All practice questions

Match the ancient Mahajanapadas listed in List-I with their respective capital cities given in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Magadha matches with Rajagriha, Kosala matches with Sravasti, Vatsa matches with Kausambi, and Avanti matches with Ujjain.

The correctly matched pairs associate Magadha with Rajagriha, Kosala with Sravasti, Vatsa with Kausambi, and Avanti with Ujjain according to ancient geographical records of the 16 Mahajanapadas.

Step-by-Step Solution

1

Identify the early capital of Magadha.

Magadha's capital was Rajagriha.

Rajagriha (Girivraja) was fortified by hills and served as the initial seat of power for Bimbisara and Ajatashatru.

2

Identify the capital of Kosala.

Kosala's capital was Sravasti.

Sravasti was the main political and urban center of Kosala ruled by King Prasenajit.

3

Identify the capital of Vatsa.

Vatsa's capital was Kausambi.

Kausambi was a major commercial center near modern Prayagraj on the Yamuna river.

4

Identify the capital of Avanti.

Avanti's capital was Ujjain.

Ujjain was the famous capital of Northern Avanti, located along key trade routes.

Key Concept

Mahajanapadas and their Capitals

Question 2Question →

Match the major world straits and canals in List I with the bodies of water they connect in List II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Strait of Gibraltar matches with Mediterranean Sea and Atlantic Ocean; Suez Canal matches with Red Sea and Mediterranean Sea; Strait of Malacca matches with Andaman Sea and South China Sea; Bering Strait matches with Arctic Ocean and Pacific Ocean (Bering Sea).

Each feature correctly matches its respective geographical connection: the Strait of Gibraltar joins the Atlantic Ocean and Mediterranean Sea; the Suez Canal connects the Red Sea and Mediterranean Sea; the Strait of Malacca connects the Andaman Sea and South China Sea; and the Bering Strait links the Arctic Ocean and Pacific Ocean.

Step-by-Step Solution

1

Identify the geographical position of the Strait of Gibraltar.

It serves as the narrow waterway connecting the Atlantic Ocean to the Mediterranean Sea.

It lies between southern Spain and northern Morocco.

2

Identify the water bodies linked by the Suez Canal.

It links the Mediterranean Sea directly with the Red Sea.

This artificial waterway traverses the Isthmus of Suez in Egypt.

3

Identify the location of the Strait of Malacca.

It joins the Andaman Sea with the South China Sea.

It forms the primary sea channel between the Indian Ocean and the Pacific Ocean.

4

Identify the connection created by the Bering Strait.

It connects the Arctic Ocean (Chukchi Sea) to the Pacific Ocean (Bering Sea).

It separates Asia (Russia) from North America (Alaska).

Key Concept

Major Straits and Canals of the World and Connected Water Bodies

Estimated Time:1m 0s

Question 3Question →

Match the major mineral and energy resource mining centres of India listed in Column-I with their corresponding primary mineral or energy resource in Column-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Jaduguda matches with Uranium, Digboi matches with Petroleum, Balaghat matches with Manganese, and Neyveli matches with Lignite.

Jaduguda is famous for Uranium, Digboi is known for Petroleum, Balaghat is known for Manganese, and Neyveli is known for Lignite.

Step-by-Step Solution

1

Identify the resource produced at Jaduguda

Uranium

Jaduguda in Singhbhum district of Jharkhand is an established atomic mineral site producing Uranium.

2

Identify the resource produced at Digboi

Petroleum

Digboi located in Assam is famous for petroleum extraction and refining.

3

Identify the mineral resource associated with Balaghat

Manganese

Balaghat district of Madhya Pradesh accounts for a significant portion of manganese ore production in India.

4

Identify the mineral resource associated with Neyveli

Lignite

Neyveli in Tamil Nadu contains extensive reserves of lignite (brown coal) used for thermal power generation.

Key Concept

Important mineral and energy resource mining locations in India

Question 4Question →

Match List-I (Administrative Term/System) with List-II (Associated Medieval Empire/Dynasty) to pair each term with its correct empire.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Iqta System corresponds to Delhi Sultanate, Amaram Grants corresponds to Vijayanagara Empire, Chauth Levy corresponds to Maratha Empire, and Dahsala System corresponds to Mughal Empire.

