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Question 1661Question →

Match each client scenario or statement with the most appropriate therapeutic communication technique the nurse should utilize.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

A client paces the hallway rapidly with clenched fists, avoiding interaction with peers.
A client states, 'I am completely useless now that I can't work due to this illness.'
A client shares a disorganized, rambling account of why they stopped taking their prescribed medication.
A newly admitted client sits rigidly in a chair, staring at the floor without speaking.

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Answer

The pacing client pairs with Making observations; the client stating uselessness pairs with Reflecting; the rambling client pairs with Clarifying; the silent client pairs with Offering silence.
Each clinical presentation requires a specific communication technique tailored to the client's needs. Making observations is best for acknowledging nonverbal cues of agitation and inviting dialogue. Reflecting is ideal for validating expressed feelings of worthlessness and promoting emotional exploration. Clarifying is necessary when a client's message is disorganized or unclear to ensure understanding. Offering silence is most appropriate when a client is nonverbal and needs time to process their environment or feelings.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the first scenario involving a client pacing with clenched fists.
The client is displaying strong nonverbal signs of agitation but is not speaking.
Identifying the client's nonverbal behavior points to 'Making observations' (e.g., 'I notice you are pacing'), which invites the client to explain their behavior safely.
2
Analyze the second scenario where the client expresses feeling useless.
The client is communicating a profound feeling of diminished self-worth and despair.
Applying 'Reflecting' acknowledges and validates this emotion, helping the client focus on and process their feelings.
3
Analyze the third scenario involving a disorganized and rambling account.
The message being communicated by the client is unclear and difficult to follow.
Using 'Clarifying' ensures the nurse accurately understands the client's intent and establishes shared meaning.
4
Analyze the fourth scenario where a client is sitting rigidly and not speaking.
The client is nonverbal and appears tense or overwhelmed by their situation.
Utilizing 'Offering silence' gives the client the necessary space and time to formulate their thoughts at their own pace without feeling pressured.

Key Concept

Therapeutic Communication Techniques
Question 1662Question →

A charge nurse is managing the milieu of an acute behavioral health unit. A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is experiencing severe command hallucinations, pacing aggressively in the main corridor, and loudly accusing peers of being 'undercover agents.' Several other clients are visibly frightened and are gathering nearby to watch the situation. Which immediate environmental management strategies are most appropriate for the nurse to implement? (Select all that apply.)

Select all that apply

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Answer: Relocate the observing clients to a quiet, supervised activity room away from the hallway.; Remove unanchored furniture, medical carts, and potential projectiles from the immediate vicinity.; Decrease ambient sensory stimulation by turning off nearby televisions and dimming the corridor lights.

Answer

The most appropriate strategies include relocating the observing clients, removing potential hazards from the environment, and decreasing ambient sensory stimulation.
In a psychiatric emergency, the nurse must prioritize environmental safety and milieu management using the least restrictive means possible. Relocating peers protects them and removes an audience that could fuel the client's agitation. Clearing the physical environment of unanchored objects removes potential weapons. Decreasing ambient noise and lighting reduces sensory overload, which is crucial for a client experiencing acute psychosis and command hallucinations.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the clinical presentation and milieu dynamics.
The client is experiencing acute psychosis with paranoia and severe agitation, posing an imminent risk of violence. The gathering peers create a chaotic environment and an audience that can exacerbate the escalation.
Accurate assessment of both the individual client and the broader therapeutic environment is required to determine the immediate priorities.
2
Select interventions that prioritize immediate physical safety.
Removing unanchored objects and carts from the hallway is selected to eliminate potential hazards and projectiles.
Hazard control is a foundational component of maintaining a safe therapeutic milieu during behavioral escalations.
3
Identify strategies to de-escalate the psychological environment.
Relocating peers to a quiet room and decreasing ambient noise and lighting are chosen as interventions.
These least-restrictive environmental modifications reduce sensory overload for the psychotic client and protect the psychological safety of the other clients.
4
Eliminate options that represent restrictive, unsafe, or nontherapeutic approaches.
Immediate seclusion, delegating physical blocking to a technician, and confrontational questioning are rejected.
These actions violate the core nursing principles of least restrictive care, safe delegation, and therapeutic communication, respectively.

Key Concept

Therapeutic milieu management requires prioritizing environmental safety and utilizing least-restrictive interventions to de-escalate acute behavioral crises.
Question 1663Question →

The nurse is caring for a client on the inpatient psychiatric unit who is actively experiencing auditory hallucinations. Which actions should the nurse implement? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Ask the client directly what the voices are saying to determine safety risks.; Acknowledge that the voices feel real to the client while stating that the nurse does not hear them.; Provide a structured, quiet environment with reduced sensory stimulation.

