All practice questions

Question 61Question →

Match the following administrative actions taken by a District Election Officer (DEO) during election preparation with their corresponding elements in the communication process.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

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Answer

Translating guidelines corresponds to Encoding; Using the messaging network corresponds to Communication Channel; Interpreting instructions corresponds to Decoding; Submitting a confirmation receipt corresponds to Feedback Loop.

Effective communication follows a systematic sequence: a sender encodes a message, transmits it through a selected channel, and the receiver decodes it, followed by providing feedback. The given scenario perfectly maps these distinct, fundamental stages to practical administrative actions during an election deployment.

Step-by-Step Solution

1

Analyze the action of translating technical guidelines into a manual.

Identified as Encoding.

The sender is converting thoughts and technical data into a format that can be easily understood by the target audience.

2

Analyze the action of using a secure messaging network.

Identified as Communication Channel.

This is the digital medium chosen to deliver the encoded message.

3

Analyze the action of interpreting the simplified instructions.

Identified as Decoding.

The receiver is processing and understanding the encoded message to extract its meaning.

4

Analyze the action of submitting a digital confirmation receipt.

Identified as Feedback Loop.

This completes the communication cycle by informing the sender that the message was received.

Key Concept

Process and Elements of Communication

Question 62Question →

Match each administrative stakeholder conflict scenario in List I with its most appropriate conflict resolution strategy in List II.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

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Answer

Each stakeholder conflict scenario is matched with a resolution strategy that applies proportional administrative intervention, balancing public welfare, institutional coordination, and regulatory compliance.

The correct matches align each specific administrative challenge with a balanced negotiation strategy. Commercial traffic issues require developer accountability and traffic management; inter-agency budget disputes require senior administrative arbitration; vendor congestion demands time-shared spatial regulation; and environmental compliance requires structured, independently audited timelines.

Step-by-Step Solution

1

Analyze the core constraint in each scenario of List I.

Identified traffic impact, inter-departmental budget friction, urban spatial limitations, and regulatory compliance deadlines.

Resolving stakeholder disputes requires pinpointing the underlying operational or administrative root cause.

2

Pair each scenario with the corresponding intervention from List II that offers a balanced solution.

Matched traffic issues to developer parking solutions, agency disputes to administrative arbitration, space limits to time-sharing, and environmental concerns to audited compliance plans.

Effective administration relies on tailored, non-extreme, and sustainable negotiation mechanisms.

Key Concept

Proportional Stakeholder Negotiation and Administrative Conflict Resolution

Question 63Question →

Match each multi-step movement sequence described in List-I with its corresponding net displacement (distance and direction) relative to the initial starting point in List-II.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

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Answer

The item describing a walk of

12\text{ m}

North,

9\text{ m}

right (East), and

12\text{ m}

right (South) matches

9\text{ m}

East; the item describing

5\text{ m}

East,

12\text{ m}

left (North), and

5\text{ m}

left (West) matches

12\text{ m}

North; the item describing

15\text{ m}

South,

8\text{ m}

left (East), and

15\text{ m}

left (North) matches

8\text{ m}

East; and the item describing

10\text{ m}

West,

24\text{ m}

left (South), and

10\text{ m}

left (East) matches

24\text{ m}

South.

Each scenario represents a three-leg trajectory where the first leg and the third leg are of equal magnitude but opposite directions, completely canceling each other out. Thus, the net displacement vector is equal in magnitude and direction to the second leg of the journey.

Step-by-Step Solution

1

Analyze Path 1: Initial position

(0,0)

.

Move North by

12\text{ m} \rightarrow (0,12)

. Turn right (facing East) and move

9\text{ m} \rightarrow (9,12)

. Turn right (facing South) and move

12\text{ m} \rightarrow (9,0)

. Net vector is

(9,0)

, which is

9\text{ m}

East.

Sequential turns of

90^\circ

clockwise from North lead to East and then South.

2

Analyze Path 2: Initial position

(0,0)

.

Move East by

5\text{ m} \rightarrow (5,0)

. Turn left (facing North) and move

12\text{ m} \rightarrow (5,12)

. Turn left (facing West) and move

5\text{ m} \rightarrow (0,12)

. Net vector is

(0,12)

, which is

12\text{ m}

North.

Sequential turns of

90^\circ

counter-clockwise from East lead to North and then West.

3

Analyze Path 3: Initial position

(0,0)

.

Move South by

15\text{ m} \rightarrow (0,-15)

. Turn left (facing East) and move

8\text{ m} \rightarrow (8,-15)

. Turn left (facing North) and move

15\text{ m} \rightarrow (8,0)

. Net vector is

(8,0)

, which is

8\text{ m}

East.

Sequential left turns while facing South lead to East, then North.

4

Analyze Path 4: Initial position

(0,0)

.