Each administrative system directly corresponds to its historical empire: Iqta to the Delhi Sultanate (institutionalized by Iltutmish), Amaram to Vijayanagara (Nayankara military grants), Chauth to the Marathas (one-fourth protection tax), and Dahsala to the Mughals (Akbar's ten-year land revenue system).

Step-by-Step Solution

1

Associate the Iqta system with its originating medieval state

Matched Iqta System to the Delhi Sultanate, where revenue assignments supported the military nobility.

Iltutmish and subsequent Delhi Sultans institutionalized Iqta assignments across North India.

2

Associate Amaram grants with South Indian administrative systems

Matched Amaram Grants to the Vijayanagara Empire.

The Nayankara system of Vijayanagara involved granting Amaram lands to Nayakas in exchange for military service and maintenance of troops.

3

Associate Chauth levy with Maratha statecraft

Matched Chauth Levy to the Maratha Empire.

Chhatrapati Shivaji and later Peshwas levied Chauth (25% tax) as protection money from neighbouring provinces.

4

Associate the Dahsala system with Mughal land revenue administration

Matched Dahsala System to the Mughal Empire.

Instituted in 1580 CE under Emperor Akbar, Dahsala calculated land revenue based on the average yield and prices over the preceding ten years.

Key Concept

Key Administrative and Revenue Systems of Medieval Indian Empires

Estimated Time:1m 0s

Question 5Question →

Three civil service officers—Anita, Bikram, and Chitra—are assigned to three distinct departments: Education, Finance, and Health, with one officer per department. Based on the following clues, match each officer to their correct department:

1. Bikram is not assigned to the Health Department.
2. Anita is assigned to the Education Department.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Anita matches with the Education Department, Bikram matches with the Finance Department, and Chitra matches with the Health Department.

Anita is directly assigned to Education. Since Bikram cannot be in Health, he must take Finance, leaving Health for Chitra.

Step-by-Step Solution

1

Identify direct assignments from clues

Anita is directly assigned to the Education Department.

Clue 2 directly gives Anita's department.

2

Determine remaining options for the remaining officers

The remaining departments to be filled are Finance and Health for Bikram and Chitra.

Each officer is assigned to a distinct department.

3

Apply negative condition to Bikram

Bikram must be in the Finance Department.

Clue 1 specifies Bikram cannot be in Health, leaving Finance as his only option.

4

Assign the final remaining officer

Chitra is assigned to the Health Department.

Health is the only department left unassigned.

Key Concept

Analytical Elimination and Grouping

Question 6Question →

Match the British constitutional initiatives and declarations during the freedom movement (List I) with their respective defining provisions or recommendations (List II):

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Linlithgow's August Offer (1940) matches with the expansion of the Executive Council with an Indian majority and minority veto assurance. Cripps Proposals (1942) matches with post-war Constituent Assembly recognition and provincial non-accession rights. Wavell Plan (1945) matches with the reconstructed Executive Council proposing Hindu-Muslim parity. Cabinet Mission Plan (1946) matches with rejecting a fully independent Pakistan in favor of a three-tiered grouping mechanism (Sections A, B, and C).

Each British offer or proposal corresponds to its specific historical objective during the constitutional transfer of power: the August Offer (1940) promised an Indian-majority Executive Council expansion and minority veto protection; the Cripps Proposals (1942) acknowledged an Indian Constituent Assembly with provincial non-accession options; the Wavell Plan (1945) proposed an all-Indian Executive Council with Caste Hindu-Muslim parity; and the Cabinet Mission Plan (1946) rejected a sovereign Pakistan while introducing a three-tiered grouping framework.

Step-by-Step Solution

1

Analyze Linlithgow's August Offer (1940)

The offer extended executive council membership to Indians (giving them a numeric majority) and promised that British power would not be transferred without minority consent.

This establishes the correct correspondence between August Offer (1940) and the provision regarding executive expansion with minority consent.

2

Analyze Cripps Proposals (1942)

Sir Stafford Cripps recognized the Indian right to frame a constitution post-WWII while adding a clause permitting non-acceding provinces to form separate constitutional unions.

This links Cripps Proposals (1942) to the provision granting post-war constituent assembly creation and provincial opt-out rights.

3

Analyze Wavell Plan (1945)

Lord Wavell proposed replacing all members of the Viceroy's Executive Council except the Viceroy and Commander-in-Chief with Indians, maintaining strict parity between Caste Hindus and Muslims.

