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Current Affairs and General Awareness

369 questions

All types369Multiple choice188Multiple select62Matching81Ordering38
Question 201Question →

Which of the following correct matches link each environmental report in List-I with its issuing organization in List-II?

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Global Environment Outlook (GEO)
Living Planet Report
State of the World's Forests (SOFO)

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Global Environment Outlook (GEO) matches with United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP); Living Planet Report matches with World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF); State of the World's Forests (SOFO) matches with Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO).
The Global Environment Outlook is published by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). The Living Planet Report is released by the World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF). The State of the World's Forests report is published by the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the organization responsible for publishing the Global Environment Outlook.
The Global Environment Outlook is published by UNEP.
UNEP is mandated to monitor and report on the state of the global environment.
2
Identify the organization responsible for publishing the Living Planet Report.
The Living Planet Report is published by WWF.
WWF produces this flagship publication along with the Zoological Society of London to measure biodiversity loss.
3
Identify the organization responsible for publishing the State of the World's Forests.
The State of the World's Forests is published by FAO.
FAO monitors global forest resources and agricultural land developments.

Key Concept

International Environmental Reports and Publishing Organizations
Question 202Question →

Consider the following statements regarding Exercise 'CYCLONE':

1. It is a bilateral military exercise conducted between the Special Forces of the Indian Army and the Egyptian Army.
2. The inaugural edition of this exercise was hosted by India in Jaisalmer, Rajasthan.
3. It is primarily designed as an annual bilateral maritime operational exercise conducted in the Red Sea.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

1 and 2 only
The option stating '1 and 2 only' is correct. Exercise CYCLONE is a bilateral military engagement between the Army Special Forces of India and Egypt, with its inaugural edition held at Jaisalmer, Rajasthan in January 2023. It focuses on tactical ground operations, counter-terrorism, and desert warfare skills, making the claim that it is a Red Sea naval exercise incorrect.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding the nature and participating nations of Exercise CYCLONE.
Exercise CYCLONE is indeed the first bilateral exercise between the Special Forces of the Indian Army and the Egyptian Army.
It aims to bolster defense cooperation, interoperability, and tactical expertise between the special forces units of both nations.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding the inaugural venue of the exercise.
The maiden edition, 'Exercise Cyclone-I', was held at Jaisalmer in Rajasthan, India, in January 2023.
Subsequent editions, such as Cyclone-II in 2024, took place in Anshas, Egypt.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding the service branch and operational domain.
Statement 3 is incorrect because Exercise CYCLONE is a land-based Army Special Forces tactical exercise focusing on counter-terrorism, raiding, and desert warfare operations, not a naval exercise in the Red Sea.
Confusing land special forces exercises with maritime naval exercises is a common point of error in defense affairs.

Key Concept

Bilateral Joint Special Forces Exercise CYCLONE (India and Egypt)
Question 203Question →

Regarding the inflation dynamics, price indices, and institutional frameworks featured in recent Union Budgets and Economic Surveys, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Food and beverages carry a substantially higher weightage in the Consumer Price Index (CPI-Combined) than in the Wholesale Price Index (WPI).; The Consumer Price Index (CPI-Combined) is compiled and released on a monthly basis by the National Statistical Office (NSO), Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.

Answer

The statements confirming that food and beverages carry a higher weightage in CPI than in WPI, and that the NSO compiles and releases the Consumer Price Index monthly, are correct.
The correct statements correctly identify that food and beverages carry a much larger relative weight in consumer inflation metrics (CPI) than in wholesale inflation metrics (WPI), and accurately identify the National Statistical Office (NSO) under MOSPI as the official compiling authority for CPI-Combined.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the structural composition and item weightage differences between CPI-Combined and WPI.
Food items constitute approximately 45.86% of the CPI basket, whereas food articles constitute a significantly lower weight in WPI. Hence, the statement regarding weightage is correct.
Understanding basket composition is essential for evaluating headline vs core inflation trends.
2
Verify sector coverage and institutional releasing authorities for both inflation metrics.
WPI excludes services entirely and is released by the Office of Economic Adviser (DPIIT), while CPI includes services and is released by the NSO (MOSPI). Thus, the claim that WPI includes services is incorrect, while the NSO release authority statement is correct.
Distinguishing releasing agencies and coverage prevents conflating wholesale and retail price indices.
3
Examine the official base years designated for current macro-statistical series in India.
The active base year for WPI is 2011–12 and for CPI-Combined is 2012, making the assertion of a 2018–19 base year incorrect.
Accurate knowledge of macroeconomic base years is required for interpreting real growth and price deflators.