Move West by

10\text{ m} \rightarrow (-10,0)

. Turn left (facing South) and move

24\text{ m} \rightarrow (-10,-24)

. Turn left (facing East) and move

10\text{ m} \rightarrow (0,-24)

. Net vector is

(0,-24)

, which is

24\text{ m}

South.

Sequential left turns while facing West lead to South, then East.

Key Concept

Orthogonal Vector Addition and Cancelation in Two Dimensions

Estimated Time:1m 30s

Question 64Question →

Match the State Government Welfare Schemes in List-I with their corresponding Primary Objectives in List-II to determine the correct association:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

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Answer

Mukhya Mantri Kanya Sumangala Yojana correctly matches with conditional financial support across educational milestones for the girl child; Indira Gandhi Shehri Rozgar Guarantee Yojana matches with urban wage employment guarantee of 100 days annually; YSR Cheyutha Scheme matches with livelihood financial aid for marginalized women aged 45 to 60 years; and MEDISEP Scheme matches with comprehensive cashless health insurance for state employees and pensioners.

Each state welfare scheme correctly pairs with its official policy mandate: Mukhya Mantri Kanya Sumangala Yojana (Uttar Pradesh) provides milestone-linked financial assistance for girl children; Indira Gandhi Shehri Rozgar Guarantee Yojana (Rajasthan) guarantees 100 days of wage employment in urban areas; YSR Cheyutha Scheme (Andhra Pradesh) delivers livelihood financial support to marginalized women in the 45-60 age bracket; and MEDISEP (Kerala) provides cashless health insurance coverage to government employees and pensioners.

Step-by-Step Solution

1

Identify the mandate of Mukhya Mantri Kanya Sumangala Yojana

Matches with conditional financial support across educational milestones for the welfare and health of the girl child

This flagship initiative of Uttar Pradesh delivers conditional financial grants across six life stages from birth to college entry to eliminate female feticide and encourage education.

2

Identify the mandate of Indira Gandhi Shehri Rozgar Guarantee Yojana

Matches with urban wage employment guarantee providing 100 days of work annually to urban households

Launched by Rajasthan, this policy secures livelihood support for urban dwellers by providing guaranteed manual work in urban municipal areas.

3

Identify the mandate of YSR Cheyutha Scheme

Matches with direct financial aid for sustainable livelihoods to women aged 45 to 60 years from marginalized communities

Introduced by Andhra Pradesh, the scheme provides financial assistance specifically to mature women from vulnerable communities to establish self-sustaining enterprises.

4

Identify the mandate of MEDISEP Scheme

Matches with comprehensive cashless medical health insurance coverage for state government employees and pensioners

Introduced by Kerala, MEDISEP offers risk coverage and tertiary healthcare cashless facilities explicitly to state government staff and pensioners.

Key Concept

Target beneficiaries, sectoral focus, and policy mandates of prominent state government welfare schemes

Estimated Time:1m 15s

Question 65Question →

Match each logical reasoning problem involving numerical analogy, alphabetical pattern analogy, or classification in List-I with its corresponding correct output or odd element in List-II.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

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Answer

Analogy 6 : 222 :: 9 : ? matches 738; Analogy 14 : 210 :: 18 : ? matches 342; Letter Analogy BJH : DJF :: FLD : ? matches HLB; Odd-One-Out Classification matches (19, 441).

Each item in List-I is evaluated using multi-step logical operations: (1)

6^3+6=222

leading to

9^3+9=738

; (2)

14^2+14=210

leading to

18^2+18=342

; (3) Alphabet positional shifts (+2, 0, -2) transforming FLD into HLB; (4) The classification rule

M=(n+1)^2

which fails only for the pair

(19, 441)

.

Step-by-Step Solution

1

Analyze the pattern for Analogy 6 : 222 :: 9 : ?

Identify the operation

n^3 + n

. Since

6^3 + 6 = 222

, apply

9^3 + 9 = 729 + 9 = 738

.

Establishes cubic function relationship between antecedent and consequent terms.

2

Analyze the pattern for Analogy 14 : 210 :: 18 : ?

Identify the operation

n^2 + n

. Since

14^2 + 14 = 210

, apply

18^2 + 18 = 324 + 18 = 342

.

Establishes quadratic non-linear relationship between terms.

3

Analyze the letter shift pattern for BJH : DJF :: FLD : ?

First letter shifts

+2

position forward, second letter shifts

0

positions, third letter shifts

-2

positions backward. Applying this to FLD yields H (F+2), L (L+0), B (D-2) = HLB.

Determines positional alphabet movement vector (+2, 0, -2).

4

Evaluate the rule across number pairs in the classification set.

Pairs

(11, 144)

,

(13, 196)

, and

(17, 324)

follow

M = (n+1)^2

. The pair

(19, 441)

breaks this rule because

(19+1)^2 = 400

, not

441

.

Identifies the element that does not satisfy the common governing rule.