Answer

The correct actions are asking what the voices are saying, acknowledging the client's experience while presenting reality, and providing a reduced-stimulation environment.
The correct nursing actions prioritize safety, therapeutic communication, and a healing environment. Directly asking about the voices is critical to assess for command hallucinations. Presenting reality without arguing grounds the client, and reducing environmental stimuli helps calm the sensory overload that often accompanies acute psychosis.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Prioritize client safety by evaluating the content of the sensory alterations.
Asking the client directly about the voices identifies potential command hallucinations that could lead to self-harm or violence.
Safety is always the primary focus when a client is experiencing acute perceptual alterations.
2
Identify therapeutic versus non-therapeutic communication techniques.
Presenting reality while validating the client's feelings is therapeutic. Arguing or pretending to hear the voices is non-therapeutic.
Therapeutic communication builds trust without reinforcing the hallucination.
3
Evaluate environmental interventions.
Providing a quiet, structured environment reduces sensory overload.
Excessive stimuli can exacerbate sensory and perceptual alterations.
4
Review the scope of practice for delegation.
Recognize that assessing coping strategies requires nursing judgment and must be done by the RN, not the UAP.
Delegation of assessments to UAP violates the RN scope of practice.

Key Concept

Therapeutic Management of Auditory Hallucinations
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 1664Question →

A young adult client is brought to the emergency department via police after being found wandering in traffic. The client is currently in an examination room, highly agitated, hyperventilating, and throwing medical supplies onto the floor. When staff approach, the client screams, 'They are coming to take me away!' Which of the following initial actions by the nurse are appropriate? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Approach the client from a 45-degree angle while maintaining a distance of at least two arm lengths.; Remove non-essential medical equipment from the immediate area and ensure other individuals are cleared.; Speak using short, concrete sentences such as 'You are safe in the hospital, and I am here to help you.'

Answer

The correct actions are approaching from a 45-degree angle at a safe distance, removing non-essential equipment and clearing the area, and using short, concrete sentences to communicate safety.
The correct interventions prioritize safety and utilize the least restrictive measures for an acutely agitated and paranoid client. Approaching from a 45-degree angle at a safe distance is non-threatening and respects personal space boundaries. Removing objects that can be thrown and clearing the immediate area ensures physical safety for everyone while simultaneously reducing environmental stimulation. Using short, concrete sentences is essential because severe anxiety and paranoia impair a client's cognitive ability to process complex information.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the client's clinical presentation and identify safety risks.
The client is highly agitated, experiencing paranoia, and demonstrating physical escalation by throwing objects.
An accurate behavioral assessment dictates the appropriate level of intervention, ensuring safety for both the client and the healthcare team.
2
Select interventions that follow the principle of the least restrictive environment.
The nurse utilizes non-threatening body positioning (45-degree angle, ample distance) and clear, concrete verbal reassurance.
These techniques de-escalate the situation by reducing the client's perceived threat without imposing unnecessary physical boundaries.
3
Modify the physical environment to mitigate immediate hazards.
Medical equipment is removed from the room, and unnecessary personnel are cleared.
Removing potential projectiles minimizes injury risk, while decreasing environmental stimuli helps lower the client's severe panic.
4
Evaluate and reject unsafe or overly restrictive interventions.
Options involving delegating to a UAP, physically blocking the exit, and jumping directly to physical restraints are eliminated.
These actions violate safety protocols, inappropriate delegation rules, and the legal mandate to exhaust all less restrictive alternatives first.

Key Concept

Prioritizing least restrictive de-escalation techniques, milieu safety, and appropriate nursing delegation during acute behavioral crises.
Question 1665Question →

A client on the inpatient psychiatric unit is experiencing severe anxiety. They are pacing rapidly, hyperventilating, and frantically stating, "I feel like I am going to die!" Which of the following is the priority nursing action?

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Answer: Remain with the client and speak using a calm, reassuring voice.

Answer

Remain with the client and speak using a calm, reassuring voice.
The correct action provides immediate support and safety. A client with severe anxiety may feel out of control and extremely fearful. The physical presence of a nurse who remains calm helps to ground the client, reduce isolation, and prevent further escalation of panic. This represents the least restrictive and most therapeutic initial behavioral intervention.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the client's current behavioral and emotional state.
The client is experiencing severe panic-level anxiety, demonstrated by rapid pacing, hyperventilation, and feelings of impending doom.
Understanding the severity of the anxiety dictates the most appropriate and immediate intervention.
2
Determine the least restrictive, most therapeutic initial intervention to ensure safety.
Providing a physical presence and maintaining a calm demeanor are selected as the first-line strategies.
A client in severe panic cannot process complex information or answer probing questions; a calm, grounding presence is the priority.

