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Question 3701Question →

Which traditional folk painting style, executed on cloth scrolls to present serialized narrative depictions of Indian epics and regional folklore, represents a distinct cultural heritage of Telangana?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Cheriyal Scroll Painting

Answer

Cheriyal Scroll Painting is the traditional folk scroll painting art associated with Telangana.
Cheriyal Scroll Painting is a traditional art form native to Telangana. Practiced predominantly by the Nakashi artist community, these long scrolls depict narrative stories from Hindu epics and local folklore, historically used by traveling bards during ballad performances.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the key art characteristics described in the stem.
The craft features narrative storytelling on continuous cloth scrolls using vivid natural pigments.
Scroll paintings served historically as visual aids for itinerant bards performing folklore across villages.
2
Match the specific art form to its state of origin.
Cheriyal Scroll Painting is the Nakashi art form native exclusively to Telangana.
It holds a Geographical Indication (GI) tag recognizing Telangana's unique cultural heritage.

Key Concept

Regional Folk Painting and Intangible Cultural Heritage of Indian States
Question 3702Question →

The Government of Chhattisgarh launched the flagship 'Mahtari Vandan Yojana' to provide direct financial assistance of 1,0001,000 rupees per month (12,00012,000 rupees annually) to eligible married women in the state. What is the primary objective of this welfare scheme?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: To enhance women's financial self-reliance, gender equality, and health/nutritional status across households

Answer

The primary objective of the Mahtari Vandan Yojana is to enhance women's financial self-reliance, promote gender equality, and improve their health and nutritional status within families.
The correct answer accurately states the main objective of the Mahtari Vandan Yojana, which is to financially empower married women, foster self-reliance, and improve overall health and nutrition in families across Chhattisgarh.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the scheme and implementing authority
The scheme in question is the 'Mahtari Vandan Yojana' launched by the Government of Chhattisgarh in early 2024.
Establishing the policy context helps determine the scope and target demographic.
2
Analyze the core entitlement and target beneficiaries
The scheme targets resident married women (aged 21 and above) by providing a Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) of ₹1,000 per month.
Financial transfer schemes aimed at women generally intend to support household financial stability and decision-making power.
3
Match with the primary policy objective
The official stated goal of the scheme is to foster economic self-reliance among women, raise family nutritional security, and empower female beneficiaries.
Connecting the financial transfer mechanism to its broader socio-economic objective identifies the correct statement.

Key Concept

State Welfare Schemes and Social Empowerment Policies
Question 3703Question →

In the context of computer networking and cybersecurity, match the security protocols listed in List-I with their primary functions and architectural characteristics described in List-II.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Kerberos
IPsec
PGP (Pretty Good Privacy)
RADIUS

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Kerberos matches with ticket-granting identity authentication over insecure networks; IPsec matches with Layer 3 Network Layer encryption for VPN tunnels; PGP matches with hybrid cryptography for email and file privacy; and RADIUS matches with centralized AAA network administration.
The correct mapping pairs each protocol with its exact operational domain: Kerberos provides ticket-granting authentication over non-secure networks, IPsec secures communications at the Network Layer (Layer 3) for VPNs, PGP provides end-to-end cryptographic security for emails and files, and RADIUS provides centralized Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA) management.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Kerberos authentication mechanism.
Kerberos is designed around symmetric-key cryptography and ticket-granting service (TGS) authentication.
It verifies user and service identities across non-secure networks using time-stamped tickets.
2
Determine the OSI operating layer for IPsec.
IPsec operates transparently at the Network Layer (Layer 3).
It encapsulates and encrypts IP packets using AH and ESP protocols to form secure VPN connections.
3
Identify the primary application domain of PGP.
PGP secures emails and files via hybrid cryptography.
It encrypts message payloads using symmetric keys and encrypts those session keys using public-key infrastructure (PKI).
4
Evaluate the function of RADIUS in network access control.
RADIUS provides centralized AAA infrastructure.
It acts as a centralized server system managing user authentication, access policy enforcement, and usage accounting for network gateways.