Key Concept

Price Indices Composition, Releasing Agencies, and Weightage Distribution in India
Question 204Question →

Which of the following sports personalities jointly received India's highest sports honor, the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award for the year 2023, along with Chirag Shetty?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Satwiksairaj Rankireddy

Answer

Satwiksairaj Rankireddy
The Indian men's doubles badminton pair of Satwiksairaj Rankireddy and Chirag Shetty achieved historic performances in 2023, leading to both being awarded India's highest sporting honor, the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the recipients of the 2023 National Sports Awards for Badminton.
The Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports announced the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award for 2023 to the star badminton men's doubles duo of Satwiksairaj Rankireddy and Chirag Shetty.
The pair achieved historic milestones including winning India's first badminton gold at the Asian Games and titles at the Asian Championships and Indonesia Open.

Key Concept

National Sports Awards 2023 - Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Awardees
Question 205Question →

With reference to the TRISHNA (Thermal InfraRed Imaging Satellite for High-resolution Natural Resource Assessment) mission featured in space technology developments, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: It is a joint collaborative Earth observation mission developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and the French National Centre for Space Studies (CNES).; Its primary payload capability includes high-resolution thermal infrared imaging to evaluate land surface temperature, evapotranspiration, and crop water stress.

Answer

The TRISHNA mission is a joint Earth-observation initiative co-developed by ISRO (India) and CNES (France), placed in Sun-Synchronous Low Earth Orbit to monitor land surface temperature, evapotranspiration, and water resources using high-resolution thermal infrared sensors.
The statements highlighting that TRISHNA is a joint ISRO-CNES Earth observation mission and that its primary payload capability measures land surface temperature, evapotranspiration, and water stress are accurate. Both ISRO and CNES jointly developed the instrument suite (TIR and VNIR/SWIR) to deliver actionable data on global hydrologic cycles and eco-climatic monitoring.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the organizational collaboration of the TRISHNA space mission.
TRISHNA is a bilateral joint initiative between India (ISRO) and France (CNES) focused on Earth observation.
Identifying the partnering agencies confirms the organizational framework of the mission.
2
Evaluate the orbital profile and primary operational domain of the satellite.
The satellite operates in a Sun-Synchronous Orbit (SSO) in Low Earth Orbit (LEO) for periodic land surface imaging, rather than Geostationary Orbit (GEO).
Thermal mapping of land surface dynamics requires consistent illumination geometry provided by Sun-Synchronous LEO.
3
Assess the scientific objectives and payload focus of TRISHNA.
The mission provides high-spatial and high-temporal resolution thermal infrared data for quantifying land surface temperature, evapotranspiration, and agricultural water usage.
Understanding the key scientific applications verifies the target parameters evaluated by the mission sensors.

Key Concept

TRISHNA Mission Objectives and ISRO-CNES International Collaboration
Question 206Question →

Which international organization periodically releases the flagship 'Emissions Gap Report', which tracks progress toward global greenhouse gas reduction targets and evaluates the difference between projected emissions and climate policy goals?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)

Answer

United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) is the official entity that publishes the annual 'Emissions Gap Report'. This report examines the difference between where greenhouse gas emissions are heading under current national commitments and where they need to be to achieve the temperature goals of the Paris Agreement.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the main report mentioned in the question
The report in focus is the 'Emissions Gap Report'.
Determining the title of the climate report allows identification of its issuing multilateral body.
2
Recall the publishing agency responsible for tracking global emission pledge gaps
The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) publishes this landmark report annually.
UNEP is tasked within the UN system to monitor climate mitigation pledges against Paris Agreement targets.