This connects Wavell Plan (1945) to the provision detailing Executive Council restructuring with Hindu-Muslim parity.

4

Analyze Cabinet Mission Plan (1946)

The Mission rejected a separate sovereign nation of Pakistan, recommending instead a loose Indian Union structured into three sections of grouped provinces.

This pairs Cabinet Mission Plan (1946) with the provision rejecting sovereign Pakistan and instituting three-tiered provincial grouping.

Key Concept

Comparative analysis of colonial constitutional proposals, executive council restructuring, and sovereign union plans (1940–1946).

Estimated Time:2m 0s

Question 7Question →

Match the Constitutional Articles under Part IX (73rd Amendment Act) in List I with their corresponding provisions in List II.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Article 243A matches Gram Sabha; Article 243B matches Constitution of Panchayats; Article 243I matches State Finance Commission; Article 243K matches Elections to the Panchayats (State Election Commission).

Each constitutional article under Part IX corresponds to its exact constitutional mandate: Article 243A relates to Gram Sabha, Article 243B mandates the Constitution of Panchayats, Article 243I creates the State Finance Commission, and Article 243K establishes the State Election Commission for local body elections.

Step-by-Step Solution

1

Identify the provision of Article 243A.

Article 243A explicitly establishes the Gram Sabha as a body consisting of persons registered in the electoral rolls of a village.

It forms the foundation of direct democracy in the Panchayati Raj system.

2

Identify the provision of Article 243B.

Article 243B mandates the 3-tier system for the Constitution of Panchayats in states with a population exceeding 20 lakhs.

It sets the structural mandate for local bodies.

3

Identify the provision of Article 243I.

Article 243I obligates the State Governor to constitute a Finance Commission every five years.

It secures fiscal devolution to local governance institutions.

4

Identify the provision of Article 243K.

Article 243K establishes an independent State Election Commission.

It ensures regular, free, and fair elections to Panchayati Raj Institutions.

Key Concept

Constitutional Articles governing Panchayati Raj Institutions under Part IX (73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992)

Question 8Question →

Match the following Parliamentary Committees of the Indian Parliament with their respective functions:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Public Accounts Committee matches with examining CAG audit reports; Estimates Committee matches with suggesting administrative economies and alternative policies; Committee on Public Undertakings matches with examining public sector reports and accounts; Business Advisory Committee matches with allocating time for legislative business.

The correct matches reflect the specific roles defined in parliamentary procedure: the Public Accounts Committee examines CAG reports; the Estimates Committee focuses on suggesting alternative policies for efficiency and economy; the Committee on Public Undertakings inspects corporate financial performance of state enterprises; and the Business Advisory Committee determines the time allocated for bills and debates in Parliament.

Step-by-Step Solution

1

Identify the function of the Public Accounts Committee.

It scrutinizes the expenditure accounts and audit reports presented by the CAG.

Ensure accountability of executive expenditure post-spending.

2

Identify the mandate of the Estimates Committee.

It reviews budget estimates to recommend efficiency measures and alternative policy approaches.

Acts as a continuous economy committee.

3

Match Committee on Public Undertakings and Business Advisory Committee.

Public Undertakings Committee inspects PSU financial records, while the Business Advisory Committee schedules parliamentary proceedings.

Each committee possesses a defined statutory/procedural jurisdiction in Parliament.

Key Concept

Parliamentary Standing Committees and their primary functions

Question 9Question →

Match the following prominent mountain peaks of Peninsular India in List I with their corresponding mountain ranges in List II. Which of the following correctly pairs each peak with its respective mountain range?

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Anamudi matches with Anaimalai Hills, Guru Shikhar matches with Aravalli Range, Dhupgarh matches with Satpura Range, and Doddabetta matches with Nilgiri Hills.

Each mountain peak is paired with its accurate physiographic parent mountain range: Anamudi belongs to the Anaimalai Hills, Guru Shikhar is the peak of the Aravalli Range, Mount Dhupgarh lies in the Satpura Range, and Doddabetta belongs to the Nilgiri Hills.

Step-by-Step Solution

1

Identify the mountain range for Anamudi

Anamudi is located in the Anaimalai Hills in Kerala, forming the highest peak of South India.

Anamudi forms the knot where the Anaimalai, Palani, and Cardamom hills meet.

2

Identify the mountain range for Guru Shikhar

Guru Shikhar is the highest elevation point of the ancient Aravalli relict range.

