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Question 401Question →

Match the water-soluble vitamins listed in List-I with their characteristic deficiency pathologies described in List-II:

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Answer

Vitamin B1 matches with Beriberi and Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome; Vitamin B3 matches with Pellagra; Vitamin B6 matches with Sideroblastic anemia and peripheral neuropathy; Vitamin B12 matches with Pernicious anemia and subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord.

Each water-soluble vitamin fulfills a distinct biochemical coenzymatic role. Thiamine (B1) is essential for oxidative decarboxylation in carbohydrate metabolism, preventing cardiac and neurological Beriberi. Niacin (B3) generates NAD/NADP for redox reactions, preventing Pellagra. Pyridoxine (B6) acts as a cofactor in transamination and heme formation, preventing sideroblastic anemia and neuropathy. Cobalamin (B12) is necessary for DNA maturation and myelin maintenance, preventing pernicious anemia and spinal cord degeneration.

Step-by-Step Solution

Analyze Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) function and deficiency state

Thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP) is critical for pyruvate dehydrogenase and alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase. Deficiency impairs ATP production, causing Beriberi and Wernicke-Korsakoff encephalopathy.

Identify the primary metabolic pathway affected by Thiamine impairment.

Analyze Vitamin B3 (Niacin) function and deficiency state

Niacin forms NAD+/NADP+. Its deficiency manifests as Pellagra, characterized by the 3 Ds: dermatitis, diarrhea, and dementia.

Identify the systemic organ systems affected by NAD depletion.

Analyze Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine) function and deficiency state

Pyridoxal phosphate (PLP) is essential for neurotransmitter synthesis and delta-aminolevulinic acid (ALA) synthase in heme synthesis. Deficiency produces sideroblastic anemia and peripheral neuropathy.

Differentiate B6-dependent microcytic anemia from B12 macrocytic anemia.

Analyze Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin) function and deficiency state

Cobalamin is required for methionine synthase and methylmalonyl-CoA mutase. Lack of intrinsic factor leads to pernicious anemia (megaloblastic) and subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord.

Establish the specific neuro-hematological link unique to Cobalamin deficiency.

Key Concept

Metabolic roles and pathological manifestations of B-complex vitamin deficiencies in human physiology

Question 402Question →

Match the institutional bodies and mechanisms of the Indian financial architecture in List I with their corresponding primary operational functions or features in List II. Select the correct matching pair combinations.

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Answer

Board for Financial Supervision (BFS) matches with the integrated supervisory committee for commercial banks, NBFCs, and primary dealers; Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) matches with the six-member statutory body determining the policy repo rate; Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC) matches with the non-statutory apex body chaired by the Union Finance Minister for inter-regulatory coordination; Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) matches with the wholly owned RBI subsidiary insuring bank deposits up to

5\text{ lakh}

Each institution is matched correctly according to its governance structure: the Board for Financial Supervision handles unified banking oversight; the Monetary Policy Committee determines interest rates for inflation targeting; the Financial Stability and Development Council facilitates macroprudential coordination under the Finance Minister; and the Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation guarantees bank deposits up to

5\text{ lakh}

Step-by-Step Solution

Identify the primary role and statutory status of the Board for Financial Supervision (BFS).

The BFS functions as the main supervisor for commercial banks, NBFCs, and primary dealers under the guidance of the RBI Central Board.

This pairs BFS with the description focused on integrated supervisory control.

Identify the mandate of the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC).

The MPC is a six-member panel established under Section 45ZB of the RBI Act to fix the policy repo rate.

This pairs MPC with the statutory six-member body responsible for setting interest rates.

Analyze the structural role of the Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC).

FSDC is an apex non-statutory body headed by the Union Finance Minister aimed at resolving inter-agency regulatory conflicts.

This pairs FSDC with the non-statutory body chaired by the Finance Minister.

Examine the function of the Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC).

DICGC is a 100% RBI-owned statutory entity that guarantees customer deposits up to

5\text{ lakh}

This pairs DICGC with the deposit insurance subsidiary providing coverage up to

5\text{ lakh}

Key Concept

Institutional Framework of Indian Financial System and RBI Regulatory Architecture

Question 403Question →

Match the following key defense assets and nuclear energy installations in India (List-I) with their primary technological or operational features (List-II).

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Answer

Kakrapar Unit-3 corresponds to the first indigenously designed 700 MWe Pressurised Heavy Water Reactor; Kamini Reactor corresponds to the research reactor using Uranium-233 fuel; Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor corresponds to the sodium-cooled Stage-2 reactor; and INS Arihant corresponds to the nuclear-powered ballistic missile submarine.