Key Concept

International Environmental Organizations and Flagship Conservation/Climate Reports
Question 207Question →

With reference to prominent international and national awards, honors, and notable persons in the news during 2024, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Indian filmmaker Payal Kapadia's feature film 'All We Imagine as Light' won the prestigious Grand Prix at the 77th Cannes Film Festival.; South Korean author Han Kang was awarded the 2024 Nobel Prize in Literature, becoming the first South Korean writer to win the honor.

Answer

The correct statements are the one describing Payal Kapadia's Grand Prix win at Cannes for 'All We Imagine as Light' and the one describing Han Kang receiving the 2024 Nobel Prize in Literature.
The statements highlighting Payal Kapadia winning the Grand Prix at the 77th Cannes Film Festival and Han Kang being awarded the 2024 Nobel Prize in Literature accurately state major international award decisions.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the statement concerning the 77th Cannes Film Festival
Payal Kapadia's 'All We Imagine as Light' indeed won the Grand Prix at Cannes in May 2024.
Verifying major international cultural recognitions for Indian cinema.
2
Evaluate the statement regarding Nihon Hidankyo
Nihon Hidankyo received the Nobel Peace Prize in 2024, not the Literature prize.
Checking the correct Nobel category for organizational recipients.
3
Evaluate the statement regarding Han Kang
Han Kang was conferred the 2024 Nobel Prize in Literature.
Verifying individual literary award recipients of international repute.
4
Evaluate the statement regarding the 59th Jnanpith Award
The award was shared jointly between Gulzar (Urdu) and Jagadguru Rambhadracharya (Sanskrit).
Checking national literary honors co-recipient details.

Key Concept

Major National and International Awards, Honors, and Persons in News
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 208Question →

Arrange the following host cities of the Summer Olympic Games in chronological order based on the year they hosted the games, from the earliest to the most recent. Which sequence represents the correct chronological order?

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct chronological sequence from earliest to most recent is Beijing (2008), London (2012), Rio de Janeiro (2016), and Paris (2024).
The correct sequence begins with Beijing, which hosted the Summer Olympics in 2008, followed by London in 2012, Rio de Janeiro in 2016, and Paris in 2024.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the year each city hosted the Summer Olympic Games
Beijing hosted in 2008, London in 2012, Rio de Janeiro in 2016, and Paris in 2024.
Establishing the exact calendar year of each tournament edition provides the basis for chronological sorting.
2
Sort the host cities chronologically from earliest to most recent
2008 (Beijing) → 2012 (London) → 2016 (Rio de Janeiro) → 2024 (Paris).
Ordering the years sequentially yields the target sequence.

Key Concept

Chronological history of major international multi-sport host venues
Question 209Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the Primary Deficit and Fiscal Deficit accounting concepts presented in Union Budget documents:

1. Primary Deficit measures the total borrowing requirements of the government inclusive of all past interest payment liabilities.
2. A zero Primary Deficit indicates that the government's borrowing is required strictly to meet past interest payment obligations.
3. Fiscal Deficit is defined as the excess of total government expenditure over revenue receipts only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 2 only

Answer

Only the second statement is correct, which states that a zero Primary Deficit means borrowing is needed solely to meet interest obligations.
The statement specifying that a zero Primary Deficit means borrowing is required strictly to cover interest payments is mathematically and conceptually accurate. Primary Deficit is defined as Fiscal Deficit−Interest Payments\text{Fiscal Deficit} - \text{Interest Payments}. Therefore, a value of zero implies that the government's fresh borrowing requirement matches its interest obligations exactly, indicating that current revenues cover all current non-interest expenditures.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding Primary Deficit composition
Statement 1 is incorrect because Primary Deficit is calculated as Primary Deficit=Fiscal Deficit−Interest Payments\text{Primary Deficit} = \text{Fiscal Deficit} - \text{Interest Payments}. It excludes past interest liabilities.
Primary Deficit isolates the current year's fiscal imbalance from past debt obligations.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding zero Primary Deficit condition
Statement 2 is correct because if Primary Deficit=0\text{Primary Deficit} = 0, then Fiscal Deficit=Interest Payments\text{Fiscal Deficit} = \text{Interest Payments}.
All borrowings raised during the fiscal year go entirely towards servicing interest on accumulated past loans.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding Fiscal Deficit definition
Statement 3 is incorrect because Fiscal Deficit=Total Expenditure−(Revenue Receipts+Non-debt Capital Receipts)\text{Fiscal Deficit} = \text{Total Expenditure} - (\text{Revenue Receipts} + \text{Non-debt Capital Receipts}).
Non-debt capital receipts (such as loan recoveries and disinvestment proceeds) are also subtracted from total expenditure along with revenue receipts.