It lies in the Arbuda Mountains region of Mount Abu.

3

Identify the mountain range for Dhupgarh

Dhupgarh is the peak atop the Mahadeo Hills section of the Satpura Range.

The Satpura range comprises Rajpipla, Mahadeo, and Maikal hills from west to east.

4

Identify the mountain range for Doddabetta

Doddabetta is the highest summit in the Nilgiri Hills, positioned at the junction of the Western and Eastern Ghats.

Doddabetta lies near Udhagamandalam (Ooty) in the Nilgiri district.

Key Concept

Major Mountain Peaks and Ranges of Peninsular India

Question 10Question →

Four project managers—Emma, Felix, Grace, and Henry—are sitting around a small circular meeting table. All four are facing the center of the table.

Based on the following two conditions, match each person with their correct seating position description:
1. Emma sits directly opposite to Felix.
2. Grace sits to the immediate left of Emma.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The matches are: Emma -> Sits to the immediate left of Henry; Felix -> Sits to the immediate left of Grace; Grace -> Sits directly opposite to Henry; Henry -> Sits to the immediate right of Emma.

Based on the center-facing orientation, if Emma is at the 'North' position facing South, her immediate left is 'East'. Grace takes the 'East' seat. Felix is opposite Emma, taking the 'South' seat. Henry must take the final 'West' seat. By evaluating the relative positions from this layout: Emma (North) is to the immediate left of Henry (West). Felix (South) is to the immediate left of Grace (East). Grace (East) is directly opposite Henry (West). Henry (West) is to the immediate right of Emma (North).

Step-by-Step Solution

1

Place Emma and Felix on the circular table.

Emma and Felix occupy two directly opposite seats.

Condition 1 explicitly states that Emma and Felix sit opposite each other.

2

Determine Grace's position relative to Emma.

Grace is seated in the seat immediately clockwise from Emma.

Condition 2 states Grace is to the immediate left of Emma. Because they face the center, Emma's left corresponds to the next seat clockwise.

3

Place Henry in the final available seat.

Henry sits in the seat opposite to Grace.

Three out of four seats are taken. Henry must occupy the fourth seat, which is on Emma's immediate right.

Key Concept

Circular Seating Arrangement

Question 11Question →

Match the following flagship social sector initiatives of the Government of India (List-I) with their primary target objectives and welfare architecture (List-II):

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Show answer & explanation

Answer

PM Vishwakarma Scheme pairs with end-to-end support for traditional artisans; SMILE Scheme pairs with rehabilitation for transgender persons and individuals engaged in begging; PM-AJAY pairs with merged umbrella welfare for SC communities; PM-CARES for Children Scheme pairs with social security and health cover for pandemic-orphaned minors.

The matching correctly pairs each welfare scheme with its distinct mandate: PM Vishwakarma supports traditional artisans and craftspeople across 18 trades; SMILE provides rehabilitation for transgender persons and beggars; PM-AJAY consolidates three existing schemes to foster socio-economic development of SC communities; and PM-CARES for Children delivers healthcare, education, and financial corpus for children orphaned by the COVID-19 pandemic.

Step-by-Step Solution

1

Analyze the objectives of PM Vishwakarma Scheme

Identified as a Central Sector Scheme launched to provide holistic support (skills, toolkit incentive, collateral-free credit at 5%) to traditional artisans working with hands and tools.

Matches the description of credit, skill upgrading, and digital incentives for traditional craftspeople.

2

Evaluate the SMILE Scheme framework

Identified two sub-schemes under SMILE focusing on welfare, rehabilitation, medical intervention, and skill development for transgender individuals and persons in begging.

Directly corresponds to comprehensive rehabilitation for marginalized groups including transgender persons and beggars.

3

Examine the structural composition of PM-AJAY

Identified as a merged Centrally Sponsored Scheme consolidating Special Central Assistance to Scheduled Castes Sub-Plan (SCA to SCSP), Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana (PMAGY), and Babu Jagjivan Ram Chhatrawas Yojana (BJRCY).

Matches the description focusing on income generation, SC-majority village infrastructure, and hostels.

4

Verify the PM-CARES for Children Scheme architecture

Identified as an initiative launched to support children who lost both parents, surviving parent, legal guardian, or adoptive parents to COVID-19, providing ₹10 lakh corpus at age 23 and PM-JAY health coverage.