Key Concept

Multi-operational Number Analogy, Positional Alphabet Shift, and Rule-based Number Classification

Question 66Question →

The following criteria are established for the recruitment of a Senior Administrative Officer in a State Public Corporation as of August 1, 2026:

1. The candidate must hold a Master's degree in Public Administration or Management with a minimum of 60% marks.
2. The candidate must be between 30 and 45 years of age as of August 1, 2026.
3. The candidate must have at least 7 years of administrative experience in a Government department or Public Sector Undertaking (PSU).
4. The candidate must have achieved a minimum score of 75% in the written leadership assessment.

However, the following relaxation and exception clauses apply:
- Clause (a): If a candidate satisfies all conditions except (1), but holds a Doctorate (Ph.D.) in Governance with at least 5 years of administrative experience, the case is to be referred to the Managing Director.
- Clause (b): If a candidate satisfies all conditions except (2), but is an Ex-serviceman eligible for up to 5 years of age relaxation, the case is to be referred to the Executive Committee.
- Clause (c): If a candidate satisfies all conditions except (3), but has served as a Deputy Director in a State Secretariat for at least 4 years, the case is to be referred to the Recruitment Board Chairman.
- Clause (d): If a candidate satisfies all conditions except (4), but scored at least 70% in the leadership assessment and holds a State Government Outstanding Performance Award, the candidate is to be provisionally shortlisted subject to Board approval.

Match each candidate profile (Left Items) with the correct administrative decision outcome (Right Items) based strictly on the criteria and exception clauses above.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Candidate P matches with 'Provisionally shortlisted subject to Board approval', Candidate Q matches with 'Referred to the Managing Director', Candidate R matches with 'Referred to the Executive Committee', and Candidate S matches with 'Referred to the Recruitment Board Chairman'.

Each candidate's profile matches precisely one specific exception clause due to failing exactly one primary criterion while satisfying the explicit condition outlined in that clause.

Step-by-Step Solution

1

Evaluate Candidate P against primary rules and exception clauses.

Age as of Aug 1, 2026 is 34 years (valid: 30–45). Master's degree score is 62% (valid: >= 60%). PSU experience is 8 years (valid: >= 7). Leadership score is 72% (fails primary rule 4 of >= 75%). Check Clause (d): score is >= 70% and holds an Outstanding Performance Award. Clause (d) applies.

When a candidate fails a primary condition, exception clauses must be evaluated systematically to determine the correct administrative path.

2

Evaluate Candidate Q against primary rules and exception clauses.

Age is 38 years (valid). Leadership score is 80% (valid). Candidate does not hold a Master's degree (fails primary rule 1). Check Clause (a): holds a Ph.D. in Governance and has 6 years experience (>= 5 years required). Clause (a) applies.

Alternative academic qualifications coupled with specific minimum experience trigger referral to the Managing Director under Clause (a).

3

Evaluate Candidate R against primary rules and exception clauses.

Age is 48 years (fails primary rule 2 of <= 45). Check Clause (b): Candidate is an Ex-serviceman, granting up to 5 years relaxation (48 - 5 = 43, which falls within the eligible range). All other primary criteria are satisfied (Master's 68%, 10 years experience, 78% leadership score). Clause (b) applies.

Ex-servicemen status provides age relaxation referral to the Executive Committee.

4

Evaluate Candidate S against primary rules and exception clauses.

Age is 36 years (valid). Master's score is 65% (valid). Leadership score is 82% (valid). General PSU experience is 4 years (fails primary rule 3 of >= 7 years). Check Clause (c): served 4 years as Deputy Director in State Secretariat. Clause (c) applies.

Specific administrative role experience in the Secretariat overrides general PSU length requirements via referral to the Board Chairman.

Key Concept

Analytical Decision Making and Criteria Selection

Question 67Question →

Four election observers—Varun, Tarun, Samir, and Reena—are assigned to monitor four distinct districts: District W, District X, District Y, and District Z, such that each observer is assigned to exactly one district.
- Varun is assigned to District Z.
- Samir is assigned to District W.
- Tarun is not assigned to District W or District X.

Match each election observer in List I with their corresponding assigned district in List II.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Varun matches with District Z, Tarun matches with District Y, Samir matches with District W, and Reena matches with District X.

Direct clues establish that Varun monitors District Z and Samir monitors District W. By elimination, Tarun cannot monitor District W, District X, or District Z (which is taken by Varun), leaving District Y for Tarun. Finally, Reena takes the only remaining district, District X.

Step-by-Step Solution

1

Identify direct assignments from the given clues.

Varun is assigned to District Z, and Samir is assigned to District W.

These conditions are explicitly stated in the problem statement.

2

Determine Tarun's district using process of elimination.

Tarun is assigned to District Y.

Districts Z and W are taken by Varun and Samir respectively. Since Tarun cannot be assigned to District W or District X, the only available option for Tarun is District Y.