Key Concept

Cybersecurity Protocols and Authentication Architecture
Question 3704Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the physical relief, drainage divides, and landform regions of Rajasthan:

I. The Aravalli Range functions as a principal watershed, separating the westward drainage of the Luni river system from the eastward drainage of the Banas river system.
II. The western Marusthali region is predominantly covered by deep fertile alluvial soils deposited and continuously replenished by the Ghaggar river network.
III. The southeastern Hadoti Plateau forms an extension of the Malwa Plateau, characterized by volcanic basaltic rock formations and black soil deposits.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: I and III only

Answer

Statements I and III only are correct.
The option selecting statements I and III only is correct because the Aravalli mountain system serves as the main hydrological divide between the western arid basin (Luni River) and eastern river networks (Banas and Chambal tributaries). Furthermore, the southeastern Hadoti region is physically part of the trap country (Malwa Plateau) composed of volcanic rocks and fertile black soil. Statement II is false because the Marusthali desert landscape is defined by sand dunes and aridisols, not riverine alluvial deposits.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement I regarding the drainage divide of Rajasthan.
The Aravalli Range runs diagonally across Rajasthan from southwest to northeast. It serves as a major watershed separating the west-flowing Luni River system (draining towards the Rann of Kutch) from the east-flowing Banas-Chambal system (draining towards the Yamuna/Ganga system). Statement I is correct.
Topographical relief determines regional river course orientation.
2
Analyze Statement II regarding Marusthali soil composition.
The western Marusthali region forms the core sandy desert of the Thar Desert. Its surface features sand dunes, rocky hammadas, and sandy Aridisols/Entisols, not deep fertile alluvial soils. The Ghaggar River is an ephemeral, inland drainage stream that flows only seasonally near the northern fringe (Ganganagar-Hanumangarh plains). Statement II is incorrect.
Desert landforms are dominated by wind erosion/deposition rather than perennial river alluvium.
3
Analyze Statement III regarding the Hadoti Plateau geology.
The southeastern plateau region (Hadoti) is a continuation of the Deccan Traps / Malwa Plateau, dominated by basaltic lava flows and rich medium black soil (Vertisols). Statement III is correct.
Geological origin dictates the rock strata and resulting soil profile of the region.

Key Concept

Physiographic divisions, drainage divides, and soil-geology mapping of Rajasthan state geography.
Question 3705Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the powers and constitutional position of the Governor of a State in India:

1. Unlike the President of India, the Constitution of India explicitly provides for situations where the Governor may act in their personal discretion.
2. If any question arises whether a matter falls within the Governor's constitutional discretion, the decision of the Governor is final and its validity cannot be questioned in court.
3. The pardoning power of the Governor under Article 161 extends to sentences awarded by a Court Martial, provided the offense relates to a matter within the executive power of the State.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

The statements asserting that the Constitution explicitly provides for Governor's discretion (Statement 1) and that the Governor's decision on discretion is final and non-questionable (Statement 2) are correct. The statement regarding Court Martial pardoning power (Statement 3) is incorrect.
The correct answer identifies that Statements 1 and 2 are true while Statement 3 is false. Under Article 163(1), the Constitution explicitly authorizes the Governor to act in their discretion in specific matters, a provision absent in Article 74 for the President. Article 163(2) protects the Governor's discretionary decisions from being challenged on the grounds of whether discretion was warranted. Conversely, Article 161 limits the Governor's pardoning powers, explicitly excluding sentences handed down by Court Martial proceedings, which fall solely under Presidential authority per Article 72.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding explicit constitutional discretion.
Statement 1 is correct. Article 163(1) explicitly specifies that the Governor acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers except in so far as he is by or under the Constitution required to exercise his functions or any of them in his discretion. Article 74 does not contain similar explicit wording for the President.
Establishing the constitutional distinction between Presidential and Gubernatorial discretionary provisions.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding judicial review and finality of Gubernatorial discretion.
Statement 2 is correct. Article 163(2) mandates that if any question arises whether any matter is or is not a matter where the Governor is required to act in his discretion, the decision of the Governor in his discretion shall be final, and the validity of anything done shall not be called in question on the ground that he ought or ought not to have acted in his discretion.
Evaluating constitutional finality provisions under Article 163(2).
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding Court Martial pardoning powers.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Under Article 161, the Governor can grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions for offenses against laws relating to matters to which executive power of the State extends. However, the power to grant pardon for sentences awarded by a Court Martial belongs exclusively to the President of India under Article 72.
Differentiating between Presidential (Art 72) and Gubernatorial (Art 161) pardoning power scope.