Matches the description of social security and health coverage for pandemic-orphaned children.

Key Concept

Institutional architecture, target beneficiaries, and structural features of social welfare initiatives in India

Question 12Question →

Match the following flagship social security and welfare schemes of the Government of India with their respective nodal administrative features and target beneficiary frameworks:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan matches with the unorganized sector contributory pension scheme under the Ministry of Labour and Employment. PM SVANidhi matches with the micro-credit working capital scheme for urban street vendors under the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana matches with the guaranteed senior citizen pension scheme implemented through LIC. Stand Up India Scheme matches with the bank-credit initiative for SC/ST and women greenfield entrepreneurs.

Each scheme is accurately matched with its structural purpose and nodal administration: PM-SYM provides unorganized sector pensions via the Labour Ministry; PM SVANidhi delivers vendor micro-credit via MoHUA; PMVVY provides guaranteed senior citizen pensions via LIC; and Stand Up India offers greenfield bank credit for SC, ST, and women entrepreneurs.

Step-by-Step Solution

1

Analyze PM-SYM eligibility and ministry

PM-SYM targets unorganized sector workers earning

\le

₹15,000 per month with an entry age of 18–40 years, offering a monthly pension of ₹3,000 after age 60 under the Ministry of Labour and Employment.

Identify the specific pension architecture designed for unorganized laborers.

2

Evaluate PM SVANidhi scope and administration

PM SVANidhi is a Central Sector micro-credit scheme launched by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) to provide collateral-free loans to street vendors.

Match urban informal enterprise credit schemes with their correct nodal ministry.

3

Examine PMVVY target demographic and implementation body

PMVVY is a senior citizen welfare scheme (age 60 and above) offering guaranteed annual/monthly payouts implemented exclusively through LIC.

Distinguish senior citizen social safety nets from general employment pension schemes.

4

Verify Stand Up India financial parameters and target groups

Stand Up India provides bank loans between ₹10 lakh and ₹1 crore to SC, ST, and women borrowers for setting up greenfield projects.

Correlate credit-linked empowerment schemes with targeted social demographics.

Key Concept

Social Security Architecture and Welfare Scheme Nodal Administration

Question 13Question →

The Regional Enterprise Growth Council evaluates proposals for the 'Pioneer Tech Grant'. As of July 1, 2026, to be eligible for the grant, an enterprise must satisfy the following criteria:

1. Be registered for at least 3 years.
2. Have an annual turnover of not less than 500,000 USD but not exceeding 2,000,000 USD in the previous financial year.
3. Have at least 25 full-time employees, out of which a minimum of 40% are women.
4. Be operating a project strictly in 'Green Energy' or 'Healthcare Tech'.

Exceptions:
If an enterprise satisfies all criteria EXCEPT:
(A) criterion (2), but has secured at least 300,000 USD in venture capital funding, the case is to be referred to the Advisory Committee.
(B) criterion (3), but is founded and currently led by a female CEO, the case is to be referred to the Director of Operations.

Based on the above criteria, match the following enterprises to their appropriate administrative decision. Assume all unstated facts meet the criteria.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct mapping is: NovaTech is Approved, EcoSpark is referred to the Advisory Committee, MediCore is referred to the Director of Operations, and GreenFuture is Rejected.

Each enterprise must be evaluated systematically against the four primary criteria and the two exceptions to determine the singular correct administrative action.

Step-by-Step Solution

1

Evaluate NovaTech Solutions against the primary criteria.

NovaTech satisfies all four primary conditions (registered > 3 years, turnover within limits, 50% female employees, Healthcare Tech domain).

Fulfilling all primary conditions leads directly to approval without needing to check exceptions.

2

Evaluate EcoSpark Innovations against the primary criteria and exceptions.

EcoSpark fails the turnover requirement (400,000 USD < 500,000 USD) but fulfills exception (A) due to 350,000 USD in VC funding.

Exception (A) directs cases failing only criterion 2 but meeting the VC threshold to the Advisory Committee.

3

Evaluate MediCore Systems against the primary criteria and exceptions.

MediCore fails the employee diversity requirement (8/28 < 40%) but fulfills exception (B) by having a female CEO.

Exception (B) routes cases failing only criterion 3 but led by a female CEO to the Director of Operations.

4

Evaluate GreenFuture Tech against the primary criteria.