Key Concept

During severe panic or anxiety, the nurse's primary behavioral intervention is to provide a safe environment by remaining with the client and using a calm, directive approach.
Question 1666Question →

Fifteen minutes after the initiation of a packed red blood cell (PRBC) transfusion, a client reports sudden severe lower back pain and develops chills. Which action must the nurse take first?

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Answer: Stop the transfusion immediately and keep the vein open with normal saline.

Answer

The nurse must immediately stop the blood transfusion and maintain intravenous access with normal saline.
Severe lower back pain and sudden chills shortly after starting a blood transfusion are hallmark signs of an acute hemolytic reaction. The absolute highest priority is to stop the infusion of the incompatible blood immediately to prevent further physiological harm. Maintaining the IV line with normal saline is the critical next step to keep venous access open for emergency interventions and to flush the line without pushing more blood into the client.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the client's symptoms.
The lower back pain and sudden chills indicate a high probability of an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction.
Recognizing adverse reactions to parenteral therapies is the first step in clinical judgment.
2
Determine the highest priority intervention to prevent harm.
The immediate cessation of the blood product is chosen as the priority.
Continuing the transfusion, even at a slower rate or while gathering more assessment data, will infuse more incompatible cells and worsen the life-threatening condition.
3
Maintain the intravenous access.
Sterile normal saline is infused through the IV line.
The client will likely need emergency medications, fluid resuscitation, and blood pressure support, making a patent IV line critical.

Key Concept

Management of Acute Hemolytic Transfusion Reactions
Question 1667Question →

A nurse is caring for an older adult client who is actively dying in a hospice unit. The client is unresponsive, experiencing noisy respiratory secretions, and exhibiting restlessness. Which actions should the nurse take? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

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Answer: Administer a prescribed anticholinergic medication to reduce respiratory secretions.; Turn the client to a side-lying position to facilitate the drainage of oral fluids.; Provide gentle mouth care using moistened swabs to maintain oral comfort.

Answer

The nurse should administer prescribed anticholinergic medications, turn the client to a side-lying position, and provide gentle mouth care.
End-of-life care focuses on promoting comfort, dignity, and symptom management. Turning the client to a side-lying position allows gravity to drain pooled secretions, naturally reducing noisy breathing. Anticholinergic medications are medically appropriate to dry up excessive respiratory secretions. Frequent mouth care prevents the severe discomfort of dry, cracked mucous membranes, which is common in dying clients due to mouth breathing and decreased fluid intake.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the client's presenting symptoms and physiological needs.
The client is actively dying, unresponsive, and experiencing noisy secretions and restlessness.
Identifying symptoms allows the nurse to prioritize appropriate palliative care interventions over aggressive or non-therapeutic measures.
2
Select interventions that directly alleviate the client's physical discomfort.
The nurse chooses to reposition the client, administer secretion-drying medications, and perform oral care.
These actions address the 'death rattle' and maintain mucous membrane integrity without causing harm.
3
Ensure safe delegation and therapeutic communication principles are maintained.
The nurse retains the responsibility of assessing pain and avoids giving the family false reassurance.
Nursing assessments cannot be delegated, and therapeutic communication requires honesty and active listening rather than dismissive clichés.

Key Concept

End of Life Comfort Measures and Palliative Care
Question 1668Question →

A client receives a new diagnosis of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) from the neurologist. Shortly after the discussion, the nurse enters the room and the client says, "The doctor is just being overly dramatic. I just have a pinched nerve from working in the garden, and it will heal on its own with some rest." Which initial response by the nurse is the most therapeutic?

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Answer: You are thinking this might just be a pinched nerve. How are you feeling about the conversation you just had with the doctor?

Answer

The most therapeutic response is to use reflection and an open-ended question, stating, "You are thinking this might just be a pinched nerve. How are you feeling about the conversation you just had with the doctor?"
The client is exhibiting denial, a common and protective initial defense mechanism when faced with a devastating diagnosis. The most therapeutic nursing response utilizes reflection to gently acknowledge what the client has said without reinforcing the denial, paired with an open-ended question to invite the client to share their feelings when they are ready. This approach keeps communication open while respecting the client's current coping limits.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's statement and behavior.
The client is minimizing a severe diagnosis (ALS) by attributing symptoms to a minor issue (a pinched nerve).
This identifies the defense mechanism being used, which is denial.
2
Evaluate the purpose of the identified defense mechanism.
Denial acts as a temporary protective barrier against the overwhelming anxiety of a terminal or severe illness diagnosis.
Understanding that denial is a normal initial stage of grief guides the selection of a supportive, non-confrontational intervention.
3
Select the most therapeutic communication technique.
The correct response uses reflection to acknowledge the client's current perception without validating the delusion, followed by an open-ended question to explore feelings.
This approach maintains the therapeutic relationship, allows the client to process the trauma at their own pace, and avoids non-therapeutic blocks like confrontation or false reassurance.