Key Concept

Constitutional Discretion and Pardoning Powers of the State Governor (Articles 161 and 163)
Question 3706Question →

During the prominent socio-religious reform movements in the princely state of Travancore (modern Kerala), the historic Vaikom Satyagraha (1924–1925) was organized primarily to achieve which of the following objectives?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: To secure the right for marginalized lower-caste Hindus to use the public roads surrounding the Vaikom Mahadeva Temple

Answer

The primary objective of the Vaikom Satyagraha (1924–1925) was to secure the right for lower-caste Hindus to walk on the public roads leading to and surrounding the Vaikom Mahadeva Temple in Travancore.
The Vaikom Satyagraha (1924–1925) was a landmark civil rights movement in Travancore state history aimed at ending caste discrimination and untouchability. It successfully advocated for allowing marginalized communities to walk freely on public pathways surrounding the Vaikom Mahadeva Temple.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the historical context and geographical setting of the movement.
The movement occurred in 1924–1925 in Vaikom, located within the princely state of Travancore (present-day Kerala).
Understanding the location and era helps differentiate social reform movements from political or agrarian revolts.
2
Analyze the core objective and leadership of the Vaikom Satyagraha.
Led by leaders such as K.P. Kesava Menon, T.K. Madhavan, and K. Kelappan (with support from E.V. Ramasamy 'Periyar' and Mahatma Gandhi), the satyagraha fought against caste-based civic restrictions.
Lower-caste individuals (such as Avarnas/Ezhavas) were forbidden from walking on roads around the temple compound.
3
Evaluate the options against the verified historical facts.
The option asserting the right of lower-caste Hindus to use public roads around the Vaikom Mahadeva Temple is the correct historical match.
The satyagraha achieved major success by securing public road access, paving the way for the historic Temple Entry Proclamation of 1936 in Travancore.

Key Concept

Vaikom Satyagraha and Temple Entry Movements in Regional State History
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 3707Question →

Which of the following statements regarding biodiversity metrics, species endemism, and global hotspots are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The Western Ghats hotspot exhibits a remarkably high proportion of endemic amphibian species compared to its total amphibian fauna.; Palaeo-endemic species represent ancient evolutionary lineages whose geographic ranges have contracted to isolated refugia over geological time.

Answer

The correct statements are that the Western Ghats hotspot exhibits a high proportion of endemic amphibians, and palaeo-endemic species represent ancient evolutionary lineages restricted to isolated refugia.
The Western Ghats contains exceptional endemic fauna, particularly among amphibians where over three-quarters of species are found nowhere else. Additionally, palaeo-endemic species are relict lineages from ancient evolutionary times that survive in restricted refugia. Thus, both of these statements are scientifically accurate.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the definition of species turnover across communities.
The rate of species replacement along an ecological gradient is beta diversity, whereas alpha diversity measures local richness within a single community.
Differentiating spatial biodiversity indices.
2
Analyze Western Ghats fauna endemic proportions.
The Western Ghats has over 75% endemic amphibians and high endemic reptile density.
Verifying regional endemic patterns in Indian hotspots.
3
Examine the concept of palaeo-endemism.
Palaeo-endemics are ancient relictual species restricted to refugia, distinct from newly evolved neo-endemics.
Categorizing evolutionary types of species endemism.
4
Check quantitative hotspot qualification criteria.
Hotspots require both species endemism (>1,500 endemic vascular plant species) and degree of threat (at least 70% original habitat lost).
Assessing Norman Myers' criteria for global biodiversity hotspots.

Key Concept

Alpha versus Beta diversity, palaeo-endemism versus neo-endemism, and Norman Myers criteria for biodiversity hotspots.
Question 3708Question →

Which of the following statements regarding pollutant dynamics, biological indicators, and soil remediation technologies for environmental pollution are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Bioaccumulation refers to the accumulation of a toxic chemical inside a single organism over its lifespan, whereas biomagnification describes the progressive increase in contaminant concentration across successive trophic levels of a food web.; Phytoextraction is a phytoremediation mechanism where hyperaccumulator plant species absorb heavy metals from contaminated soils through their roots and translocate them into harvestable shoot tissues.