3

Assign the remaining observer to the remaining district.

Reena is assigned to District X.

With Districts W, Y, and Z occupied, District X is the only remaining option for Reena.

Key Concept

Analytical Grouping and Elimination

Question 68Question →

Match each coded string in List-I with its corresponding original word and transformation logic in List-II.

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Answer

RVPERN pairs with PENCIL (Consonants +2; Vowels reversed); TDIWHM pairs with GARDEN (Consonants reversed; Vowels +3); GJPUFP pairs with FLOWER (Odd positions +1; Even positions -2); BMQSDM pairs with PLANET (Halves reversed; 1st half +1, 2nd half -1).

Each coded string strictly adheres to a unique multi-step rule: RVPERN uses consonant +2 shift and vowel reverse position; TDIWHM uses consonant reverse position and vowel +3 shift; GJPUFP uses alternating odd (+1) and even (-2) positional shifts; BMQSDM uses half-word reversal combined with +1 and -1 shifts respectively.

Step-by-Step Solution

1

Analyze RVPERN using vowel and consonant operations.

Checking PENCIL: Consonants P(+2)=R, N(+2)=P, C(+2)=E, L(+2)=N; Vowels E->V (27-5=22) and I->R (27-9=18). This forms RVPERN.

Identify pattern separating vowel and consonant rules.

2

Analyze TDIWHM using opposite letters for consonants.

Checking GARDEN: Consonants G->T, R->I, D->W, N->M; Vowels A(+3)=D, E(+3)=H. This forms TDIWHM.

Verify dual-rule application based on letter type.

3

Analyze GJPUFP using positional indexing.

Checking FLOWER: Odd positions (1,3,5) F->G, O->P, E->F (+1 shift); Even positions (2,4,6) L->J, W->U, R->P (-2 shift). This forms GJPUFP.

Verify alternating positional shift pattern.

4

Analyze BMQSDM using block reversal and directional shifts.

Checking PLANET: First half 'PLA' reversed is 'ALP', shifted +1 gives 'BMQ'. Second half 'NET' reversed is 'TEN', shifted -1 gives 'SDM'. Combining gives BMQSDM.

Verify half-word reversal and split directional shifts.

Key Concept

Complex Multi-Rule Coding and Decoding (Vowel/Consonant Dual Rules, Positional Shifts, Half-Reversals)

Question 69Question →

Read the following information regarding a seven-member family— $P, Q, R, S, T, U,$ and $V$ —spread across three generations with two married couples:

1. $Q$ is the mother-in-law of $P$ , and $P$ is married to $R$ 's only sibling.
2. $T$ is married to $Q$ and has only two children, $S$ and $R$ .
3. $R$ is an unmarried female and is the paternal aunt of $V$ .
4. $U$ is the daughter of $P$ , and $V$ is the brother of $U$ .

Based on the family tree deduced from the statements above, match each person in Column I with their precise relationship to $V$ in Column II.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Person

P

matches with Mother; Person

Q

matches with Paternal Grandmother; Person

R

matches with Paternal Aunt; Person

T

matches with Paternal Grandfather.

Deductively analyzing the three generations shows that

T

(male) and

Q

(female) are the grandparents in Generation 1. Their children are

S

(male) and

R

(female). Because

R

is the paternal aunt of

V

,

S

is the father of

V

, and

P

(wife of

S

) is the mother of

V

. Therefore,

P

is the Mother,

Q

is the Paternal Grandmother,

R

is the Paternal Aunt, and

T

is the Paternal Grandfather.

Step-by-Step Solution

1

Determine Generation 1 members and couple relationships

Generation 1 consists of couple (

T, Q

) with children

S

and

R

in Generation 2.

From Statement 2,

T

is married to

Q

and they have two children,

S

and

R

. This places

T

and

Q

in Generation 1.

2

Deduce

P

's spouse and Generation 2 structure

P

is married to

S

.

Statement 1 states

Q

is the mother-in-law of

P

, and

P

is married to

R

's only sibling. Since

T

and

Q

's children are

S

and

R

,

R

's only sibling is

S

.

3

Determine genders of

S

and

P

using paternal relationships

S

is the father of

V

, and

P

is the mother of

V

. Since

Q

is mother-in-law to

P

,

Q

is female and

T

is male.

Statement 3 states

R

is the paternal aunt of

V

. A paternal aunt is the sister of one's father. Thus,

V

's father must be

R

's brother,

S

. Since

S

is male (father),

P

must be female (mother).

4

Map relations to

V

for each person

P

-> Mother;

Q

-> Paternal Grandmother;

R

-> Paternal Aunt;

T

-> Paternal Grandfather.

S

is

V

's father.

P

is

V

's mother.

R

is

V

's father's sister (paternal aunt).

Q

is

V

's father's mother (paternal grandmother).