Kakrapar Unit-3 is the pioneer in India's 700 MWe PHWR series. Kamini operates on Uranium-233 at Kalpakkam. The Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR) is the cornerstone of Stage-2 sodium-cooled breeder technology. INS Arihant provides India with a sea-based nuclear ballistic missile capability.

Step-by-Step Solution

Identify the classification of Kakrapar Unit-3.

It is India's flagship 700 MWe indigenous Pressurised Heavy Water Reactor.

Establishes the link between Kakrapar and 700 MWe PHWR technology.

Determine the fuel characteristic of the Kamini reactor.

Kamini uses Uranium-233 derived from Thorium irradiation.

Matches Kamini with its unique U-233 fuel cycle.

Identify the reactor type and stage of the Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor.

PFBR uses liquid sodium coolant to breed more fissile material in Stage-2.

Links PFBR with fast breeder reactor technology.

Analyze the strategic role of INS Arihant.

INS Arihant is a nuclear-powered submarine capable of launching ballistic missiles (SSBN).

Associates INS Arihant with naval strategic nuclear deterrence.

Key Concept

Classification of India's major defense installations and nuclear power/research reactor technologies.

Estimated Time:1m 30s

Question 404Question →

Match the national income aggregates and development indicators listed in List-I with their correct methodological definitions in List-II:

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Answer

Net National Product at Factor Cost corresponds to

GDP_{MP} - \text{Depreciation} + \text{NFIA} - \text{Net Product Taxes}

. Gross Value Added at Basic Prices corresponds to

GVA_{FC} + (\text{Production Taxes} - \text{Production Subsidies})

. Planetary Pressures-adjusted HDI corresponds to the Human Development Index discounted by per capita carbon dioxide emissions and material footprint. Genuine Progress Indicator corresponds to the economic metric adjusting personal consumption expenditure for income inequality, environmental degradation, and non-market benefits.

Each national accounting aggregate and indicator is accurately paired with its official definition under CSOS/NSO national account revision standards and UNDP indicator frameworks. Net National Product at Factor Cost represents national income. GVA at Basic Prices isolates production-stage net taxes. PHDI adjusts HDI for environmental footprint, while GPI extends economic progress measurement beyond conventional consumption output.

Step-by-Step Solution

Analyze Net National Product at Factor Cost (

NNP_{FC}

)

NNP_{FC} = GDP_{MP} - \text{Depreciation} + \text{NFIA} - \text{Net Product Taxes}

Converting Gross to Net requires subtracting depreciation; converting Market Price to Factor Cost requires subtracting Net Product Taxes.

Identify the accounting identity for Gross Value Added at Basic Prices (

GVA_{BP}

)

GVA_{BP} = GVA_{FC} + \text{Net Production Taxes}

Basic prices account for production taxes (like land revenue and stamp duties) independent of actual output quantity, while excluding product taxes (like GST).

Evaluate the development indicator definitions

PHDI incorporates environmental strain (carbon emissions and material footprint), whereas GPI expands macroeconomic accounting beyond GDP by incorporating social and environmental welfare adjustments into personal consumption.

Distinguishing global index adjustments (UNDP's PHDI) from alternative welfare accounts (GPI) clarifies their economic measurement focus.

Key Concept

National Income Accounting Identities and Modern Development Indicators

Question 405Question →

Match each national skill development program in List-I with its primary target group or core objective in List-II. Which of the following pair alignments correctly connects each scheme with its mandate?

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Answer

Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) aligns with short-term skill certification and RPL; Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY) aligns with placement-linked skill training for rural poor youth; National Apprenticeship Promotion Scheme (NAPS) aligns with stipend cost-sharing support to employers; and SHREYES aligns with on-the-job apprenticeship opportunities for general stream graduates.

The correct alignment pairs each major government initiative with its accurate statutory objective: PMKVY provides short-term skill certification and RPL; DDU-GKY mandates placement-linked training for poor rural youth; NAPS reimburses stipend costs to incentivize employers; and SHREYES bridges employability gaps specifically for general stream (non-technical) graduates.

Step-by-Step Solution

Identify the mandate of PMKVY

PMKVY focuses on industry-relevant short-term skill training and Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL).

It is designed to encourage skill certification for youth across unorganized and organized sectors.

Identify the mandate of DDU-GKY

DDU-GKY is a placement-linked skill development initiative focused specifically on rural poor youth.

It aims to diversify rural household incomes under the National Rural Livelihoods Mission.

Identify the mechanism of NAPS

NAPS provides financial incentives by reimbursing part of the apprentice stipend to employers.

Direct financial assistance incentivizes private sector establishments to hire and train apprentices.