GreenFuture fails criterion 1 (registered in 2024, which is less than 3 years prior to July 2026).

Because it fails a primary condition for which no exception is provided, it must be rejected outright.

Key Concept

Applying complex administrative criteria and exception conditions to evaluate candidate eligibility.

Question 14Question →

A Block Development Officer (BDO) is conducting a rural outreach program to promote digital literacy. During the initiative, several interactions take place. Match the specific administrative events (List I) with the corresponding element of the communication process (List II).

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct matches are: translating guidelines aligns with Encoding; the rainstorm aligns with Physical Noise; interpreting the chart aligns with Decoding; and applauding/nodding aligns with Feedback.

Each administrative event strictly aligns with a distinct phase of the communication process: encoding is the sender's message creation, physical noise is environmental disruption of the channel, decoding is the receiver's interpretation, and feedback is the receiver's response.

Step-by-Step Solution

1

Analyze the BDO's action of creating the chart.

Identified as 'Encoding'.

The sender is converting abstract ideas into a transmittable format.

2

Analyze the impact of the rainstorm.

Identified as 'Physical Noise'.

It is an external, environmental barrier that prevents the signal from reaching the receivers clearly.

3

Analyze the village elder's interpretation.

Identified as 'Decoding'.

The receiver is processing the received symbols to extract meaning, even if the resulting interpretation is incorrect.

4

Analyze the attendees' applause.

Identified as 'Feedback'.

This is the return message from the receivers to the sender indicating receipt and comprehension.

Key Concept

Process and Elements of Communication

Question 15Question →

In a specific cryptographic system, words are encoded using the following two distinct rules:
1. Consonants are replaced by the letter exactly two positions ahead in the English alphabet (e.g., B becomes D, K becomes M).
2. Vowels (A, E, I, O, U) are replaced by the immediate next vowel in the sequence (e.g., A becomes E, U becomes A).

Based on this coding logic, match the words in List I with their correct encoded forms in List II.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct pairings are: MAGIC maps to OEOIE, BRAIN maps to DTEOP, FLUTE maps to HNAVI, and POWER maps to RUYIT.

Each word follows the stated logic precisely: consonants skip one letter forward (+2), and vowels transition to the next vowel in the standard sequence (A->E->I->O->U->A). Mapping each letter of the given words using these rules directly produces the coded forms identified in the correct pairings.

Step-by-Step Solution

1

Analyze the coding rules provided in the stem.

Rule 1 applies to Consonants (+2 shift). Rule 2 applies to Vowels (shifted to the next vowel in the A, E, I, O, U sequence).

Identifying the specific transformation for different letter types is required before attempting to encode the words.

2

Apply the coding logic to the word 'MAGIC'.

M (+2) -> O; A (vowel) -> E; G (+2) -> I; I (vowel) -> O; C (+2) -> E. Result: OEOIE.

To find the match for the first item.

3

Apply the coding logic to the word 'BRAIN'.

B (+2) -> D; R (+2) -> T; A (vowel) -> E; I (vowel) -> O; N (+2) -> P. Result: DTEOP.

To find the match for the second item.

4

Apply the coding logic to the word 'FLUTE'.

F (+2) -> H; L (+2) -> N; U (vowel) -> A; T (+2) -> V; E (vowel) -> I. Result: HNAVI.

To find the match for the third item.

5

Apply the coding logic to the word 'POWER'.

P (+2) -> R; O (vowel) -> U; W (+2) -> Y; E (vowel) -> I; R (+2) -> T. Result: RUYIT.

To find the match for the final item.

Key Concept

Mixed Alphanumeric Codes and Letter-Shift Rules

Estimated Time:1m 30s

Question 16Question →

Four delivery vans depart from a central depot. Each driver executes a specific sequence of movements and turns. Match each van's movement sequence with the final direction it is facing.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Van 1 matches with North-West, Van 2 matches with South-West, Van 3 matches with South-East, and Van 4 matches with North-East.

By mapping out each individual vehicle's rotational shifts on a standard compass rose, the exact final orientations correctly pair Van 1 to North-West, Van 2 to South-West, Van 3 to South-East, and Van 4 to North-East.

Step-by-Step Solution

1

Track Van 1's orientation sequentially.

North -> East -> North-West.