T

is

V

's father's father (paternal grandfather).

Key Concept

Multi-generational Family Tree Puzzle and Relational Deduction

Question 70Question →

Match List-I (Environmental Legislations in India) with List-II (Key Statutory Mandates / Provisions) and identify the correct matching pairs:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

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Answer

Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 matches with the Statutory establishment of NBWL chaired by the PM; Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 matches with the Power to issue notifications declaring Eco-Sensitive Zones; Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980 matches with Mandatory prior approval of the Central Government for non-forest use of forest land; and Biological Diversity Act, 2002 matches with the Establishment of local-level Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs).

The correct pairings accurately align each major environmental law with its specific statutory mandate: the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 establishes the NBWL headed by the Prime Minister; the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 provides the legal basis to notify Eco-Sensitive Zones around protected areas; the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980 mandates central government approval for diversion of forest land; and the Biological Diversity Act, 2002 provides for local-level Biodiversity Management Committees.

Step-by-Step Solution

1

Analyze the statutory body associated with the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.

The Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 provides the statutory framework for the National Board for Wild Life (NBWL), which is headed by the Prime Minister of India.

NBWL was formally constituted under Section 5A inserted into the 1972 Act.

2

Determine the statutory backing for declaring Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESZs).

Eco-Sensitive Zones are notified under Section 3(2)(v) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.

The term 'Eco-Sensitive Zone' is not explicitly mentioned in the Wild Life Act, but regulation of activities around sanctuaries is executed via the delegated powers of EPA 1986.

3

Identify the core mandate of the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980.

The 1980 Act restricts state governments from diverting forest land for non-forest purposes without prior sanction of the Central Government.

This central control was enacted to check rapid deforestation across states.

4

Match the institutional framework of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002.

The 2002 Act creates a decentralised structure culminating in Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs) at local governance levels.

BMCs prepare People's Biodiversity Registers (PBRs) and ensure fair access and benefit sharing.

Key Concept

Key Statutory Frameworks and Authorities under Indian Environmental Acts

Question 71Question →

Match each complex administrative dilemma (Column I) with the most appropriate governing administrative ethical principle or statutory duty (Column II) that guides its resolution.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct matches are: (1) The demolition dilemma involving collateral risk to informal settlements matches the Principle of Proportionality and Administrative Precautionary Duty; (2) The biometric verification failure denying rations to elderly citizens matches the Doctrine of Substantive Equality and Compassionate Administrative Discretion; (3) The religious procession communal tension matches the Doctrine of Graduated Conflict De-escalation and Preventive Public Order Maintenance; and (4) The fraud allegations against a direct superior officer match the Principle of Institutional Integrity and Protected Hierarchical Escalation.

Each administrative dilemma represents a classic conflict between rule compliance, public interest, and ethical duty. Matching requires aligning each specific contextual challenge with the core constitutional and administrative principle that provides a balanced, proportionate, and ethical resolution.

Step-by-Step Solution

1

Analyze the dilemma involving illegal construction enforcement and structural danger to slum dwellers.

Identify that strict rule enforcement must be balanced against public safety, invoking proportionality and precautionary duties to prevent collateral harm.

Administrative action must be proportional to the goal and avoid unnecessary hardship or physical hazard to innocent bystanders.

2

Analyze the dilemma of biometric failure causing denial of welfare food rations to vulnerable citizens.

Recognize that procedural strictness should yield to substantive equity and compassionate discretionary exception mechanisms.

Administrative rules are instruments for public service delivery; procedural rigidity must not override fundamental rights to life and sustenance.

3

Analyze the dilemma of handling potential communal conflict during a procession without resorting to extreme blanket actions.

Apply graduated de-escalation strategies combining dialogue, security deployment, and regulated conditional permissions.

Public administration requires balanced law enforcement that minimizes public unrest while maintaining state authority.

4

Analyze the dilemma of uncovering fraud implicating a direct reporting superior officer.

Connect this to institutional integrity and protected hierarchical escalation mechanisms (whistleblowing to higher independent oversight bodies).

Personal loyalty or immediate hierarchy cannot supersede duty to the institution and public ethics.

Key Concept

Situational Ethics and Administrative Dilemmas

Estimated Time:3m 0s

Question 72Question →

Four senior state officers—Aditi, Bhaskar, Chander, and Deepa—are allocated to head four distinct state departments: Urban Infrastructure, Rural Water Supply, Disaster Mitigation, and Public Health Security. The allocation adheres strictly to the following conditions:

1. Neither Aditi nor Bhaskar is allocated to Public Health Security or Rural Water Supply.
2. The officer assigned to Disaster Mitigation has more years of administrative service than Chander, but fewer than the officer assigned to Urban Infrastructure.
3. Deepa is assigned to Rural Water Supply.
4. Bhaskar is not assigned to Urban Infrastructure.