Identify the focus demographic of SHREYES

SHREYES offers skill training and apprenticeship to general non-technical degree graduates.

It addresses employability gaps among general stream graduates in arts, science, and commerce.

Key Concept

Institutional Framework of National Skill Initiatives and Targeted Beneficiary Schemes

Question 406Question →

Match List-I (Plant Physiological Phenomena and Agricultural Technologies) with List-II (Biological Mechanisms and Agronomic Applications) and select the correct sequence of matching pairs:

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Answer

Guttation pairs with liquid xylem sap exudation through hydathodes via root pressure; Apomixis pairs with asexual seed formation preserving hybrid vigor; Parthenocarpy pairs with seedless fruit development without fertilization; Micropropagation pairs with in vitro tissue culture producing disease-free clones.

Guttation corresponds to the exudation of xylem sap via hydathodes under positive root pressure. Apomixis represents asexual seed development without fertilization that preserves hybrid traits. Parthenocarpy corresponds to the formation of seedless fruits without ovule fertilization. Micropropagation refers to in vitro clonal propagation using tissue explants.

Step-by-Step Solution

Analyze Guttation

Guttation is driven by positive root pressure during periods of low transpiration, causing sap loss through hydathodes.

Differentiates guttation from transpiration (gas phase water loss through stomata).

Analyze Apomixis

Apomixis yields asexual seed formation without syngamy.

Key biotechnological target for maintaining hybrid vigor in successive seed generations.

Analyze Parthenocarpy

Parthenocarpy leads to fruit development without seed formation.

Distinguishes seedless fruit development from parthenogenesis (embryo creation).

Analyze Micropropagation

Micropropagation relies on in vitro culture of tissue explants to generate elite clones.

Core technique in modern plant tissue culture and clean planting material production.

Key Concept

Plant Physiology and Agricultural Biotechnology Mechanisms

Question 407Question →

Match the national accounting aggregates and development indicators in List-I with their accurate conceptual definitions in List-II:

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Answer

Gross National Disposable Income corresponds to total available resources equal to

GNP_{MP}

plus net current transfers from abroad; Gross National Happiness corresponds to the development framework based on sustainable growth, environmental conservation, cultural preservation, and good governance; Net Value Added at Factor Cost corresponds to income generated after deducting depreciation and net indirect taxes; Inequality-adjusted Human Development Index corresponds to the measure discounting average HDI achievement due to distribution inequality.

Each indicator matches its exact definition: Gross National Disposable Income factors in foreign transfers to

GNP_{MP}

; Gross National Happiness focuses on four pillars of holistic governance and sustainability; Net Value Added at Factor Cost isolates net factor earnings by removing depreciation and tax distortions; Inequality-adjusted Human Development Index discounts standard HDI based on spatial and social inequalities.

Step-by-Step Solution

Examine the macroeconomic identities in List-I

Identify

GNDI

as an indicator of national disposable income incorporating foreign net transfers, and

NVA_{FC}

as net factor earnings from production after deducting depreciation and indirect taxes.

National accounting rules distinguish between income generated, factor payments, and total disposable funds.

Examine the social and development metrics in List-I

Identify Gross National Happiness as a multidimensional quality-of-life framework, and

IHDI

as UNDP's metric adjusting standard HDI for inequality across dimensions.

Development indicators extend beyond financial output to capture distribution equity and qualitative well-being.

Match each term to its theoretical definition

GNDI

matches total resources including net transfers from abroad;

GNH

matches the four-pillar holistic framework;

NVA_{FC}

matches net domestic factor production income;

IHDI

matches the index discounting HDI for unequal distribution.

Pairing each term with its primary methodological scope establishes accurate concept matching.

Key Concept

National Income Disposable Aggregates and Human Development Indices

Question 408Question →

Match the inflation types and phenomena listed in List-I with their corresponding economic characteristics listed in List-II.

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Answer

Shrinkflation matches with the reduction of product quantity at constant retail price; Skewflation matches with price rise concentrated in a specific group of commodities; Headline Inflation matches with total inflation including food and fuel; and Core Inflation matches with persistent inflation excluding food and fuel.

Shrinkflation is characterized by hidden price increases where packaging size drops while retail price stays fixed. Skewflation describes price inflation concentrated within limited specific items like food products. Headline Inflation represents total price variation across the entire representative consumer basket. Core Inflation excludes volatile components such as food and energy to reflect long-term underlying inflationary trends.

Step-by-Step Solution

Identify the characteristic of Shrinkflation

Shrinkflation corresponds to maintaining the price sticker while reducing volume, weight, or count of the product.