Key Concept

Therapeutic Communication and Coping Mechanisms (Denial)
Question 1669Question →

A nurse on the maternity unit is caring for a couple who just experienced an unexpected stillbirth at 38 weeks of gestation. The parents are crying softly and averting their gaze from the delivery area. Which action should the nurse take to best facilitate the initial stages of the grieving process?

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Answer: Clean and swaddle the infant, then gently offer the parents the opportunity to see and hold their baby when they are ready.

Answer

The correct action is to clean and swaddle the infant, then gently offer the parents the opportunity to see and hold their baby when they feel ready.
The correct answer supports the parents by validating the existence of their infant and gently offering them the opportunity to create memories. Cleaning and swaddling the baby presents the infant in a dignified, less traumatic manner. Allowing the parents to decide when they are ready to see and hold the baby respects their autonomy and individual coping timelines, which is a foundational component of healthy bereavement in perinatal loss.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Assess the clinical situation and the parents' immediate psychosocial needs following a perinatal loss.
The parents are experiencing acute grief, crying quietly, and avoiding looking at the delivery area.
Understanding the parents' emotional state and readiness is essential for selecting a therapeutic, patient-centered intervention.
2
Evaluate the nursing interventions based on evidence-based principles of perinatal grief and loss.
The most therapeutic approach involves acknowledging the infant's existence, preparing the baby for presentation, and allowing the parents to control the pace of their interaction.
Creating memories and physically interacting with the baby helps parents ground the reality of the loss, which facilitates a healthy mourning process.
3
Select the option that offers compassionate support without forcing interaction, making assumptions, or using communication blocks.
Offering the parents the opportunity to see and hold their swaddled baby when they are ready is the best initial nursing action.
This intervention respects the parents' autonomy, avoids non-therapeutic platitudes, and establishes a foundation of trust and support.

Key Concept

Perinatal Grief and Therapeutic Nursing Interventions
Question 1670Question →

The nurse is preparing to administer an intermittent enteral feeding to a client via a nasogastric tube. In what order should the nurse perform the following actions? (Arrange the steps in the correct sequence from first to last.)

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

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Answer

The correct sequence is to first elevate the head of the bed, then verify tube placement, next check the gastric residual volume, and finally flush the tube with water.
Safe administration of enteral feedings requires a strict sequence to prevent aspiration and ensure proper digestion. Positioning the client upright is the universal first step for airway protection. Once the client is safe, the nurse verifies the tube is in the correct location. After confirming placement, the nurse checks the residual volume to ensure the client is digesting properly. Finally, flushing the tube confirms patency immediately before initiating the feeding.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Elevate the head of the bed.
Client is positioned safely at 30 to 45 degrees.
Reduces the immediate risk of aspiration before manipulating the feeding tube.
2
Verify tube placement.
Confirmation that the tube is in the stomach.
Ensures that subsequent fluids will not enter the lungs.
3
Check gastric residual volume.
Measurement of stomach contents.
Determines if the stomach is emptying properly before adding more volume.
4
Flush the tube.
Tube is cleared and patent.
Prepares the line for the feeding formula and prevents clogging.

Key Concept

Safe Enteral Nutrition Administration
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 1671Question →

A nurse is preparing to obtain a blood specimen for laboratory testing from a client's multi-lumen central venous catheter (CVC). The selected lumen currently has a continuous infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride. Arrange the following steps for obtaining the blood sample in the correct clinical sequence.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

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Answer

The correct clinical sequence is to first pause the infusion, disinfect the hub, withdraw a discard sample, obtain the diagnostic blood sample, and finally flush the line to maintain patency.
Obtaining a blood specimen from a central venous catheter requires a strict sequence to ensure infection control and sample accuracy. The infusion must first be paused to prevent hemodilution. Next, the hub must be scrubbed with an antiseptic to prevent a central line-associated bloodstream infection (CLABSI). A discard volume of blood must then be withdrawn to clear the dead space of the catheter. After the discard, the diagnostic sample is drawn using a new syringe. Finally, the catheter must be flushed immediately with 0.9% sodium chloride to prevent blood from clotting within the lumen.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Pause the continuous intravenous infusion.
The flow of IV fluid is halted.
Prevents hemodilution of the blood sample with the infusing saline, which would cause false laboratory values.
2
Scrub the needleless connector hub with an appropriate antiseptic.
The access point is disinfected.
Prevents the introduction of external pathogens into the central circulation, minimizing the risk of infection.
3
Attach a syringe and withdraw the initial blood sample to discard.
The catheter's dead space is cleared.
Removes residual IV fluids from the catheter lumen so the final sample reflects the client's actual circulating blood levels.
4
Attach a new sterile syringe and withdraw the blood sample for the laboratory test.
An unadulterated diagnostic sample is obtained.
Provides an accurate specimen for laboratory analysis.
5
Flush the catheter lumen with sterile 0.9% sodium chloride.
The catheter is cleared of whole blood.
Maintains catheter patency by preventing red blood cells from clotting within the lumen.