Key Concept

Fiscal Deficit and Primary Deficit Relationships in Public Finance Accounting
Question 210Question →

Match the following Indian sports personalities who achieved historic milestones at the Paris 2024 Olympic and Paralympic Games with their respective events and achievements:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Swapnil Kusale
Aman Sehrawat
Harvinder Singh
Praveen Kumar

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct pairings are: Swapnil Kusale matches with Men's 50m Rifle 3 Positions; Aman Sehrawat matches with Men's Freestyle 57 kg Wrestling; Harvinder Singh matches with Men's Individual Open Recurve Archery; and Praveen Kumar matches with Men's High Jump T64.
Swapnil Kusale won bronze in Men's 50m Rifle 3 Positions at Paris 2024. Aman Sehrawat won bronze in Men's Freestyle 57 kg wrestling becoming India's youngest individual Olympic medalist. Harvinder Singh won India's first Paralympic gold in archery (Recurve). Praveen Kumar set an Asian record of 2.08m to win Gold in High Jump T64 at the Paralympics.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify Swapnil Kusale's event and historic accomplishment at Paris 2024.
Swapnil Kusale won bronze in Men's 50m Rifle 3 Positions, becoming the first Indian shooter to achieve an Olympic medal in this specific event.
This establishes the match for Swapnil Kusale.
2
Identify Aman Sehrawat's Olympic milestone.
Aman Sehrawat won bronze in Men's Freestyle 57 kg wrestling, making him India's youngest individual Olympic medalist at 21 years of age.
This establishes the match for Aman Sehrawat.
3
Identify Harvinder Singh's Paralympic achievement.
Harvinder Singh won gold in Men's Individual Open Recurve Archery, securing India's first-ever gold medal in archery at the Paralympics.
This establishes the match for Harvinder Singh.
4
Identify Praveen Kumar's Paralympic achievement.
Praveen Kumar won gold in Men's High Jump T64 with an Asian record height of 2.08 m.
This completes all matching pairs.

Key Concept

Major achievements and event categories of Indian athletes at the Paris 2024 Olympic and Paralympic Games
Question 211Question →

Regarding the 'Samudrayaan Mission' and the 'MATSYA 6000' submersible featured in indigenous science and technology developments, consider the following statements:

1. It is India's flagship manned deep-ocean exploration initiative implemented by the National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT) under the Ministry of Earth Sciences.
2. The main pressure hull of MATSYA 6000 is fabricated using high-strength titanium alloy designed to transport a crew of three to a depth of 6,000 meters.
3. The submersible is powered by a miniaturized onboard nuclear reactor that grants continuous operational endurance of up to 30 days under seabed conditions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 2 only are correct.
The option selecting statements 1 and 2 only is correct. India's Samudrayaan mission is being carried out by NIOT under the Ministry of Earth Sciences. Its primary vehicle, MATSYA 6000, features a 2.1-meter diameter titanium alloy personal sphere built to safely transport three researchers to 6,000 meters depth. The vehicle relies on battery power providing up to 12 hours of routine operating endurance, alongside 96 hours of emergency life support systems, making statement 3 false.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding institutional setup and objectives of the Samudrayaan Mission.
Statement 1 is CORRECT. Samudrayaan is a Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) initiative, with the National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT), Chennai, serving as the lead nodal laboratory designing the MATSYA 6000 submersible.
Verifying administrative and institutional stewardship of major national S&T initiatives.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding structural materials, crew capacity, and operational depth.
Statement 2 is CORRECT. The human cabin is an 80-mm thick titanium alloy sphere designed to withstand hydrostatic pressure of nearly 600 bar at a depth of 6,000 meters with a 3-member crew.
Confirming technical specs of deep-sea pressure hulls.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding power supply and operational endurance.
Statement 3 is INCORRECT. MATSYA 6000 runs on rechargeable lithium-ion battery packs providing 12 hours of normal operation and 96 hours of emergency endurance, not nuclear power.
Distinguishing battery-electric deep-sea submersibles from nuclear-powered submarines.