Firms use this subtle cost-pass-through method when input costs rise without triggering consumer price resistance.

Identify the characteristic of Skewflation

Skewflation denotes price increases concentrated within one or a few sectors while prices in other sectors remain moderate or flat.

It highlights sectoral supply bottlenecks rather than generalized monetary expansion.

Distinguish between Headline Inflation and Core Inflation

Headline inflation evaluates the entire consumer price index basket, whereas Core inflation filters out volatile food and fuel items.

Excluding temporary supply-side price spikes in food and fuel reveals persistent macroeconomic monetary pressure.

Key Concept

Inflation Types, Price Indices, and Structural Inflationary Dynamics

Question 409Question →

Match the everyday physical observations in List-I with their primary underlying physics principles in List-II:

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Answer

Cooling of water in an earthen pot matches with absorption of latent heat during porous surface evaporation; Vacuum space in a double-walled thermos flask matches with prevention of heat transfer mechanisms that require a material medium; Occurrence of land breeze matches with convective circulation driven by differential specific heat capacities; Loosening a tight metal jar lid matches with differential expansion rates of distinct solid materials upon heating.

Each everyday observation corresponds directly to a fundamental law of thermal physics: earthen pot cooling functions via latent heat of vaporization during evaporation; a thermos vacuum jacket blocks medium-dependent heat transfer (conduction and convection); land breezes are thermal convection currents caused by specific heat differences between land and water; and loosening a glass jar lid utilizes the higher coefficient of thermal expansion of metals compared to glass.

Step-by-Step Solution

Analyze the cooling mechanism in an earthen pot.

Microscopic pores facilitate surface evaporation. The phase change consumes thermal energy in the form of latent heat of vaporization from the stored liquid.

Evaporative cooling directly relies on latent heat absorption from the remaining liquid.

Examine the role of a vacuum gap in thermal insulation.

Conduction and convection mandate atomic or molecular collisions within a medium. A vacuum evacuates matter, blocking both heat transfer paths.

Thermal energy cannot conduct or convect without physical particles.

Evaluate the thermal dynamics driving coastal land breezes.

Because land has a lower specific heat capacity than ocean water, land loses heat faster at night. The resulting temperature difference induces density changes and convective air circulation.

Differential cooling rates establish local atmospheric pressure gradients.

Determine the principle behind thermal opening of glass jars.

When exposed to hot water, both the metal lid and glass container absorb heat, but the metal lid expands to a greater degree due to its higher thermal expansion coefficient.

Different materials expand at distinct rates per unit of temperature increase.

Key Concept

Thermal energy transfer mechanisms, latent heat, specific heat capacity, and thermal expansion in daily applications.

Estimated Time:1m 30s

Question 410Question →

Based on the family relationships described below, match each person in List I with their correct relationship to $A$ in List II:

- $A$ and $D$ are a married couple, where $A$ is male.
- $B$ and $C$ are the children of $A$ and $D$ , where $B$ is male and $C$ is female.
- $E$ is the son of $C$ .
- $F$ is the daughter of $B$ .

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Answer

B corresponds to Son of A; D corresponds to Wife of A; E corresponds to Grandson of A; and F corresponds to Granddaughter of A.

Each member is mapped according to explicit generation depth and gender: D is the female spouse (Wife of A), B is the male child (Son of A), E is the child of daughter C (Grandson of A), and F is the female child of son B (Granddaughter of A).

Step-by-Step Solution

Determine the relationship between A and D

Since A and D are married and A is male, D is female and is the Wife of A.

Marriage establishes a spouse relationship between A and D.

Determine the relationship of B to A

B is a male child of A and D, so B is the Son of A.

Direct male offspring of a parent is a son.

Determine the relationship of E to A

C is the female child (daughter) of A, and E is the male child (son) of C. Thus, E is the Grandson of A.

A child's child represents the grand-generation, specifically maternal grandson here.

Determine the relationship of F to A

B is the son of A, and F is the female child (daughter) of B. Thus, F is the Granddaughter of A.

A son's daughter is a paternal granddaughter.

Key Concept

Multi-generational Family Tree Relationship Deduction

Question 411Question →

Match each policy intervention or socio-economic phenomenon listed in List I with its corresponding direct primary cause or logical outcome in List II.

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Answer

The correct matching pairs are: Subsidies for drip irrigation match with decreased agricultural groundwater depletion and enhanced water-use efficiency; Congestion pricing implementation matches with increased reliance on mass transit systems and staggered workplace timings; Digital credit history tracking matches with improved borrower risk assessment and reduced asymmetric information; Spike in respiratory hospital admissions matches with post-harvest crop residue burning combined with atmospheric temperature inversion.