North is

0^\circ

. A

90^\circ

clockwise turn results in East (

90^\circ

). A

135^\circ

anti-clockwise turn from East subtracts

135^\circ

, ending at

315^\circ

, which is North-West.

2

Track Van 2's orientation sequentially.

South -> East -> South -> South-West.

South is

180^\circ

. A left turn from South faces East (

90^\circ

). A right turn from East returns to South (

180^\circ

). A

45^\circ

clockwise turn from South adds

45^\circ

, ending at

225^\circ

, which is South-West.

3

Track Van 3's orientation sequentially.

West -> North-East -> South-East.

West is

270^\circ

. A

135^\circ

clockwise turn adds

135^\circ

to reach

405^\circ

(equivalent to

45^\circ

, North-East). A

90^\circ

right turn from North-East adds

90^\circ

, ending at

135^\circ

, which is South-East.

4

Track Van 4's orientation sequentially.

East -> West -> North -> North-East.

East is

90^\circ

. A U-turn flips the direction to West (

270^\circ

). A right turn from West faces North (

0^\circ

). A

45^\circ

clockwise turn from North ends at

45^\circ

, which is North-East.

Key Concept

Angular Rotations and Cardinal Direction Mapping

Question 17Question →

Match each movement sequence in Column I with its correct final position or facing direction in Column II.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Sequence 1 matches with 6 m East of the starting point; Sequence 2 matches with 12 m North of the starting point; Sequence 3 matches with Facing South-West direction; Sequence 4 matches with 10√2 m South-West of the starting point.

Each movement sequence correctly matches its geometric displacement vector or facing direction by tracking cardinal axes and angular rotations step-by-step.

Step-by-Step Solution

1

Analyze Sequence 1

Displacement:

+8\text{ m}

(North),

+6\text{ m}

(East),

-8\text{ m}

(South). Net displacement =

(6, 0)

, which is

6\text{ m}

East of start.

Opposite North and South movements cancel each other out.

2

Analyze Sequence 2

Displacement:

+5\text{ m}

(East),

+12\text{ m}

(North),

-5\text{ m}

(West). Net displacement =

(0, 12)

, which is

12\text{ m}

North of start.

Opposite East and West movements cancel each other out.

3

Analyze Sequence 3

Initial direction = South (

180^\circ

). Anti-clockwise turn of

135^\circ

gives North-East (

45^\circ

). Clockwise turn of

180^\circ

gives South-West (

225^\circ

).

A

180^\circ

rotation reverses the current facing direction.

4

Analyze Sequence 4

At sunrise, sun is in East, shadow is West. Walking

10\text{ m}

West and

10\text{ m}

South gives displacement

(-10, -10)

. Distance =

\sqrt{10^2 + 10^2} = 10\sqrt{2}\text{ m}

towards South-West.

Using the Pythagorean theorem for perpendicular displacements along cardinal axes.

Key Concept

Direction and Distance Test

Question 18Question →

During an election preparedness briefing, various communication events occur between the Chief Election Officer and Sector Magistrates. Match the specific administrative actions described (List I) with their corresponding core elements in the communication process (List II).

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct pairings are: Converting regulations to a checklist corresponds to Encoding. Static disruption corresponds to Physical Noise. Interpreting the checklist corresponds to Decoding. Asking a clarifying question corresponds to the Feedback Loop.

In the communication process model, encoding is the formulation of the message (creating the checklist), the channel carries the message and can be disrupted by physical noise (VHF static), decoding is the interpretation of the message by the receiver (using past experience to understand it), and feedback is the receiver's response to the sender (asking a question).

Step-by-Step Solution

1

Analyze the action of converting complex regulations into a simplified checklist.

Identified as 'Encoding'.

The sender is taking abstract or complex thoughts and translating them into a structured message that can be transmitted.

2

Evaluate the disruption on the VHF radio network.

Identified as 'Physical Noise'.

Interference in the actual transmission medium (channel) is a classic example of environmental or physical noise.

3

Analyze the Sector Magistrate's interpretation of the checklist based on past experience.

Identified as 'Decoding'.

The receiver is processing the received message and translating it into meaning based on their own frame of reference.

4

Evaluate the trainee officer asking a clarifying question.

Identified as 'Feedback Loop'.

The receiver is providing a response back to the sender, completing the two-way communication cycle.

