursing interventions should be included in the client's plan of care? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Maintain the head of the bed elevated between 30 and 45 degrees to balance aspiration precautions with the prevention of sacral shearing forces.; Reposition the client using a 30-degree lateral inclined position, alternating between the right and left sides to minimize pressure on the greater trochanters.; Apply a protective moisture barrier cream to the client's perineal and sacral areas after cleansing following each episode of incontinence.

Answer

The correct interventions are maintaining the head of the bed between 30 and 45 degrees, repositioning using a 30-degree lateral incline, and applying a moisture barrier cream after incontinence episodes.
The correct interventions directly address the client's competing physiological needs. Maintaining a 30 to 45-degree head-of-bed elevation prevents aspiration from the enteral feeding while minimizing sacral shearing forces. The 30-degree lateral inclined position effectively offloads pressure from the high-risk sacral and trochanteric areas. Applying a moisture barrier cream is an essential proactive measure to prevent incontinence-associated dermatitis and subsequent pressure injuries.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's clinical profile and risk factors.
The client is bedbound, has a history of sacral pressure injuries, receives continuous enteral feedings, and has advanced dementia.
Identifying overlapping risk factors (aspiration risk vs. skin breakdown risk) is necessary to prioritize conflicting interventions.
2
Evaluate positioning strategies for enteral feeding alongside pressure injury prevention.
A 30 to 45-degree head of bed elevation prevents aspiration while avoiding the severe sacral shearing forces caused by a 90-degree high Fowler's position. The 30-degree lateral incline is best for side-lying.
Evidence-based practice requires balancing respiratory/gastrointestinal safety with tissue integrity.
3
Assess delegation and age-related physiological principles.
Skin assessment cannot be delegated to UAP, and new-onset severe incontinence must be investigated as a pathological symptom, not dismissed as normal aging.
Maintaining scope of practice and accurate clinical judgment ensures safe care delivery.

Key Concept

Complex Care Coordination: Balancing Aspiration Precautions and Tissue Integrity in the Bedbound Client
Question 1374Question →

A charge nurse is observing a newly hired registered nurse (RN) prioritize and delegate care for a group of post-surgical clients. Which action by the new RN compromises client safety and requires immediate intervention by the charge nurse?

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Answer: Assigning an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to assist a client with their initial ambulation following a total hip arthroplasty.

Answer

The action that requires immediate intervention is assigning a UAP to assist a client with their initial ambulation following a total hip arthroplasty.
The initial ambulation of a client following a major surgery, such as a total hip arthroplasty, requires comprehensive nursing assessment. The RN must evaluate the client for dizziness, orthostatic hypotension, muscle strength, and pain, while ensuring hip precautions are maintained to prevent joint dislocation or severe falls. Because UAPs cannot perform physiological assessments, delegating this task places the client in immediate danger, compromises environmental safety, and requires immediate intervention by the charge nurse.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the RN's delegation choices for safety risks and scope of practice violations.
Routine tasks (SCD application, measuring urine, observing behavior) are within the UAP scope. Initial post-operative ambulation poses a high risk for falls and orthostatic hypotension.
Delegating tasks outside of a UAP's scope can directly lead to client injury.
2
Determine the assessment requirements for a client ambulating for the first time after major orthopedic surgery.
The initial ambulation requires the RN to evaluate the client for dizziness, pain tolerance, muscle strength, and proper adherence to joint precautions.
Only a licensed nurse can perform physiological assessments and evaluate a client's tolerance to a new, high-risk activity.
3
Identify which delegated task constitutes improper delegation that could lead to immediate client injury.
Delegating the initial ambulation of the total hip arthroplasty client places them at severe risk of a fall or joint dislocation.
The UAP lacks the clinical training to assess for or properly react to sudden post-operative complications during movement.

Key Concept

Delegation of High-Risk Mobility Tasks and Fall Prevention
Question 1375Question →

A client is admitted to the intensive care unit with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). At admission, the client's serum glucose was 720 mg/dL720\text{ mg/dL} (40.0 mmol/L40.0\text{ mmol/L}) and serum potassium was 5.2 mEq/L5.2\text{ mEq/L} (5.2 mmol/L5.2\text{ mmol/L}). The client was started on a continuous intravenous (IV) regular insulin infusion and fluid resuscitation with 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride.