Each item in List I represents an action or event whose direct underlying cause or primary effect is uniquely identified in List II. Drip irrigation subsidies directly improve agricultural water-use efficiency and lower groundwater depletion. Congestion pricing drives commuters toward public transit and staggered shifts. Digital credit tracking solves asymmetric information problems to reduce loan defaults. Severe seasonal respiratory spikes stem from post-harvest crop residue burning trapped by atmospheric inversion.

Step-by-Step Solution

Evaluate the direct logical outcome of agricultural drip irrigation subsidies.

Drip irrigation delivers water directly to root zones, minimising evaporation and runoff.

Financial incentives for water-conserving tech directly produce measurable groundwater conservation.

Evaluate the behavioral impact of urban congestion pricing.

Peak-hour road pricing increases private driving costs, shifting modal choice toward public transit.

Economic disincentives directly alter commuter transit preferences and driving times.

Analyze the financial market effect of digital credit history tracking.

Transparent credit records resolve lender uncertainty regarding borrower creditworthiness.

Eliminating information asymmetry lowers bad debt and micro-loan defaults.

Determine the primary cause of seasonal urban respiratory hospital admission surges.

Stubble burning generates pollutant volume while atmospheric inversion prevents vertical pollutant dispersion.

The co-occurrence of heavy particulate emission and meteorological trapping forms the direct underlying cause of severe respiratory distress spikes.

Key Concept

Direct Cause and Effect Relationships in Public Policy and Environmental Systems

Question 412Question →

Match the atmospheric compounds listed in List-I with their primary environmental role or atmospheric characteristic in List-II:

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Answer

Stratospheric Ozone matches filtering harmful solar UV-B radiation; Tropospheric Ozone matches secondary pollutant acting as a short-lived climate force; Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) match non-ozone-depleting greenhouse gases with high heat-trapping capacity; Sulfur Hexafluoride (SF6) matches synthetic fluorinated gas with a GWP exceeding 20,000 used in high-voltage switchgear.

Each atmospheric compound is matched to its definitive ecological and chemical profile: stratospheric ozone shields the biosphere from harmful solar UV-B radiation; tropospheric ozone acts as a secondary ground-level pollutant and climate force; hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) are non-ozone depleting substitutes with high warming potential; and sulfur hexafluoride (SF6) is an industrial gas with an extreme global warming potential exceeding 20,000.

Step-by-Step Solution

Differentiate between stratospheric and tropospheric ozone roles.

Stratospheric ozone is beneficial by shielding against UV-B, while tropospheric ozone is a ground-level pollutant and greenhouse gas.

Atmospheric location dictates whether ozone acts as a protective shield or a pollutant.

Evaluate the chemical properties of Hydrofluorocarbons (

HFCs

HFCs do not contain chlorine atoms, meaning zero Ozone Depletion Potential (

ODP

), but exhibit strong radiative forcing.

HFCs were synthesized as alternatives to CFCs/HCFCs to protect the ozone layer, despite their high global warming impact.

Identify the Global Warming Potential and application of Sulfur Hexafluoride (

SF_6

SF6 is a synthetic heavy gas featuring the highest GWP among Kyoto-regulated greenhouse gases.

Its molecular stability gives it an exceptionally long lifetime and high infrared absorption capability.

Key Concept

Atmospheric Roles and Global Warming Potentials of Greenhouse Gases and Ozone-Related Compounds

Question 413Question →

Match the environmental protocols and conventions in List-I with their primary objectives or key provisions in List-II:

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Answer

Montreal Protocol matches with phase-out of ozone-depleting substances such as CFCs; Kyoto Protocol matches with binding emission reduction targets for developed nations on greenhouse gases; Kigali Amendment matches with phase-down of the production and consumption of HFCs; Vienna Convention matches with framework agreement establishing international cooperation to protect the ozone layer.

The Montreal Protocol focuses on phasing out ozone-depleting substances like CFCs. The Kyoto Protocol establishes binding greenhouse gas emission reduction commitments. The Kigali Amendment targets the phase-down of potent greenhouse gas HFCs. The Vienna Convention serves as the overarching framework for international ozone layer protection.

Step-by-Step Solution

Identify the primary mechanism of the Montreal Protocol.

It establishes legally binding timelines to eliminate ozone-depleting substances like chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs).

The treaty specifically targeted substances responsible for creating the Antarctic ozone hole.

Identify the legal structure of the Kyoto Protocol.

It imposed targeted emission cuts on Annex I (developed) nations for six key greenhouse gases.