Answer

The correct statements are: (1) Bioaccumulation refers to toxin accumulation within a single organism while biomagnification is the increase across trophic levels, and (2) Phytoextraction uses hyperaccumulator plants to absorb heavy metals into harvestable shoots.
Bioaccumulation describes contaminant accumulation within an individual organism over time, while biomagnification describes the escalation of lipid-soluble toxin concentrations across sequential trophic levels. Additionally, phytoextraction is an established biological soil remediation process where hyperaccumulator plants draw heavy metals up through root systems into shoots for removal.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze ecotoxicological definitions of bioaccumulation versus biomagnification.
Bioaccumulation occurs at the organism level as lipophilic compounds (e.g., DDT, methylmercury) accumulate faster than they are metabolized. Biomagnification transfers these contaminants up food chains to top predators.
Differentiates population and trophic dynamic terms accurately.
2
Evaluate the ecological role of lichens as environmental bioindicators.
Lichens depend directly on atmospheric precipitation and air quality. Their fungal-algal symbiosis is highly susceptible to atmospheric sulfur dioxide (SO2SO_2), making them terrestrial air quality indicators, not aquatic indicators.
Identifies the correct medium and pollutant indicator pairing.
3
Assess soil phytoremediation mechanisms.
Phytoextraction relies on hyperaccumulators (such as *Brassica juncea* or *Indian mustard*) to extract metals like lead, cadmium, and nickel from soil matrix into shoot systems for harvesting.
Validates sustainable technological control measures for land pollution.
4
Examine water pollution toxicology and human health impacts.
Excessive nitrate (NO3−NO_3^-) oxidizes iron in hemoglobin to methemoglobin, impairing oxygen transport in infants (Methemoglobinemia/Blue Baby Syndrome). Fluorosis is caused by excess fluoride (F−F^-) ions.
Exposes the chemical-pathology mismatch.

Key Concept

Pollutant Dynamics, Ecotoxicology, and Environmental Control Technologies
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 3709Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the raw materials and chemical compounds involved in the manufacture and setting of Portland cement:

1. Gypsum (CaSO4⋅2H2OCaSO_4 \cdot 2H_2O) is added to cement clinker during final grinding to retard the rate of setting.
2. Dicalcium silicate (2CaO⋅SiO22CaO \cdot SiO_2) hydrates rapidly with water and is primarily responsible for the early strength development of cement within the first 24 hours.
3. Tricalcium aluminate (3CaO⋅Al2O33CaO \cdot Al_2O_3) undergoes rapid hydration and causes flash setting if setting retarders are omitted.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 3 are correct.
Gypsum is added to cement clinker to prevent rapid flash setting caused by tricalcium aluminate (C3AC_3A). Tricalcium silicate (C3SC_3S), not dicalcium silicate (C2SC_2S), is responsible for early strength development.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding Gypsum.
Gypsum (CaSO4⋅2H2OCaSO_4 \cdot 2H_2O) is interground with cement clinker (around 2–3%) specifically to control and retard the rate of setting, allowing sufficient time for mixing, transporting, and placing concrete. Thus, Statement 1 is correct.
Gypsum reacts with tricalcium aluminate to form calcium sulfoaluminate (ettringite), which coats aluminate grains and retards early hydration.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding Dicalcium Silicate (C2SC_2S).
Tricalcium silicate (3CaO⋅SiO23CaO \cdot SiO_2 or C3SC_3S) hydrates rapidly and is responsible for early strength development (7 to 14 days). Dicalcium silicate (C2SC_2S) hydrates slowly and contributes to long-term progressive strength (beyond 28 days). Thus, Statement 2 is incorrect.
Confusing the hydration rates and strength contribution timelines of C3SC_3S and C2SC_2S is a common error in industrial chemistry.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding Tricalcium Aluminate (C3AC_3A).
Tricalcium aluminate (C3AC_3A) reacts violently and instantaneously with water, generating a high heat of hydration and leading to immediate hardening known as 'flash set'. Thus, Statement 3 is correct.
Without gypsum, C3AC_3A leads to premature flash setting, rendering the cement unworkable.