Four hours later, the client's serum glucose is 245 mg/dL245\text{ mg/dL} (13.6 mmol/L13.6\text{ mmol/L}) and serum potassium is 3.7 mEq/L3.7\text{ mEq/L} (3.7 mmol/L3.7\text{ mmol/L}). The anion gap remains elevated at 18 mEq/L18\text{ mEq/L} (normal: 8−12 mEq/L8-12\text{ mEq/L}). Which of the following modifications to the client's parenteral therapy should the nurse anticipate next?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Change the continuous IV fluid to include 5%5\% dextrose and add intravenous potassium chloride.

Answer

The nurse should anticipate changing the continuous IV fluid to include 5%5\% dextrose and adding intravenous potassium chloride.
The correct action is to add 5%5\% dextrose to the IV fluids and initiate potassium supplementation. In the treatment of DKA, insulin resolves both hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis. However, blood glucose normalizes much faster than ketones are cleared. When glucose falls below 250 mg/dL250\text{ mg/dL}, 5%5\% dextrose must be added to the IV fluids. This provides a carbohydrate source, preventing hypoglycemia while allowing the nurse to keep the insulin infusion running to close the elevated anion gap. Furthermore, insulin shifts potassium into the cells. With a potassium level of 3.7 mEq/L3.7\text{ mEq/L} and an active insulin drip, potassium replacement is critical to prevent cardiac dysrhythmias.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the current serum glucose trend.
Glucose has dropped from 720 mg/dL720\text{ mg/dL} to 245 mg/dL245\text{ mg/dL}.
In DKA management, a glucose level crossing below the 250 mg/dL250\text{ mg/dL} threshold indicates the critical need for dextrose supplementation.
2
Assess the status of the ketoacidosis.
The anion gap is 18 mEq/L18\text{ mEq/L}, indicating that active ketoacidosis is still present.
An elevated anion gap means the continuous insulin infusion must be maintained to suppress lipolysis and ketone production.
3
Evaluate the serum potassium trend.
Potassium has dropped from 5.2 mEq/L5.2\text{ mEq/L} to 3.7 mEq/L3.7\text{ mEq/L}.
Insulin facilitates the intracellular shift of potassium. As the level falls to the lower end of normal, prophylactic IV potassium must be initiated to prevent severe hypokalemia and fatal arrhythmias.
4
Synthesize the findings to determine the correct therapy adjustment.
Add dextrose to prevent hypoglycemia, continue insulin to close the anion gap, and add potassium to maintain electrolyte balance.
This combination directly addresses all active physiological derangements in this specific transitional phase of DKA.

Key Concept

In DKA management, when blood glucose falls below 250 mg/dL250\text{ mg/dL} (13.9 mmol/L13.9\text{ mmol/L}), IV fluids must be transitioned to include 5%5\% dextrose. This allows the continuation of the IV insulin drip, which is essential to close the anion gap and clear ketones, while preventing dangerous hypoglycemia. Concurrently, potassium must be proactively replaced to counteract insulin-driven intracellular shifts.
Question 1376Question →

A nurse is conducting an admission assessment on a client with a history of schizophrenia. During the interview, the client abruptly stops speaking mid-sentence, tilts their head to the side, and begins whispering as if responding to an unseen presence. Which action is the priority for the nurse to take?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Ask the client directly what they are hearing.

Answer

The priority action is to ask the client directly what they are hearing to evaluate for the presence of command hallucinations.
When a client exhibits behavioral cues associated with auditory hallucinations, the priority is to assess the content of those hallucinations. Command hallucinations can direct the client to perform dangerous acts, posing a severe risk to themselves or others. Direct questioning is necessary to determine if immediate safety interventions are required.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's behavioral cues.
The client stopping mid-sentence, tilting their head, and whispering strongly indicates they are experiencing active auditory hallucinations.
Recognizing the clinical signs of a perceptual alteration is essential to formulate a safe and targeted response.
2
Determine the highest priority need based on the assessment.
The immediate priority is to ensure safety by identifying the content of the hallucinations.
Auditory hallucinations can take the form of command hallucinations, which may instruct the client to harm themselves or others.
3
Select the appropriate therapeutic intervention.
The nurse must directly ask the client what the voices are saying.
Direct questioning is the only reliable way to assess the risk level and determine if immediate safety protocols must be initiated.