Adopted under UNFCCC in 1997, it operationalized international commitment against global warming.

Determine the focus of the Kigali Amendment.

It extends the Montreal Protocol to phase down hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs).

Though non-ozone depleting, HFCs possess global warming potentials thousands of times higher than carbon dioxide.

Associate the Vienna Convention with its foundational regulatory role.

It established non-binding global framework mechanisms and research sharing regarding the ozone layer.

Adopted in 1985, it laid the framework before concrete phase-out targets were codified under Montreal.

Key Concept

Key international climate change conventions, ozone protection agreements, and greenhouse gas control instruments.

Question 414Question →

Match List-I (Atmospheric Pollutants / Synthetic Compounds) with List-II (Regulatory Frameworks and Environmental Characteristics) and select the correct matching pairs.

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Answer

Perfluorocarbons (PFCs) match with extremely persistent synthetic GHGs emitted primarily during primary aluminum smelting. Stratospheric Halons match with bromine-containing compounds possessing significantly higher ODP per molecule than standard CFCs. Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) match with phase-down under the Kigali Amendment due to high GWP despite zero ODP. Nitrogen Trifluoride (

NF_3

) matches with addition to the Kyoto Protocol basket under the Doha Amendment.

Perfluorocarbons (PFCs) are extremely long-lived synthetic greenhouse gases originating from aluminum smelting. Stratospheric Halons contain bromine, which exhibits much higher Ozone Depleting Potential per molecule than chlorine in CFCs. Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) have zero Ozone Depleting Potential but high Global Warming Potential, leading to their regulation under the Kigali Amendment. Nitrogen Trifluoride (

NF_3

) was added to the Kyoto Protocol greenhouse gas list during the Doha Amendment.

Step-by-Step Solution

Analyze the industrial sources and chemical persistence of Perfluorocarbons (PFCs).

PFCs (

CF_4

C_2F_6

) are generated as inadvertent byproducts during aluminum smelting (anode effect) and microelectronics etching, characterized by extreme atmospheric lifetimes (up to 50,000 years).

Links PFCs to aluminum smelting emissions and extreme atmospheric longevity.

Evaluate the atmospheric ozone destruction potential of Halons.

Halons carry bromine atoms (

Br

), which participate in catalytic ozone destruction cycles that are substantially more destructive per atom than the chlorine cycles of CFCs.

Establishes why Halons exhibit higher ODP values compared to standard CFCs.

Examine the international legal regime covering Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs).

While HFCs do not harm the ozone layer (zero ODP), they are potent greenhouse gases. The 2016 Kigali Amendment legally amended the Montreal Protocol to include HFC phase-down schedules.

Connects HFCs with zero ODP and the Kigali Amendment phase-down framework.

Trace the history of greenhouse gas listings under the Kyoto Protocol for Nitrogen Trifluoride (

NF_3

The original 1997 Kyoto Protocol covered six gases (

CO_2

CH_4

N_2O

, HFCs, PFCs,

SF_6

). Nitrogen Trifluoride (

NF_3

) was added as the seventh gas under the 2012 Doha Amendment for the second commitment period (2013–2020).

Pairs

NF_3

with the Doha Amendment expansion of the Kyoto Protocol GHG basket.

Key Concept

Chemical mechanisms of ozone depleting substances, greenhouse gas profiles, and global climate governance treaties

Question 415Question →

Match the following multilateral organizations and international bodies with their respective headquarters locations:

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Answer

The correct matches are: International Court of Justice (ICJ) matches with The Hague, Netherlands; World Trade Organization (WTO) matches with Geneva, Switzerland; International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) matches with Vienna, Austria; and Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) matches with Jakarta, Indonesia.

Each organization is matched accurately with its permanent administrative headquarters: ICJ operates from The Hague, WTO operates from Geneva, IAEA operates from Vienna, and ASEAN operates from its secretariat in Jakarta.

Step-by-Step Solution

Identify the headquarters of the judicial organ of the UN, ICJ.

The ICJ is situated at the Peace Palace in The Hague, Netherlands.

It is the only principal organ of the United Nations located outside New York.

Identify the headquarters of the WTO.

The WTO headquarters is located in Geneva, Switzerland.

Geneva hosts numerous global trade, health, and economic governance bodies.

Identify the headquarters of the nuclear watchdog agency, IAEA.

The IAEA is based in Vienna, Austria.

Vienna is a major hub for international specialized agencies including UNIDO and IAEA.

Identify the headquarters of the regional group, ASEAN.

The ASEAN Secretariat is situated in Jakarta, Indonesia.

Jakarta serves as the diplomatic capital of the Southeast Asian regional block.