Key Concept

Chemical Composition and Hydration Reactions of Portland Cement
Question 3710Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the traditional performing arts and cultural heritage of Assam:

1. Majuli Mukha Silpa is a heritage mask-making craft traditionally practiced in Sattras to create characters for Bhaona theatrical performances.
2. Ojapali is a traditional narrative performing art of Assam divided into Suknanni Ojapali (associated with the worship of Goddess Manasa) and Vyah-gowa Ojapali (focused on Epics and Puranas).
3. Perini Sivatandavam is a classical temple dance form that originated in Assam under the royal patronage of the Ahom dynasty.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

The option containing statements 1 and 2 only is correct.
The first statement detailing Majuli Mukha Silpa as a traditional Sattras craft for Bhaona and the second statement explaining Ojapali's dual divisions (Suknanni and Vyah-gowa) are both historically accurate. The third statement is false because Perini Sivatandavam is an ancient warrior dance form belonging to Telangana's Kakatiya heritage, not Assam.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding Majuli Mukha Silpa.
Statement 1 is correct. Majuli Mukha Silpa is the centuries-old mask-making heritage of Majuli island's Vaishnavite Sattras in Assam, created for Bhaona theatrical plays.
Validates state cultural craft history and heritage.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding Ojapali performance art.
Statement 2 is correct. Ojapali is one of Assam's oldest choral narrative traditions, divided into Suknanni (Shakta/Manasa tradition) and Vyah-gowa (Vaishnavite/Epic tradition).
Validates regional folk performance art taxonomy.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding Perini Sivatandavam.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Perini Sivatandavam (Dance of Warriors) is an ancient ritualistic dance form of Telangana developed under the Kakatiya dynasty, documented in Jayapa Senani's treatise Nritta Ratnavali.
Identifies cross-state cultural misattribution error.

Key Concept

State cultural traditions, folk narrative arts, and performing heritage of Assam vs other regional state art forms
Question 3711Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the Departmentally Related Standing Committees (DRSCs) of the Parliament of India:

1. Out of the 24 DRSCs, 16 committees function under the Lok Sabha while 8 function under the Rajya Sabha.
2. Each Departmentally Related Standing Committee consists of 31 members, comprising 21 members from the Lok Sabha and 10 members from the Rajya Sabha.
3. A Union Minister is not eligible to be nominated as a member of any of these standing committees.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1, 2 and 3

Answer

The correct option is the one stating that statements 1, 2, and 3 are all correct.
The correct response reflects that all three statements are true. There are 24 DRSCs (16 Lok Sabha, 8 Rajya Sabha), each with 31 members (21 Lok Sabha, 10 Rajya Sabha), and Ministers are barred from serving as members.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding the distribution of DRSCs between the two Houses of Parliament.
Statement 1 is correct. In 2004, the number of DRSCs was expanded from 17 to 24. Out of these 24 committees, 16 work under the administrative jurisdiction of the Speaker of Lok Sabha, and 8 work under the Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
Verify parliamentary structure rules.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding member composition of each DRSC.
Statement 2 is correct. Each DRSC consists of 31 members—21 nominated by the Speaker from Lok Sabha and 10 nominated by the Chairman from Rajya Sabha.
Verify membership numbers across houses.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding ministerial eligibility for committee membership.
Statement 3 is correct. A Minister is explicitly excluded from being nominated as a member of any DRSC. If a member is appointed as a Minister after joining a committee, they automatically cease to be a member of that committee.
Ensure legislative oversight over the executive is maintained without conflict of interest.

Key Concept

Departmentally Related Standing Committees (DRSCs) structure, numerical strength, and membership rules under Indian Parliamentary rules.
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 3712Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP) in India:
1. It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme administered by the Ministry of Rural Development.
2. It directly aims to fulfill the Directive Principles of State Policy under Article 41 of the Constitution of India regarding public assistance in cases of old age, disablement, and sickness.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Both 1 and 2

Answer

Both 1 and 2 are correct.
Both statements are correct. The National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP) is a flagship social security initiative launched in 1995. It operates as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme administered by the Ministry of Rural Development, providing financial assistance to senior citizens, widows, and persons with disabilities living below the poverty line. Furthermore, it directly operationalizes Article 41 of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), which instructs the State to provide public assistance in cases of old age, disablement, and undeserved want.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding the administrative and funding nature of NSAP.
The National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP) was launched on August 15, 1995, and functions as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme under the Ministry of Rural Development.
Verifying the nodal ministry and scheme classification.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding the constitutional foundation of NSAP.
Article 41 of the Directive Principles of State Policy directs the State to secure public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness, and disablement, which forms the direct basis for social security schemes like NSAP.
Verifying the constitutional linkage under Part IV of the Indian Constitution.
3
Synthesize the statement evaluations to select the correct option.
Since both statements are factually correct, the option representing 'Both 1 and 2' is the correct choice.
Combining findings from step 1 and step 2.