Key Concept

Assessing Command Hallucinations
Question 1377Question →

A nurse is caring for a client with acute decompensated heart failure who is prescribed a continuous intravenous infusion of dobutamine at 5 mcg/kg/min5\text{ mcg/kg/min}. The client weighs 187 lbs187\text{ lbs}. The pharmacy provides dobutamine as 500 mg500\text{ mg} mixed in 250 mL250\text{ mL} of 5% dextrose in water5\%\text{ dextrose in water} (D5W). How many mL/hr\text{mL/hr} should the nurse set the infusion pump to deliver? (Record your answer to the nearest tenth.)

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 12.8

Answer

12.8
To determine the correct infusion pump setting in mL/hr\text{mL/hr}, the nurse must perform a multi-step calculation involving unit conversions for both weight (pounds to kilograms) and time (minutes to hours). After establishing that the client needs 25.5 mg25.5\text{ mg} of dobutamine every hour, dividing by the concentration of the IV bag (2 mg/mL2\text{ mg/mL}) provides the accurate volume of 12.75 mL/hr12.75\text{ mL/hr}, which rounds to 12.8 mL/hr12.8\text{ mL/hr}.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms.
187÷2.2=85 kg187 \div 2.2 = 85\text{ kg}
The medication dosage is prescribed based on kilograms of body weight.
2
Calculate the per-minute dobutamine dose for this specific client.
85 kg×5 mcg/kg/min=425 mcg/min85\text{ kg} \times 5\text{ mcg/kg/min} = 425\text{ mcg/min}
This establishes the exact amount of medication the client needs to receive every minute.
3
Convert the minute dose to an hourly dose.
425 mcg/min×60 min/hr=25,500 mcg/hr425\text{ mcg/min} \times 60\text{ min/hr} = 25,500\text{ mcg/hr}
Intravenous infusion pumps are programmed in milliliters per hour, so the dose must reflect an hourly rate.
4
Convert the hourly dose from micrograms to milligrams.
25,500 mcg/hr÷1000 mcg/mg=25.5 mg/hr25,500\text{ mcg/hr} \div 1000\text{ mcg/mg} = 25.5\text{ mg/hr}
The supplied medication from the pharmacy is measured in milligrams, so the units must match.
5
Calculate the concentration of the provided IV bag.
500 mg÷250 mL=2 mg/mL500\text{ mg} \div 250\text{ mL} = 2\text{ mg/mL}
This determines how many milligrams of dobutamine are in each milliliter of the IV fluid.
6
Determine the final infusion rate in mL/hr.
25.5 mg/hr÷2 mg/mL=12.75 mL/hr25.5\text{ mg/hr} \div 2\text{ mg/mL} = 12.75\text{ mL/hr}
Dividing the required hourly medication dose by the medication concentration yields the fluid volume needed per hour.
7
Round the final value to the nearest tenth as instructed.
12.8 mL/hr12.8\text{ mL/hr}
Standard rounding rules dictate that a 5 in the hundredths place rounds the tenths place up.

Key Concept

Weight-based continuous intravenous infusion dosage calculation requiring conversion between units of mass and time.
Question 1378Question →

A nurse is preparing to access an implanted venous port (port-a-cath) for a client who is scheduled to receive intravenous chemotherapy. Arrange the following actions in the correct sequence to safely access the device. (All steps must be used).

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

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Answer

The correct sequence is: (1) Don a mask and position the client's head, (2) Don sterile gloves and scrub with chlorhexidine, (3) Allow to air dry completely, (4) Stabilize the port, (5) Insert the non-coring needle at 90 degrees, and (6) Aspirate for blood return and flush.
The standard of care for accessing an implanted venous port prioritizes infection control and device integrity. The nurse first protects the site from respiratory droplets by masking and positioning the client. Next, sterile technique is initiated by donning sterile gloves and cleansing the site with chlorhexidine. The antiseptic must air dry completely to be effective. Once dry, the nurse stabilizes the port to prevent movement and inserts a non-coring needle perpendicularly to protect the septum from damage. Finally, before any fluids are administered, the nurse must aspirate for blood to confirm correct intravascular placement.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Don a face mask and instruct the client to turn their head.
The risk of respiratory droplet contamination is minimized.
Establishing a safe environment is the first priority before any sterile supplies are opened.
2
Don sterile gloves and scrub the site with chlorhexidine.
The skin over the port is aseptically prepared.
Strict sterile technique is required to prevent central line-associated bloodstream infections.
3
Allow the chlorhexidine solution to air dry completely.
The antiseptic achieves its full bactericidal effect.
Chlorhexidine requires complete drying to be fully effective; fanning or blowing compromises sterility.
4
Stabilize the implanted port reservoir with the non-dominant hand.
The port is immobilized.
The port must be held firmly in place to ensure accurate, single-attempt needle insertion.
5
Insert a non-coring needle at a 90-degree angle until it touches the bottom.
The needle successfully accesses the port reservoir.
A non-coring needle prevents damage to the silicone septum, and the 90-degree angle ensures straight entry.
6
Aspirate for a blood return and flush the catheter.
Correct intravascular placement is confirmed.
Aspiration verifies patency and placement before any medication or flush is pushed into the central line.