Key Concept

Central Venous Catheter (CVC) Blood Sampling Procedure
Question 1672Question →

An older adult client is admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU) following major surgery. The client is continuously exposed to monitor alarms, bright overhead lights, and frequent staff interactions. On the second day, the client becomes severely agitated, disoriented to time and place, and begins pulling at their intravenous (IV) lines. Which action should the nurse take first to address the client's current condition?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Cluster nursing activities and dim the overhead lights to provide uninterrupted rest periods.

Answer

The nurse should first decrease sensory stimuli by clustering nursing activities and dimming the overhead lights.
The client is experiencing sensory overload (often referred to as ICU psychosis or delirium) resulting from the continuous barrage of excessive environmental stimuli. The most effective and least restrictive initial nursing action is to decrease the sensory input. By dimming the lights, lowering alarm volumes to safe levels, and clustering care, the nurse provides long, uninterrupted blocks of time for rest, which directly mitigates the sensory overload.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary cause of the client's agitation and disorientation.
The environment of continuous alarms, bright lights, and frequent interruptions indicates that the client is experiencing sensory overload (ICU delirium).
Recognizing the environmental etiology of the sudden behavioral change directs the nurse toward the most appropriate, non-pharmacological intervention.
2
Determine the least restrictive and most direct nursing intervention to address the root cause.
Modifying the environment by grouping nursing tasks and dimming the room lights reduces excessive stimulation.
Environmental modification treats the root cause of the sensory overload directly, avoiding inappropriate use of physical restraints or improper delegation.

Key Concept

Management of sensory overload in critical care environments.
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 1673Question →

During a morning assessment, a client with newly diagnosed end-stage liver disease refuses their prescribed oral medications. The client crosses their arms, looks away, and states, "I am not swallowing another pill. My body is shutting down anyway, so delaying the inevitable is just a waste of everyone's time." Which response by the nurse demonstrates the most appropriate therapeutic communication technique?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: You feel that taking these medications is pointless because of the progression of your illness.

Answer

The response that restates the client's feeling that taking the medications is pointless due to the illness progression.
The correct response utilizes reflection, a powerful therapeutic technique that directs the client's ideas, feelings, and thoughts back to them. By restating the client's core message without adding new information or judgment, the nurse validates the client's feelings of hopelessness and encourages them to continue sharing their emotional experience.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's statement to identify the core emotional message.
The client is expressing feelings of hopelessness, despair, and powerlessness regarding their terminal prognosis.
Recognizing the underlying emotional context is essential for selecting a response that addresses the client's actual psychological needs.
2
Evaluate the nursing responses for therapeutic communication techniques.
The reflective statement accurately mirrors the client's expressed feelings of pointlessness back to them.
Reflection validates the client's emotional state, demonstrates active listening, and opens the door for further exploration of their feelings.
3
Identify non-therapeutic communication barriers in the remaining options.
The other options use non-therapeutic techniques such as providing logical explanations (ignoring feelings), asking 'why' (causing defensiveness), or highlighting negative consequences (subtle threatening).
Eliminating responses that block communication ensures the selection of the most therapeutic approach.

Key Concept

Therapeutic Communication
Question 1674Question →

A community health nurse is conducting a home visit for an 88-year-old client who was recently discharged from the hospital. The client's family reports that the client has developed new-onset urinary incontinence and a decreased appetite over the past 48 hours. The nurse is accompanied by a home health aide (UAP). Which of the following actions by the nurse indicate appropriate practice? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Assesses the client's hydration status by gently pinching the skin over the sternum to check for turgor.; Uses the bell of the stethoscope to lightly auscultate the client's carotid arteries for the presence of bruits.

Answer

The appropriate actions are assessing skin turgor over the sternum and using the bell of the stethoscope to auscultate for carotid bruits.
Checking skin turgor over the sternum accounts for normal age-related skin elasticity loss on the extremities, and using the bell of the stethoscope correctly targets low-pitched vascular sounds like bruits. Both actions represent safe and accurate physical assessment techniques.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify correct physical assessment techniques for older adults.
Skin turgor is assessed over the sternum or clavicle, and the bell of the stethoscope is used for low-pitched vascular sounds.
Age-related skin changes necessitate specific landmark choices, and stethoscope components are designed for specific sound frequencies.
2
Evaluate the proposed sequence for abdominal assessment.
The correct sequence is inspect, auscultate, percuss, and palpate.
Palpating before auscultating can artificially stimulate bowel motility, creating false assessment data.
3
Apply principles of safe delegation and recognize signs of geriatric pathology.
Initial assessments cannot be delegated, and sudden acute symptoms are pathological.
The RN is responsible for clinical judgment, and sudden incontinence in an older adult strongly suggests an acute issue like an infection, rather than normal aging.