Key Concept

Headquarters and secretariats of major international organizations and multilateral bodies.

Question 416Question →

Match the following famous state tourism destinations, cultural fairs, and traditional art forms in List-I with their corresponding Indian States in List-II:

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Answer

Cheriyal Scroll Painting corresponds to Telangana, Surajkund International Crafts Mela corresponds to Haryana, Hornbill Festival corresponds to Nagaland, and Rock Shelters of Bhimbetka corresponds to Madhya Pradesh.

Each item correctly matches its corresponding Indian State: Cheriyal Scroll Painting originates in Telangana, Surajkund Crafts Mela takes place in Haryana, Hornbill Festival is held in Nagaland, and Bhimbetka Rock Shelters are situated in Madhya Pradesh.

Step-by-Step Solution

Identify the origin state of Cheriyal Scroll Painting.

Cheriyal scroll paintings are a traditional Nakashi art form practiced exclusively in Telangana.

Art form mapping.

Identify the host state of Surajkund International Crafts Mela.

Surajkund Crafts Mela takes place at Surajkund in Faridabad, Haryana.

Cultural fair location mapping.

Identify the state celebrated for the Hornbill Festival.

The Hornbill Festival takes place at Naga Heritage Village Kisama near Kohima, Nagaland.

Tourism festival mapping.

Identify the geographic location of the UNESCO World Heritage Bhimbetka Rock Shelters.

Bhimbetka is situated in Raisen district of Madhya Pradesh.

Architectural/Prehistoric art site mapping.

Key Concept

State Tourism, Art, Fairs, and Architecture Mapping

Question 417Question →

Match the historic regional movements and uprisings in state history (List-I) with their primary causes or defining features (List-II):

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Answer

Phulaguri Dhawa (1861) pairs with the protest against opium cultivation restrictions and betel taxes; Patharughat Uprising (1894) pairs with the agrarian revolt against land revenue hikes in Darrang district; Moamaria Rebellion (1769) pairs with the popular uprising by Matak followers against the Ahom monarchy; and Kuki Uprising (1917–1919) pairs with tribal resistance against forced Labor Corps conscription during World War I.

Each historical movement is correctly matched with its specific trigger or landmark feature: Phulaguri Dhawa targeted British agricultural tax rumors; Patharughat involved agrarian resistance to land revenue reassessment; the Moamaria Rebellion was an internal challenge to Ahom royal sovereignty; and the Kuki Uprising was driven by opposition to colonial labor recruitment during World War I.

Step-by-Step Solution

Identify the historical context of Phulaguri Dhawa (1861).

Connect Phulaguri Dhawa to the 1861 peasant gathering against colonial prohibitions on opium farming and feared betel nut taxes.

Phulaguri Dhawa is recognized as Assam's first organized agrarian revolt against British taxation policies.

Analyze the nature of the Patharughat Uprising (1894).

Pair Patharughat with the protest against land revenue hikes in Darrang district where unarmed peasants faced colonial police firing.

Patharughat is historically noted for peasant resistance against increased land assessment rates imposed in the late 19th century.

Examine the origin of the Moamaria Rebellion (1769).

Match the Moamaria Rebellion to the uprising of Matak disciples against Ahom royal power.

The rebellion was a prolonged feud between Matak socio-religious leaders and the Ahom court.

Determine the cause of the Kuki Uprising (1917–1919).

Associate the Kuki rebellion with resistance to British recruitment drive for World War I Labor Corps.

Kuki chieftains rejected forced labor recruitment, leading to a major military campaign by colonial forces.

Key Concept

State History and Regional Historical Movements

Question 418Question →

Match List-I (International Conventions/Protocols) with List-II (Specific Key Regulatory Mechanisms) and identify the correct pairs according to their primary legal mandates under international environmental law.

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Answer

Cartagena Protocol corresponds to Advanced Informed Agreement (AIA) procedure for Living Modified Organisms (LMOs); Rotterdam Convention corresponds to Prior Informed Consent (PIC) procedure for hazardous trade chemicals; Nagoya Protocol corresponds to ABS Clearing-House mechanism for genetic resources; Minamata Convention corresponds to phased prohibition of primary mining and regulation of artisanal small-scale gold mining.

Each international environmental agreement targets a distinct ecological concern: Cartagena Protocol handles Living Modified Organisms via the Advanced Informed Agreement (AIA) procedure; Rotterdam Convention regulates trade of hazardous chemicals using the Prior Informed Consent (PIC) mechanism; Nagoya Protocol regulates Access and Benefit-Sharing (ABS) of genetic resources via the ABS Clearing-House; and Minamata Convention specifically bans primary mercury mining and regulates releases from artisanal gold mining.