Key Concept

Samudrayaan Mission and MATSYA 6000 Submersible Technical Specifications
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 212Question →

Match the prominent persons and places featured in recent national and international news (List-I) with their corresponding achievements, designations, or developments (List-II), and select the correct matching pairs.

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Claudia Sheinbaum
Abhinav Bindra
Vadhhavan
Kozhikode

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Claudia Sheinbaum correctly matches with 'Sworn in as the first female President of Mexico'; Abhinav Bindra correctly matches with 'Conferred with the Olympic Order by the International Olympic Committee'; Vadhhavan correctly matches with 'Site of the newly approved all-weather deep-water mega port in Maharashtra'; Kozhikode correctly matches with 'Officially declared as India's first UNESCO City of Literature'.
The correct matching aligns Claudia Sheinbaum with her historic tenure as Mexico's first female president, Abhinav Bindra with his Olympic Order honor, Vadhhavan with Maharashtra's major deep-water port project, and Kozhikode with its designation as India's premier UNESCO City of Literature.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Associate Claudia Sheinbaum with her recent global leadership landmark.
Claudia Sheinbaum is the first female President of Mexico.
This is a historic international political appointment.
2
Associate Abhinav Bindra with his sports honor from the IOC.
Abhinav Bindra was awarded the Olympic Order by the IOC.
The Olympic Order is the highest award of the International Olympic Committee.
3
Differentiate between infrastructure developments and UNESCO cultural recognitions in news.
Vadhhavan corresponds to Maharashtra's new deep-water port, while Kozhikode corresponds to UNESCO's City of Literature title.
Vadhhavan is an infrastructure project in Palghar, whereas Kozhikode is a celebrated historical literary hub.

Key Concept

National and International Awards, Historic Appointments, and Places in News
Question 213Question →

With reference to the 'Global Renewables and Energy Efficiency Pledge' endorsed at the UN Climate Change Conference (COP28), consider the following statements:

1. It sets a global target to triple installed renewable energy capacity by 2030.
2. It calls for doubling the global average annual rate of energy efficiency improvements by 2030.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Both 1 and 2

Answer

Both 1 and 2 are correct.
Both statements are correct. At the COP28 UN Climate Change Conference held in Dubai, participating countries launched the Global Renewables and Energy Efficiency Pledge. The pledge sets two primary global benchmarks for 2030: tripling the total installed renewable energy capacity to at least 11,000 GW and doubling the global average annual rate of energy efficiency improvements from 2% to over 4%.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding renewable energy targets.
The pledge commits signatories to tripling global installed renewable energy capacity to at least 11,000 GW by 2030, making statement 1 correct.
This is one of the two core quantitative targets agreed upon by over 120 participating nations at COP28 in Dubai.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding energy efficiency targets.
The pledge requires doubling the global average annual rate of energy efficiency improvements from approximately 2% to over 4% per year through 2030, making statement 2 correct.
Energy efficiency doubling is paired with renewable energy expansion as twin pillars for global decarbonization.
3
Combine the evaluations to select the correct answer choice.
Since both statements 1 and 2 are correct, the choice indicating 'Both 1 and 2' is correct.
Matches standard State PSC multi-statement evaluation rules.

Key Concept

COP28 Global Renewables and Energy Efficiency Pledge Targets
Question 214Question →

Arrange the following major Indian national environmental and conservation initiatives in chronological order of their launch, from earliest to latest.

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct chronological sequence is: (1) Launch of Project Tiger (1973), (2) Release of the National Action Plan on Climate Change (2008), (3) Launch of the National Clean Air Programme (2019), and (4) Launch of the International Big Cats Alliance (2023).
The correct chronological arrangement places Project Tiger first (1973), followed by the National Action Plan on Climate Change (2008), the National Clean Air Programme (2019), and lastly the International Big Cats Alliance (2023).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the launch year for Project Tiger
Project Tiger was initiated in April 1973 under the Indira Gandhi administration.
Establishes the earliest historical baseline among national conservation projects.
2
Identify the launch year for the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC)
NAPCC was launched in June 2008 to outline India's strategy on climate mitigation and adaptation.
Places NAPCC as the second major milestone in the sequence.
3
Identify the launch year for the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP)
NCAP was launched in January 2019 as a national framework for air quality management.
Positions NCAP after NAPCC.
4
Identify the launch year for the International Big Cats Alliance (IBCA)
IBCA was launched in April 2023 during the commemoration of 50 years of Project Tiger.
Marks IBCA as the most recent global-national conservation initiative among the list.