Key Concept

National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP) and Directive Principles of State Policy (Article 41)
Question 3713Question →

Consider the following statements regarding international environmental agreements:

1. The Rotterdam Convention establishes the Prior Informed Consent (PIC) procedure for certain hazardous chemicals and pesticides in international trade.
2. The Stockholm Convention targets the elimination or restriction of Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs).
3. The Basel Convention primarily focuses on the protection of the ozone layer by phasing out chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 2 only are correct.
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Rotterdam Convention facilitates information exchange and informed consent regarding international trade of dangerous pesticides and industrial chemicals. The Stockholm Convention restricts toxic, persistent bioaccumulative chemicals known as POPs. Statement 3 is incorrect because the control of ozone-depleting substances is regulated under the Montreal Protocol, whereas the Basel Convention addresses the transboundary movement and management of hazardous wastes.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding the Rotterdam Convention.
Statement 1 is correct. The Rotterdam Convention (adopted 1998) promotes shared responsibility in the international trade of hazardous chemicals by establishing the legally binding Prior Informed Consent (PIC) procedure.
Verify the primary objective of the Rotterdam Convention.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding the Stockholm Convention.
Statement 2 is correct. The Stockholm Convention (adopted 2001) is a global treaty aimed at eliminating or restricting the production, use, and release of Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs).
Verify the primary objective of the Stockholm Convention.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding the Basel Convention.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The Basel Convention (adopted 1989) regulates the transboundary movements of hazardous wastes and their disposal. Ozone layer protection is governed by the Vienna Convention and Montreal Protocol.
Identify treaty objective misattribution.

Key Concept

Distinction between international chemical and waste treaties (Rotterdam, Stockholm, Basel, and Montreal)
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 3714Question →

Under which Article of the Constitution of India, inserted through the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976, is a Directive Principle laid down requiring the State to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard the country's forests and wildlife?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Article 48A

Answer

Article 48A of the Constitution of India explicitly directs the State to protect and improve the environment and safeguard forests and wildlife.
Article 48A was inserted into Part IV (Directive Principles of State Policy) of the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976. It explicitly states that the State shall endeavor to protect and improve the environment and safeguard the forests and wildlife of the country.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the constitutional amendment and part referenced in the question.
The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 introduced environmental provisions into both the Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV) and Fundamental Duties (Part IV-A).
Determining the distinction between State directives and citizen duties is necessary to pick the exact article.
2
Differentiate between Article 48A and Article 51A(g).
Article 48A directs the State ('The State shall endeavour to protect and improve the environment...'), while Article 51A(g) mandates citizens ('It shall be the duty of every citizen of India...').
The stem specifically asks for the constitutional directive binding upon the State.

Key Concept

Constitutional Mandate for Environmental Protection in India (Article 48A)
Question 3715Question →

As a District Magistrate coordinating emergency operations after multi-site landslides in a hill district, you have a limited fleet of heavy road-clearing machinery. Four critical locations are currently blocked:

1. Site P: Main road to an isolated hamlet of 1,200 residents experiencing a sudden disease outbreak requiring urgent medical supplies and triage evacuation.
2. Site Q: Primary arterial corridor supplying fuel to a regional thermal power plant that will face a complete blackout within 24 hours if supply lines remain severed.
3. Site R: Commercial highway link connecting an agricultural belt where harvested perishable produce worth millions will spoil within 3 days.
4. Site S: Access road to a hill station where 3,000 tourists are stranded, but local authorities report they have adequate shelter, power, and basic food provisions.

Based on administrative triage, objective public interest, and emergency resource management principles, which sequence represents the correct priority order for deploying the road-clearing machinery from highest to lowest urgency?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Deploy resources to Site P first, followed by Site Q, then Site R, and finally Site S.