Key Concept

Physical Assessment Techniques and Geriatric Considerations
Question 1675Question →

A client is receiving a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of unfractionated heparin for the treatment of a pulmonary embolism. Routine morning laboratory results reveal a sudden decrease in the client's platelet count from 180,000/mm³ (180 x 10^9/L) on admission to 60,000/mm³ (60 x 10^9/L) today. The client reports no active bleeding. Which action is the priority for the nurse to take?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Stop the continuous heparin infusion and immediately alert the healthcare provider.

Answer

The priority action is to immediately stop the heparin infusion and alert the healthcare provider due to the suspected development of Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT).
The correct action is to immediately stop the heparin infusion and notify the provider. A rapid drop in platelets by more than 50% from baseline in a client receiving heparin strongly indicates Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT). HIT is a paradoxical, immune-mediated adverse reaction that causes a hypercoagulable state, increasing the risk of life-threatening thrombosis. The absolute priority is to withdraw all heparin products immediately.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's laboratory trends in the context of their current pharmacological therapy.
The client has experienced a dramatic drop in platelets (greater than 50% decrease) from 180,000/mm³ to 60,000/mm³ while receiving an intravenous heparin infusion.
Monitoring daily platelet counts is critical for clients on continuous heparin to detect early signs of adverse immune reactions.
2
Interpret the clinical significance of the severe platelet reduction.
The rapid depletion of platelets, even in the absence of active bleeding, strongly suggests Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT), a life-threatening, prothrombotic complication.
Recognizing HIT is essential because it paradoxically increases the risk of clotting despite the low platelet count.
3
Determine the immediate nursing priority based on the suspected complication.
The nurse must instantly stop the heparin infusion and notify the healthcare provider so a non-heparin anticoagulant can be prescribed.
Removing the offending pharmacological agent is the only way to halt the destructive immune cascade and prevent severe thrombotic events.

Key Concept

Recognition and Management of Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia (HIT)
Question 1676Question →

A client in an outpatient neurology clinic has just been informed of a progressive, life-altering neurological diagnosis. The client sits rigidly in the chair, staring blankly at the wall, and states in a flat tone, 'My future is gone. There is no point in trying to go on anymore.' Which action is the priority for the nurse to take?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Ask the client explicitly if they are thinking about ending their life.

Answer

Ask the client explicitly if they are thinking about ending their life.
During an acute situational crisis, ensuring client safety is the paramount concern. The statement about having 'no point in trying to go on' is a strong, covert indicator of hopelessness and potential suicidal ideation. According to the nursing process and safety prioritization principles, the nurse must immediately and directly assess the client's risk for self-harm before proceeding to other supportive, empathetic, or educational interventions.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's presentation and verbal statements.
The client is exhibiting signs of an acute situational crisis with a statement ('no point in trying to go on anymore') that suggests hopelessness and potential self-harm.
Identifying covert or overt threats is the first step in psychiatric triage.
2
Apply prioritization frameworks (e.g., Maslow's Hierarchy, Safety/Risk Reduction).
Psychological and physical safety must be secured before addressing self-esteem, coping, or educational needs.
A client cannot successfully process grief or learn about treatments if their immediate survival is at risk.
3
Select the intervention that most directly addresses the highest priority need.
Directly assessing for suicidal ideation addresses the immediate safety risk.
Direct questioning is the standard of care for evaluating self-harm risk in a crisis.

Key Concept

Prioritizing Safety and Lethality Assessment in Crisis Intervention
Question 1677Question →

An older adult client is admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU) for the management of severe sepsis and requires mechanical ventilation. On the third day of admission, the client develops acute, fluctuating confusion, severe inattention, and psychomotor agitation. The client appears terrified of the ventilator sounds and makes repeated attempts to remove the endotracheal tube. Based on the client's acute sensory and perceptual alterations, which nursing interventions are most appropriate? Select all that apply.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Consolidate nursing assessments and interventions to promote restorative sleep cycles and minimize continuous sensory overload.; Provide consistent, low-stimulus reality orientation by clearly identifying oneself and explaining all procedures before initiating physical contact.; Implement non-pharmacological safety measures, such as a bedside sitter or family presence, to mitigate the risk of device removal.