Based on the analytical puzzle conditions, match each officer on the left with their correct department allocation on the right.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Officer Aditi is allocated to Urban Infrastructure; Officer Bhaskar is allocated to Disaster Mitigation; Officer Chander is allocated to Public Health Security; Officer Deepa is allocated to Rural Water Supply.

Using process of elimination: Deepa is directly assigned to Rural Water Supply. Condition 1 prevents both Aditi and Bhaskar from heading Public Health Security, making Chander the only available candidate for Public Health Security. Between Aditi and Bhaskar for the remaining portfolios (Urban Infrastructure and Disaster Mitigation), Condition 4 prohibits Bhaskar from Urban Infrastructure, assigning Bhaskar to Disaster Mitigation and Aditi to Urban Infrastructure.

Step-by-Step Solution

1

Identify direct assignment given in the clues.

Deepa is allocated to Rural Water Supply (Condition 3).

Direct clue eliminates Deepa and Rural Water Supply from further variable consideration.

2

Analyze negative constraints for Public Health Security.

Chander is allocated to Public Health Security.

Condition 1 specifies that neither Aditi nor Bhaskar can be assigned to Public Health Security or Rural Water Supply. Since Deepa has Rural Water Supply, Chander is the only remaining officer eligible for Public Health Security.

3

Deduce allocations for remaining officers (Aditi and Bhaskar) and departments (Urban Infrastructure and Disaster Mitigation).

Bhaskar is allocated to Disaster Mitigation, and Aditi is allocated to Urban Infrastructure.

Condition 4 states Bhaskar cannot be assigned to Urban Infrastructure, leaving Bhaskar with Disaster Mitigation. Consequently, Aditi must take Urban Infrastructure.

4

Verify consistency against Condition 2.

Seniority order: Chander < Bhaskar < Aditi.

Disaster Mitigation (Bhaskar) has more experience than Chander and less than Urban Infrastructure (Aditi), which completely satisfies all puzzle constraints.

Key Concept

Elimination-based multi-attribute logic matching using direct and conditional negative clues.

Question 73Question →

Based on the family relations given below, match each person listed in List I with their correct relationship to R listed in List II:

• P is the father of Q.
• Q is the mother of R.
• S (female) is the sister of R.
• T (male) is married to S.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Person P matches with Maternal grandfather of R; Person Q matches with Mother of R; Person S matches with Sister of R; Person T matches with Brother-in-law of R.

Matching each individual step-by-step from the given narrative confirms: Person P is the father of R's mother (Maternal grandfather), Person Q is R's mother, Person S is R's female sibling (Sister), and Person T is the husband of R's sister (Brother-in-law).

Step-by-Step Solution

1

Identify the relation of Q to R

Q is the mother of R.

The premise explicitly states that Q is the mother of R.

2

Identify the relation of P to R

P is the maternal grandfather of R.

P is the father of Q (R's mother). The father of one's mother is the maternal grandfather.

3

Identify the relation of S to R

S is the sister of R.

The premise explicitly specifies that S (female) is the sister of R.

4

Identify the relation of T to R

T is the brother-in-law of R.

T (male) is married to S (R's sister). A sister's husband is a brother-in-law.

Key Concept

Direct Kinship and Extended Blood Relations

Question 74Question →

Match each original word in List-I with its correctly coded representation in List-II based on its specific alphabetical coding rule.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Show answer & explanation

Answer

'MINT' matches with 'NJOU' (+1 shift), 'COLD' matches with 'BNKC' (-1 shift), 'HIGH' matches with 'STRS' (reverse alphabetical pair), and 'PARK' matches with 'KRAP' (letter reversal).

Each word aligns with its precise logical transformation: 'MINT' undergoes a

+1

position shift to become 'NJOU', 'COLD' undergoes a

-1

position shift to become 'BNKC', 'HIGH' uses reverse alphabetical pairing to become 'STRS', and 'PARK' reverses its letter order to become 'KRAP'.

Step-by-Step Solution

1

Determine the coding logic for 'MINT'

Shifting each letter forward by 1 position yields M+1=N, I+1=J, N+1=O, T+1=U, forming 'NJOU'.

Identify the forward position shift rule.

2

Determine the coding logic for 'COLD'

Shifting each letter backward by 1 position yields C-1=B, O-1=N, L-1=K, D-1=C, forming 'BNKC'.

Identify the backward position shift rule.

3

Determine the coding logic for 'HIGH'

Replacing each letter with its opposite position in the alphabet (

A \leftrightarrow Z, H \leftrightarrow S, I \leftrightarrow R, G \leftrightarrow T

) forms 'STRS'.

Identify reverse alphabetical indexing rule.

4

Determine the coding logic for 'PARK'

Reversing the left-to-right letter sequence of 'PARK' forms 'KRAP'.

Identify string reversal logic.

Key Concept

Basic letter shift rules, reverse alphabetical pairs, and string reversal in Coding-Decoding.