Answer

The correct deployment sequence prioritizes Site P first, followed by Site Q, then Site R, and finally Site S.
The correct sequence (Site P → Site Q → Site R → Site S) follows standard administrative triage principles: direct human life and health preservation (Site P) is the primary objective; preventing systemic essential utility failure (Site Q) is secondary; minimizing economic/agricultural loss (Site R) comes third; and assisting stranded populations with stable provisions (Site S) is addressed last.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Life-Safety and Medical Urgency (Top Priority)
Site P involves a direct threat to human life with a disease outbreak in an isolated community without medical access. This requires immediate Rank 1 deployment.
Administrative ethics dictate that direct preservation of life takes absolute precedence over all infrastructure or economic considerations.
2
Assess Critical Public Infrastructure and Essential Services (Second Priority)
Site Q involves an imminent power plant shutdown within 24 hours, which would cause a wide-scale regional grid blackout affecting hospitals and thousands of households. This requires Rank 2 deployment.
Preventing systemic public utility failure safeguards the broader community's vital functioning immediately after life-safety needs.
3
Analyze Economic and Supply Chain Vulnerabilities (Third Priority)
Site R involves perishable agricultural produce facing spoilage within 3 days. While economically significant, it is neither an immediate life threat nor a grid collapse threat. This requires Rank 3 deployment.
Economic loss mitigation is prioritized after life preservation and essential public utility stabilization.
4
Evaluate Non-Emergency Stranded Populations (Lowest Priority)
Site S has stranded tourists, but because basic shelter, power, and food provisions are intact, there is no acute threat to life or health. This requires Rank 4 deployment.
Convenience and non-acute population relief rank lower than active life, health, and grid emergencies.

Key Concept

Administrative Priority Ranking and Emergency Resource Triage
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 3716Question →

Which of the following statements regarding the Constitutional provisions and administrative rules governing a State Public Service Commission (SPSC) in India are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The Chairman and members of a State Public Service Commission are appointed by the Governor of the state.; The Chairman and members of a State Public Service Commission can be removed from office only by the President of India.

Answer

The statements asserting that the Chairman and members of an SPSC are appointed by the Governor, and that they can be removed only by the President of India, are correct.
The statements confirming appointment by the Governor and removal exclusively by the President of India accurately reflect Articles 316 and 317 of the Constitution of India.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the appointing authority for State Public Service Commission members
Under Article 316(1), the Governor appoints the Chairman and members of an SPSC.
Constitutional mandate under Part XIV of the Indian Constitution.
2
Examine the removal authority and procedure for SPSC members
Under Article 317, only the President can remove an SPSC member on grounds of misbehaviour after a Supreme Court inquiry.
Protects the independence of state recruitment agencies from local political interference.
3
Check service conditions and re-appointment rules
Service conditions are determined by the Governor (not the State Legislature), and the Chairman is ineligible for re-appointment to the same office.
Articles 318 and 319 prevent executive influence and conflicts of interest.

Key Concept

Independence and Appointment/Removal Architecture of State Public Service Commissions
Question 3717Question →

Match the traditional folk art forms (List-I) with their corresponding Indian state of origin (List-II):

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Madhubani Painting
Pattachitra
Warli Painting
Kalamezhuthu

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Madhubani Painting matches with Bihar, Pattachitra matches with Odisha, Warli Painting matches with Maharashtra, and Kalamezhuthu matches with Kerala.
Madhubani painting originates from Bihar, Pattachitra is an ancient art form of Odisha, Warli painting is native to Maharashtra, and Kalamezhuthu is practiced in Kerala. Matching each art form to its respective state yields the correct pair alignment.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the geographical origin of Madhubani Painting.
Madhubani art belongs to Bihar (Mithila region).
Madhubani painting is characterized by geometric patterns and depictions of mythological figures originating from Bihar.
2
Identify the geographical origin of Pattachitra.
Pattachitra belongs to Odisha.
Pattachitra is renowned for its detailed mythological depictions on cloth scrolls traditionally crafted in Raghurajpur, Odisha.
3
Identify the geographical origin of Warli Painting.
Warli Painting belongs to Maharashtra.
Warli painting uses basic geometric shapes created by the Warli tribe residing in the North Sahyadri range of Maharashtra.
4
Identify the geographical origin of Kalamezhuthu.
Kalamezhuthu belongs to Kerala.
Kalamezhuthu is a ritualistic art form drawn using natural powders on temple floors in Kerala.