Step-by-Step Solution

Analyze Cartagena Protocol mandate

Identified as a supplementary agreement to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) regulating Living Modified Organisms via the Advanced Informed Agreement (AIA) procedure.

Cartagena addresses biotechnology safety and environmental risks during LMO transboundary movements.

Analyze Rotterdam Convention mandate

Identified as the treaty establishing the legally binding Prior Informed Consent (PIC) procedure for hazardous trade chemicals.

Rotterdam focuses on trade transparency and country consent regarding toxic chemicals and pesticides.

Analyze Nagoya Protocol mandate

Identified as the treaty implementing Access and Benefit-Sharing (ABS) and establishing the ABS Clearing-House mechanism.

Nagoya governs equitable sharing of benefits from genetic resources and traditional knowledge utilization.

Analyze Minamata Convention mandate

Identified as the treaty targeting elemental mercury and mercury compounds, banning primary mining and controlling emissions from artisanal gold mining.

Minamata aims to protect human health and the environment from anthropogenic emissions of mercury.

Key Concept

Core Mechanisms and Specific Mandates of Major International Environmental Treaties

Question 419Question →

Match the following prominent leaders of regional state historical movements with their corresponding uprisings against British colonial rule:

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Answer

Gomdhar Konwar matches with Ahom Revolt in Assam (1828); Vasudev Balwant Phadke matches with Ramosi Peasant Uprising in Maharashtra (1879); Baba Ram Singh matches with Kuka Movement in Punjab (1872); U Tirot Sing matches with Khasi Rebellion in Meghalaya (1829).

Each leader is correctly matched to their historical region and anti-colonial movement: Gomdhar Konwar led the Ahom Revolt in Assam (1828), Vasudev Balwant Phadke headed the Ramosi Uprising in Maharashtra (1879), Baba Ram Singh led the Kuka Movement in Punjab (1872), and U Tirot Sing led the Khasi Rebellion in Meghalaya (1829).

Step-by-Step Solution

Identify the historical movement led by Gomdhar Konwar

Gomdhar Konwar was an Ahom prince who organized the 1828 Ahom Revolt in Assam.

The revolt emerged when the British East India Company attempted to annex Ahom territories post-Yandabo treaty.

Identify the regional uprising led by Vasudev Balwant Phadke

Vasudev Balwant Phadke formed the Ramosi armed group in Maharashtra in 1879.

He targeted British infrastructure and state treasuries to support famine-affected peasants.

Identify the movement led by Baba Ram Singh

Baba Ram Singh founded and led the Kuka (Namdhari) Movement in Punjab.

The movement combined socio-religious reform with political resistance to British colonial rule.

Identify the leader of the Khasi Rebellion

U Tirot Sing, ruler of Nongkhlaw, led the Khasi resistance in Meghalaya from 1829 to 1833.

The rebellion was triggered by British military road construction across the Khasi Hills.

Key Concept

Prominent regional leaders and state-specific historical movements against British colonial expansion

Question 420Question →

Match the following famous cultural fairs and festivals of Madhya Pradesh (List-I) with the respective districts where they are primarily organized or celebrated (List-II):

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Answer

Bhagoria Haat Festival pairs with Jhabua; Khajuraho Dance Festival pairs with Chhatarpur; Tansen Samaroh pairs with Gwalior; Lokrang Festival pairs with Bhopal.

Each cultural festival correctly aligns with its host district in Madhya Pradesh: Bhagoria Haat is celebrated in Jhabua, Khajuraho Dance Festival is in Chhatarpur, Tansen Samaroh takes place in Gwalior, and Lokrang Festival is conducted in Bhopal.

Step-by-Step Solution

Locate the primary district for Bhagoria Haat Festival.

Bhagoria Haat is associated with Jhabua district.

It is a celebrated tribal spring festival celebrated by the Bhil and Bhilala tribes in the Jhabua region.

Locate the district for the Khajuraho Dance Festival.

The Khajuraho Dance Festival takes place in Chhatarpur district.

The historic Khajuraho group of temples is situated in the Chhatarpur district of Madhya Pradesh.

Locate the venue for Tansen Samaroh.

Tansen Samaroh is held in Gwalior district.

The event honors the legendary musician Tansen at his tomb located in Gwalior.

Locate the host city/district for Lokrang Festival.

Lokrang Festival is celebrated in Bhopal.

Organized by the Madhya Pradesh Tribal Museum and Directorate of Culture, the festival is hosted annually in the state capital, Bhopal.

Key Concept

State Tourism, Art, Fairs, and Architecture

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