Question 75Question →

Four state government panel chairs—Karan, Meera, Nikhil, and Pooja—are assigned to lead four distinct state development projects: Smart City, Green Energy, Rural Housing, and Digital Literacy, such that each chairperson leads exactly one project.

The assignments follow these conditions:
1. Meera is assigned to neither Smart City nor Digital Literacy.
2. The chairperson assigned to Rural Housing is neither Karan nor Nikhil.
3. Nikhil is assigned to Green Energy.
4. Karan is assigned to Digital Literacy.

Based on the information above, match each chairperson with their correctly assigned state development project.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

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Answer

Karan matches with Digital Literacy, Meera matches with Rural Housing, Nikhil matches with Green Energy, and Pooja matches with Smart City.

By systematically eliminating impossible project assignments using the negative constraints alongside direct statements, Karan is matched to Digital Literacy, Nikhil to Green Energy, Meera to Rural Housing, and Pooja to Smart City.

Step-by-Step Solution

1

Identify direct assignments from the given conditions.

Karan is assigned to Digital Literacy (Condition 4), and Nikhil is assigned to Green Energy (Condition 3).

Direct statements provide immediate fixed points in the matching grid.

2

Determine Meera's assignment by evaluating remaining options.

Meera is assigned to Rural Housing.

Meera cannot lead Smart City or Digital Literacy (Condition 1), and Green Energy is taken by Nikhil. Thus, Rural Housing is her only viable assignment.

3

Assign the remaining chairperson to the last remaining project.

Pooja is assigned to Smart City.

Smart City is the only project left unassigned after fulfilling all constraints.

Key Concept

Analytical Puzzles and Grouping

Question 76Question →

In public administration, civil servants must apply appropriate conflict resolution and negotiation strategies depending on stakeholder dynamics. Match each conflict resolution strategy in List I with its corresponding administrative implementation scenario in List II.

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Answer

Integrative Interest-Based Negotiation pairs with formulating a joint framework balancing industrial expansion and green belt preservation. Unilateral Executive Mandate pairs with enforcing an immediate non-consultative eviction order. Passive Avoidance and Deferral pairs with repeatedly postponing statutory public consultations. Mechanical Positional Compromise pairs with dividing water allocation strictly fifty-fifty regardless of crop needs.

Each conflict resolution model corresponds directly to its administrative practice: Integrative Negotiation creates multi-benefit frameworks; Unilateral Mandate uses forced compliance; Avoidance relies on procrastination; and Positional Compromise splits demands arbitrarily without functional analysis.

Step-by-Step Solution

1

Analyze Integrative Interest-Based Negotiation

Identify the scenario that harmonizes multiple conflicting priorities (industry, environment, livelihoods) into a mutually beneficial strategy.

Integrative negotiation seeks synergistic solutions that satisfy the core interests of all primary stakeholders.

2

Evaluate Unilateral Executive Mandate

Identify the scenario involving abrupt, top-down enforcement overriding procedural fairness and consultation.

Coercive administrative actions represent extreme authority rather than collaborative conflict management.

3

Differentiate Passive Avoidance from Mechanical Positional Compromise

Associate bureaucratic delay of hearings with avoidance, and arbitrary mathematical division of resources with mechanical compromise.

Avoidance delays decision-making to evade tension, while positional compromise splits differences superficially without technical evaluation.

Key Concept

Stakeholder Conflict Resolution and Negotiation Strategy in Public Administration

Estimated Time:2m 0s

Question 77Question →

Match the specific local physical relief features of the state geography in List-I with their corresponding physiographic locations or district regions in List-II.

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Answer

Bhakar matches with Sirohi District; Chappan Hills matches with Barmer-Jalore Region; Desuri Pass matches with Pali-Rajsamand Border; Dang Landform matches with Karauli and Dholpur Region.

Each local relief feature is correctly mapped to its precise administrative and physiographic region based on physical geography: Bhakar belongs to Sirohi, Chappan Hills to the Siwana granitic complex of Barmer-Jalore, Desuri Pass to the Pali-Rajsamand border pass, and Dang Landform to the Chambal badland belt in Karauli-Dholpur.

Step-by-Step Solution

1

Identify the geographical definition and location of Bhakar.

Bhakar represents steep, narrow, knife-edge ridges found specifically on the western slopes of Aravallis in Sirohi district.

This establishes the first landform-to-district pair.

2

Identify the geological formation and region of Chappan Hills.

Chappan Hills are residual granitic domes located around Siwana in the Barmer-Jalore belt.

This distinguishes Chappan Hills from the Chappan Plain (Mahi basin).

3

Locate the mountain gap known as Desuri Pass.

Desuri Pass traverses the Central Aravalli ridge between Pali and Rajsamand.

Passes are key physical features facilitating inter-regional travel across relief barriers.