Answer

The appropriate interventions are to consolidate nursing care to reduce sensory overload, provide consistent reality orientation before touching the client, and utilize a sitter or family member as a less restrictive safety measure.
Clients in intensive care settings frequently develop acute delirium due to sensory overload, disrupted sleep-wake cycles, and underlying critical illness. Evidence-based management prioritizes reducing excessive environmental stimuli by consolidating care, promoting restorative sleep, and providing simple, consistent reality orientation. Because the client is at high risk for removing life-sustaining equipment, ensuring safety is paramount; however, the standard of nursing practice dictates implementing the least restrictive measures first. Utilizing a bedside sitter or encouraging family presence serves to calm the client, provide continuous monitoring, and prevent self-harm without the adverse psychological and physical effects of restraints.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the clinical presentation.
The client is experiencing acute delirium, characterized by fluctuating confusion, inattention, and agitation, likely secondary to sensory overload in the ICU environment.
Identifying the root cause of the behavior dictates the appropriate environmental and therapeutic interventions.
2
Prioritize safety through the least restrictive means.
Selected interventions that use non-pharmacological methods (like a sitter) before resorting to physical restraints.
Nursing standards of care mandate that restraint alternatives must be exhausted prior to applying physical restraints, even when there is a risk of medical device removal.
3
Determine appropriate delegation boundaries.
Excluded the option that assigns neurological and cognitive assessments to the UAP.
Evaluating delirium requires complex clinical judgment, which is strictly within the scope of practice of the registered nurse.
4
Select evidence-based therapeutic communication strategies.
Chose simple, clear, and calming orientation over complex logical explanations or confrontational 'why' questions.
Clients with acute perceptual alterations cannot process complex logic; simplified communication reduces anxiety and paranoia.

Key Concept

Management of Sensory Overload and Acute Delirium
Question 1678Question →

A 78-year-old client is 2 days postoperative following a right total hip arthroplasty (posterior approach). The client has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and a recent stroke resulting in dysphagia. They are receiving continuous enteral feeding via a nasogastric (NG) tube. The client is intermittently confused and attempting to pull at the NG tube. Which nursing action is most appropriate when providing basic care and comfort?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Maintain the head of the bed elevated at 30 to 45 degrees, utilize an abduction wedge when repositioning the client to the unoperated side, and apply a secondary securement device or tube camouflage to deter pulling.

Answer

The correct action balances respiratory and feeding needs by keeping the head of the bed at 30 to 45 degrees, protects the hip joint with an abduction wedge, and uses non-restrictive alternatives to prevent tube pulling.
The correct action demonstrates high-level clinical judgment by synthesizing multiple complex care needs. A 30 to 45-degree head elevation safely prevents aspiration during continuous enteral feeding and assists with COPD breathing effort, while strictly avoiding a 90-degree angle that would violate posterior hip precautions. Utilizing an abduction wedge prevents adduction, and using tube camouflage is an appropriate, less-restrictive alternative to physical restraints.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the client's postoperative positioning requirements.
Posterior hip arthroplasty requires preventing hip flexion of 90 degrees or greater, internal rotation, and adduction.
To prevent dislocation of the newly placed hip prosthesis.
2
Evaluate the respiratory and nutritional positioning needs.
Continuous NG feeding and a history of COPD require elevating the head of the bed.
To prevent pulmonary aspiration of enteral formula and to facilitate downward movement of the diaphragm for lung expansion.
3
Synthesize the conflicting positioning needs to find a safe compromise.
A 30 to 45-degree elevation satisfies the airway and feeding requirements without exceeding the dangerous 90-degree hip flexion limit.
Placing the client in a high-Fowler's position (90 degrees) would violate the hip precautions and risk dislocation.
4
Determine the appropriate nursing intervention for the client's confused behavior and tube pulling.
Implement less restrictive safety alternatives, such as tube camouflage or specialized garments, while assessing for the root cause of the sudden confusion.
Physical restraints are a last resort, and acute confusion in an older adult is abnormal, often pointing to hypoxia, infection, or delirium.

Key Concept

Complex client positioning requiring synthesis of surgical precautions, aspiration prevention, and restraint alternatives.
Question 1679Question →

A client admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is receiving a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion of regular insulin at 0.1 units/kg/hr0.1\text{ units/kg/hr}. The client's baseline serum potassium was 5.4 mEq/L5.4\text{ mEq/L} and blood glucose was 680 mg/dL680\text{ mg/dL}. Four hours later, the current blood glucose is 245 mg/dL245\text{ mg/dL}, and the cardiac monitor reveals new-onset premature ventricular contractions and prominent U waves. The current primary IV fluid is 0.9%0.9\% sodium chloride infusing at 150 mL/hr150\text{ mL/hr}. Based on these findings, which of the following is the priority nursing action?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Initiate a primary IV fluid containing 5%5\% dextrose and verify the prescription for a continuous intravenous potassium chloride additive.