Key Concept

Regional Folk Art and Cultural Heritage of Indian States
Question 3718Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the Decentralized Procurement Scheme (DCP) implemented for foodgrain management and public distribution in India:

1. State governments directly procure, store, and issue foodgrains for the Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS) within their jurisdiction.
2. Participation in the Decentralized Procurement Scheme is mandatory for all Indian States under the provisions of the National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013.
3. Surplus stocks procured by a participating state beyond its local welfare requirements are handed over to the Food Corporation of India (FCI) for the central pool.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The Decentralized Procurement Scheme (DCP) allows state governments to directly procure, store, and distribute foodgrains, handing over any surplus to the Food Corporation of India (FCI). However, participation in the scheme is voluntary for states, not mandatory under NFSA 2013.
Statements 1 and 3 are factual and correct. The Decentralized Procurement Scheme (DCP), initiated in 1997-98, aims to build local procurement capacities, reduce transit losses, and cater directly to regional consumption preferences. Participating state governments directly procure foodgrains at Minimum Support Price (MSP), store them, and issue them under TPDS. Any excess stock beyond the state's welfare requirement is surrendered to FCI for national redistribution. Statement 2 is false because adoption of DCP is optional and voluntary for state governments.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding state procurement and distribution under DCP.
Statement 1 is correct.
The DCP scheme was introduced in 1997-98 to encourage local procurement, minimize cross-transportation of foodgrains, and enhance procurement efficiency by enabling state agencies to procure and distribute directly under TPDS.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding the statutory mandatory status of DCP under NFSA 2013.
Statement 2 is incorrect.
DCP is a voluntary operational framework option offered by the Central Government to States; it is not a mandatory statutory clause imposed on all states by the National Food Security Act (NFSA) 2013.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding handling of surplus foodgrain stock.
Statement 3 is correct.
If a DCP state procures foodgrains in excess of its targeted requirement for internal welfare distribution, the surplus quantity is handed over to the Food Corporation of India (FCI) to maintain the central pool.

Key Concept

Decentralized Procurement Scheme (DCP) operational mechanics and state-level foodgrain management
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 3719Question →

In state demographic assessments and tribal welfare planning, specific socio-economic criteria are used to identify Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs). Which of the following best describes an official socio-demographic criterion used to categorize a tribal community as a PVTG?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Stagnant or declining population growth combined with a pre-agricultural level of technology and extremely low literacy

Answer

Stagnant or declining population growth combined with a pre-agricultural level of technology and extremely low literacy
The correct answer accurately states the officially mandated criteria for identifying Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs). PVTGs are characterized by a declining or stagnant population, pre-agricultural technology (hunting, gathering, shifting cultivation), extremely low literacy, and a subsistence-level economy.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the official criteria for Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs)
Recognize four mandatory parameters: pre-agricultural level of technology, stagnant or declining population, extremely low literacy, and subsistence level of economy.
These criteria distinguish PVTGs from other Scheduled Tribes to ensure targeted human development policies.
2
Evaluate the option choices against official socio-demographic parameters
The statement emphasizing stagnant population, pre-agricultural technology, and low literacy matches the official identification framework.
Options suggesting urban industrial migration, settled canal agriculture, or high female literacy contradict the empirical profile of PVTGs.

Key Concept

Identification criteria and demographic vulnerability of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs)
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 3720Question →

The Government of Assam launched the flagship 'Orunodoi Scheme' to enhance financial empowerment and social security for vulnerable households. Which of the following features represent valid provisions of this scheme?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Direct benefit transfer (DBT) is provided to the bank account of the primary female member of eligible households.; Priority eligibility is accorded to households containing widows, unmarried women, or differently-abled individuals.

Answer

The correct features of the Orunodoi Scheme are direct benefit transfer to the primary female member's bank account and prioritized coverage for households with widows, unmarried women, or differently-abled individuals.
The Orunodoi Scheme implemented by the Assam state government focuses on female empowerment by depositing monthly financial assistance directly into the bank accounts of female heads of households. It specifically prioritizes vulnerable groups such as widows, unmarried women, and households with differently-abled family members.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary target beneficiary and transfer mechanism for the Orunodoi Scheme.
The scheme transfers monthly financial aid directly to the bank accounts of female family heads.
Women's financial inclusion and household stability are central objectives of the initiative.
2
Evaluate the eligibility criteria and priority categories of the scheme.
The scheme excludes affluent families and government employees while prioritizing households with widows, divyangjan, and unmarried women.
State welfare schemes use income ceilings and vulnerability metrics to target benefits to low-income populations.

Key Concept

Eligibility and framework of state female-centric Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) welfare schemes
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