4

Determine the physiographic belt corresponding to Dang ravine landform.

Dang topography is formed by Chambal river erosion in the eastern district belt of Karauli and Dholpur.

Ravines are characteristic fluvial erosional features of the Chambal basin.

Key Concept

Micro-physiographic landforms, mountain relief features, and regional landform nomenclature of State Geography.

Question 78Question →

Match the following statutory environmental institutions in India listed in Column I with their corresponding founding Acts listed in Column II:

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Answer

Central Pollution Control Board matches with Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974; National Biodiversity Authority matches with Biological Diversity Act, 2002; Animal Welfare Board of India matches with Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960.

Each institution in Column I corresponds directly to its statutory enabling legislation in Column II: CPCB was established under the Water Act of 1974, NBA under the Biological Diversity Act of 2002, and AWBI under the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act of 1960.

Step-by-Step Solution

1

Identify the legislative origin of the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB).

CPCB was established under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.

It was created to prevent, abate, and control water pollution.

2

Identify the legislative origin of the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA).

NBA was set up under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002.

It regulates access to biological resources and associated traditional knowledge.

3

Identify the legislative origin of the Animal Welfare Board of India (AWBI).

AWBI was set up under the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960.

It provides advice on animal welfare laws and prevents unnecessary pain or suffering to animals.

Key Concept

Statutory environmental institutions in India and their parent Acts

Question 79Question →

Review the administrative scenarios below and pair each with the specific interpersonal negotiation or conflict management strategy it best demonstrates.

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Answer

Integrative Negotiation pairs with the land lease scenario; Distributive Bargaining pairs with the license fee haggling; Accommodation Strategy pairs with yielding to polling staff demands; Avoidance Strategy pairs with delaying the turf war intervention.

Each administrative scenario perfectly illustrates a foundational concept in group dynamics. The land lease expands value (Integrative). The license fee negotiation divides a fixed budget (Distributive). Conceding on catering prioritizes harmony over the specific issue (Accommodation). Postponing the turf war intervention recognizes that immediate engagement would disrupt higher priorities (Avoidance).

Step-by-Step Solution

1

Analyze the land lease scenario to determine its core dynamic.

Both parties gain mutual benefits not initially present (land for the firm, power for the villagers), which defines Integrative Negotiation.

Identifying value creation separates integrative from distributive methods.

2

Evaluate the software vendor negotiation scenario.

It involves a fixed budget where savings equal vendor losses, cleanly matching Distributive Bargaining.

Zero-sum resource distribution is the hallmark of distributive negotiation.

3

Assess the election officer's response to the polling staff.

The officer sacrifices a minor preference to maintain harmony, correctly identifying the Accommodation Strategy.

Yielding on a low-stakes issue to preserve a critical relationship characterizes accommodation.

4

Examine the Joint Secretary's action regarding the turf war.

The official chooses not to engage with the conflict at this moment, fitting the Avoidance Strategy.

Postponing or ignoring a dispute when timing is inappropriate is a classic avoidance tactic.

Key Concept

Strategic application of conflict resolution modes (Thomas-Kilmann model) and negotiation types in public administration.

Estimated Time:1m 30s

Question 80Question →

Four team leaders—Leo, Maya, Noah, and Olivia—are seated around a square table, with one person on each side, facing the center.
- Leo sits immediately to the right of Maya.
- Noah sits exactly opposite Maya.
- Olivia occupies the remaining seat.

Match each team leader with their correct seating position.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Leo matches 'Sits immediately to the right of Maya', Maya matches 'Sits opposite to Noah', Noah matches 'Sits immediately to the left of Olivia', and Olivia matches 'Sits opposite to Leo'.

Based on a step-by-step layout of the square table, establishing Maya's and Noah's fixed opposite positions allows for the definitive placement of Leo and Olivia. Checking the left and right perspectives for each seat validates every matching pair.

Step-by-Step Solution

1

Place Maya and Noah at the table.

Assume Maya sits at the bottom seat (South) facing North. Since Noah is exactly opposite Maya, Noah sits at the top seat (North) facing South.

Starting with an opposite pair provides a solid geometric anchor for the rest of the arrangement.

2

Place Leo based on his position relative to Maya.

Maya is at the South seat facing North. Her immediate right is the East seat. Therefore, Leo is placed at the East seat facing West.

This is a direct application of the directional clue provided in the text.

3

Place Olivia in the remaining seat.

The only empty seat is the West seat, which is exactly opposite Leo. Olivia takes this seat.

By elimination, Olivia must occupy the last available position at the table.

4

Determine the relative directions to finalize the matching pairs.

Olivia (West) faces East towards the center. Her immediate left is the North seat, where Noah is seated. Thus, Noah sits to the immediate left of Olivia.

To complete the logic, we must deduce the correct perspective of left and right from Olivia's position.

Key Concept

Polygonal and Circular Seating Arrangements

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