Key Concept

Process and Elements of Communication

Question 19Question →

Match each traditional indigenous art and craft heritage form listed in List-I with its corresponding cultural community and regional description in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Sohrai and Khovar Paintings matches with the indigenous tribal mural art of Jharkhand; Cheriyal Scroll Painting matches with the stylized narrative scroll tradition of Telangana; Pithora Mural Art matches with the sacred ritualistic wall painting of Rathwa and Bhil communities; and Rogan Art matches with the castor seed oil textile craft of Kutch, Gujarat.

Each folk art form is paired with its authentic state origin, community custodians, and technique: Sohrai and Khovar represent Jharkhand's mud wall art; Cheriyal represents Telangana's scroll storytelling; Pithora represents Rathwa/Bhil ritual murals of Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh; and Rogan represents Kutch's castor oil textile painting.

Step-by-Step Solution

1

Identify the geographical origin and cultural context of Sohrai and Khovar paintings.

Sohrai and Khovar are indigenous mural art forms from Jharkhand practiced by tribal women using natural pigments for harvest and wedding rituals.

Connecting mural styles to their primary state and ritual contexts establishes the first correct match.

2

Examine Cheriyal scroll painting's medium, community usage, and provenance.

Cheriyal scrolls belong to Telangana, where they serve as visual aids for traditional bardic communities narrating regional folklore.

Scroll paintings with narrative storytelling functions on khadi cloth are distinctively preserved in Telangana.

3

Analyze the tribal affiliations and sacred ritual nature of Pithora murals.

Pithora murals are painted by the Rathwa and Bhil tribes in eastern Gujarat and western Madhya Pradesh as an act of veneration and ritual worship.

Recognizing the Rathwa-Bhil tribal link firmly pairs Pithora with its ritual wall art description.

4

Identify Rogan art's raw material and regional artisan center.

Rogan art uses a thick paste derived from boiled castor seed oil and is preserved in Kutch, Gujarat.

Castor oil textile painting is unique to Kutch in western India.

Key Concept

Regional Folk Art and Traditional Craft Heritage in Indian States

Estimated Time:1m 15s

Question 20Question →

A newly appointed Chief Medical Officer (CMO) is rolling out a rural vaccination drive. Below are various events that occurred during the rollout. Relate these events to their corresponding stages in the theoretical communication cycle.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct matches are: 1. CMO translating protocols pairs with Encoding. 2. Distribution via pamphlets and video conferences pairs with Message Channel. 3. Workers grasping the guidelines pairs with Decoding. 4. Submitting reports pairs with Feedback.

Each administrative action in the scenario corresponds to a distinct phase in the standard communication model. Translating the medical protocol is the sender's encoding process. The pamphlets and video conferences are the transmission channels. The health workers' interpretation of the guidelines is the receiver's decoding process. The verifying reports sent back to the CMO represent the feedback loop.

Step-by-Step Solution

1

Analyze the first event: The CMO translates complex protocols into simple language.

This matches the definition of 'Encoding', where a sender formulates the message.

Encoding is the conversion of thoughts into communicable symbols or language.

2

Analyze the second event: Distribution via pamphlets and video conferences.

This matches 'Message Channel', which refers to the medium of transmission.

Channels are the vehicles that carry the encoded message to the receiver.

3

Analyze the third event: Frontline workers read and grasp the guidelines.

This matches 'Decoding', where the receiver interprets the message.

Decoding is the process of making sense of the received symbols or language.

4

Analyze the fourth event: Workers submit reports detailing challenges.

This matches 'Feedback', completing the communication loop.

Feedback is the receiver's response sent back to the sender, confirming reception and comprehension.

Key Concept

Stages of the Communication Process

Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Key Concept

Common Mistakes

Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Key Concept

Common Mistakes

Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Key Concept

Common Mistakes

Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Key Concept

Common Mistakes

Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Key Concept

Common Mistakes

Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Key Concept

Common Mistakes

Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Key Concept

Common Mistakes

Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Key Concept

Common Mistakes

Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Key Concept

Common Mistakes

Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Key Concept

Common Mistakes

Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Key Concept

Common Mistakes

Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Key Concept

Common Mistakes

Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Key Concept

Common Mistakes

Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Key Concept

Common Mistakes

Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Key Concept

Common Mistakes

Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Key Concept

Common Mistakes

Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Key Concept

Common Mistakes

Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Key Concept

Common Mistakes

Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Key Concept

Common Mistakes

Answer

Step-by-Step Solution

Key Concept