Key Concept

Accessing an implanted venous port requires strict aseptic technique, the use of a non-coring (Huber) needle to preserve the septum, and verification of blood return prior to administration of any fluids or medications.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 1379Question →

Following a right-sided total hip arthroplasty using a posterior approach, a client arrives at the postoperative surgical unit. Which positioning intervention should the nurse implement to minimize the risk of joint dislocation?

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Answer: Securing an abduction pillow between the client's lower extremities.

Answer

Securing an abduction pillow between the client's lower extremities.
After a posterior total hip arthroplasty, it is critical to prevent hip adduction, internal rotation, and flexion greater than 90 degrees. Securing an abduction pillow between the legs ensures the hips remain slightly separated (abducted) and prevents the client from inadvertently crossing their legs or midline, thereby substantially reducing the risk of joint dislocation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the surgical procedure and its associated risks.
The client had a total hip arthroplasty via a posterior approach, which carries a high risk of posterior dislocation if standard hip precautions are not followed.
Understanding the specific surgical approach dictates which physical movements must be restricted to protect the new joint.
2
Determine the contraindicated movements for a posterior hip replacement.
Hip flexion greater than 90 degrees, adduction across the midline, and internal rotation are contraindicated.
These specific movements put outward pressure on the posterior joint capsule, potentially dislocating the newly placed prosthesis.
3
Evaluate the given positioning interventions against the required precautions.
Using an abduction pillow prevents adduction. Elevating the head to 90 degrees causes excessive flexion. Crossing ankles causes adduction. A pillow under the knee causes flexion and venous stasis.
Matching each nursing action to the physiological constraints isolates the correct risk reduction strategy.

Key Concept

Postoperative Hip Precautions (Posterior Approach)
Question 1380Question →

While reviewing the morning assessment documentation for an octogenarian client on a telemetry unit, the registered nurse notes several distinct clinical findings. Which specific finding should be prioritized as an indicator of an acute medical emergency requiring immediate physician notification, rather than being attributed to the normal senescence process?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: An abrupt manifestation of intense exhaustion, resting shortness of breath, and diaphoresis in the absence of any localized chest discomfort.

Answer

An abrupt manifestation of intense exhaustion, resting shortness of breath, and diaphoresis in the absence of any localized chest discomfort.
In the geriatric population, acute myocardial infarctions frequently present atypically without classic substernal chest pain. Instead, clients may exhibit 'anginal equivalents' such as sudden and profound fatigue, unexplained dyspnea, diaphoresis, or acute confusion. Recognizing these atypical signs is critical, as they indicate a life-threatening emergency rather than normal aging.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the stem to identify the required clinical judgment.
The nurse must distinguish between normal physiological changes of aging (senescence) and an atypical presentation of a severe, acute pathology.
Prioritization requires identifying conditions that pose an immediate threat to the client's life.
2
Evaluate the respiratory and visual findings for expected age-related changes.
Increased residual volume, decreased vital capacity, arcus senilis, and sluggish pupils are all normal, expected changes in older adults.
Recognizing baseline physiological aging prevents unnecessary interventions for benign findings.
3
Evaluate the cardiovascular findings for acute threats versus expected changes.
A blunted tachycardic response to standing is a normal age-related decline in baroreceptor function. However, abrupt exhaustion, dyspnea, and diaphoresis represent an acute event.
Older adults often do not present with classic substernal chest pain during a myocardial infarction; instead, they display 'anginal equivalents' such as sudden fatigue and shortness of breath.

Key Concept

Atypical Presentation of Acute Illness in Older Adults
Estimated Time:1m 30s
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