Answer

The priority is to change the primary IV fluid to include 5%5\% dextrose and begin continuous intravenous potassium replacement.
In the management of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), continuous intravenous insulin shifts potassium intracellularly, frequently causing severe hypokalemia. The presence of prominent U waves and premature ventricular contractions confirms this life-threatening complication, necessitating immediate potassium replacement. Concurrently, when the client's blood glucose falls below 250 mg/dL250\text{ mg/dL} (13.9 mmol/L13.9\text{ mmol/L}), dextrose must be added to the primary IV fluid. This prevents hypoglycemia and allows the life-saving insulin infusion to continue running until the metabolic acidosis and anion gap are fully resolved. The correct action synthesizes both of these critical parenteral therapy protocols.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the current blood glucose level of 245 mg/dL245\text{ mg/dL}.
The blood glucose has fallen below the critical threshold of 250 mg/dL250\text{ mg/dL}.
Standard DKA protocols require adding dextrose to IV fluids when glucose falls below 250 mg/dL250\text{ mg/dL} to prevent hypoglycemia, allowing the continuous insulin infusion to remain active until the ketoacidosis fully resolves.
2
Interpret the electrocardiogram changes (premature ventricular contractions and prominent U waves).
These ECG changes are classic clinical indicators of severe hypokalemia.
Continuous IV insulin therapy drives both glucose and potassium from the intravascular space into the intracellular space, rapidly depleting serum potassium levels even if baseline values were normal or elevated.
3
Synthesize the findings to determine the priority pharmacological intervention.
The client requires concurrent administration of IV dextrose (to safely continue insulin) and IV potassium chloride (to treat the arrhythmias).
Addressing the life-threatening electrolyte imbalance while maintaining the correct fluid transition is the cornerstone of safe DKA parenteral therapy.

Key Concept

Pharmacological Management of DKA: Fluid Transition and Electrolyte Shifts
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 1680Question →

A healthcare provider prescribes an intravenous infusion of dopamine for a client diagnosed with cardiogenic shock. The prescribed dose is 10 mcg/kg/min10 \text{ mcg/kg/min}. The client weighs 176 lb176 \text{ lb}. The pharmacy dispenses a pre-mixed bag containing 800 mg800 \text{ mg} of dopamine in 250 mL250 \text{ mL} of 5%5\% dextrose in water. The nurse should set the intravenous infusion pump to deliver how many mL/hr? (Record your answer as a whole number).

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 15

Answer

15
To safely administer a weight-based continuous intravenous infusion, precise unit conversions for weight (pounds to kilograms), time (minutes to hours), and drug mass (micrograms to milligrams) are necessary. By calculating the hourly required dose (48 mg/hr48 \text{ mg/hr}) and dividing it by the concentration of the dispensed fluid (3.2 mg/mL3.2 \text{ mg/mL}), the correct and safe infusion rate is determined to be 15 mL/hr15 \text{ mL/hr}.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Convert the client's weight from pounds to kilograms.
176 lb÷2.2=80 kg176 \text{ lb} \div 2.2 = 80 \text{ kg}
Weight-based medication dosing requires the client's weight to be precisely measured in kilograms.
2
Calculate the total dose required per minute.
80 kg×10 mcg/kg/min=800 mcg/min80 \text{ kg} \times 10 \text{ mcg/kg/min} = 800 \text{ mcg/min}
This establishes the specific therapeutic dose required for this individual client.
3
Convert the dose from per-minute to per-hour.
800 mcg/min×60 min/hr=48,000 mcg/hr800 \text{ mcg/min} \times 60 \text{ min/hr} = 48,000 \text{ mcg/hr}
Standard intravenous infusion pumps are programmed in mL per hour, requiring an hourly drug rate.
4
Convert the required hourly dose from micrograms to milligrams.
48,000 mcg/hr÷1,000 mcg/mg=48 mg/hr48,000 \text{ mcg/hr} \div 1,000 \text{ mcg/mg} = 48 \text{ mg/hr}
The dispensed medication concentration is provided in milligrams; units must match before final calculation.
5
Determine the concentration of the dispensed medication.
800 mg÷250 mL=3.2 mg/mL800 \text{ mg} \div 250 \text{ mL} = 3.2 \text{ mg/mL}
Determining the concentration (mg per single mL) simplifies the calculation of the final fluid volume.
6
Calculate the final infusion rate.
48 mg/hr÷3.2 mg/mL=15 mL/hr48 \text{ mg/hr} \div 3.2 \text{ mg/mL} = 15 \text{ mL/hr}
This yields the exact fluid volume the pump must deliver each hour to administer the prescribed medication dose.

Key Concept

Weight-based Intravenous Medication Calculations
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