Key Concept

Chronological progression of key Indian environmental legislations, climate action plans, and wildlife conservation missions.
Question 215Question →

Arrange the following high-profile Indian defense and judicial office assumptions in 2024 in chronological order from earliest to latest based on the dates they officially assumed office:

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct chronological sequence from earliest to latest is: Admiral Dinesh K. Tripathi assuming charge as Chief of the Naval Staff (April 30, 2024) → General Upendra Dwivedi assuming charge as Chief of the Army Staff (June 30, 2024) → Air Chief Marshal Amar Preet Singh assuming charge as Chief of the Air Staff (September 30, 2024) → Justice Sanjiv Khanna taking oath as Chief Justice of India (November 11, 2024).
The correct sequence follows the exact timeline of office assumptions in 2024: Admiral Dinesh K. Tripathi (April 30, 2024), followed by General Upendra Dwivedi (June 30, 2024), followed by Air Chief Marshal Amar Preet Singh (September 30, 2024), and finally Justice Sanjiv Khanna (November 11, 2024).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the official assumption date for Admiral Dinesh K. Tripathi.
Admiral Dinesh K. Tripathi took over as Chief of the Naval Staff on April 30, 2024.
Establishes the starting reference point in the timeline.
2
Identify the official assumption date for General Upendra Dwivedi.
General Upendra Dwivedi took over as Chief of the Army Staff on June 30, 2024.
Places the Army Chief appointment following the Naval Chief appointment.
3
Identify the official assumption date for Air Chief Marshal Amar Preet Singh.
Air Chief Marshal Amar Preet Singh took over as Chief of the Air Staff on September 30, 2024.
Places the Air Chief appointment in late September 2024.
4
Identify the official oath-taking date for Justice Sanjiv Khanna.
Justice Sanjiv Khanna took oath as Chief Justice of India on November 11, 2024.
Places the Judicial head appointment as the latest event among the given choices.

Key Concept

Chronology of Key Constitutional and Defense Appointments in India (2024)
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 216Question →

Which domestic cricket team won the prestigious Ranji Trophy 2023–24 title by defeating Vidarbha in the final match?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Mumbai

Answer

Mumbai won the 2023–24 Ranji Trophy title by defeating Vidarbha in the final.
Mumbai secured their 42nd Ranji Trophy title by defeating Vidarbha by 169 runs in the final of the 2023–24 season held at Wankhede Stadium, Mumbai.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Recall the winner of the 2023–24 Ranji Trophy domestic cricket tournament.
Mumbai defeated Vidarbha by 169 runs in the final at Wankhede Stadium in March 2024.
Direct factual recall of national sports tournament champions.

Key Concept

Ranji Trophy 2023–24 Champions
Estimated Time:45s
Question 217Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the National Sports Awards and trophies in India:
1. The Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (MAKA) Trophy is awarded annually to the overall top-performing university in inter-university tournaments.
2. The Dhyan Chand Award for Lifetime Achievement in Sports and Games was instituted in 2002 to honor sportspersons who have contributed to sports both during their active career and after retirement.
3. The Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puruskar is conferred exclusively upon individual athlete coaches for their outstanding lifetime contribution to training sports champions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (MAKA) Trophy is given to top-performing universities, and the Dhyan Chand Award for Lifetime Achievement was introduced in 2002. Statement 3 is incorrect as the Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puruskar is given to corporate entities, sports boards, and NGOs for sports promotion, not individual coaches.
Statements 1 and 2 accurately state the purpose and history of their respective awards. The Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (MAKA) Trophy is indeed an annual running trophy awarded to the overall best-performing university in inter-university tournaments. The Dhyan Chand Award for Lifetime Achievement in Sports and Games was instituted in 2002 to honor sports personalities for lifetime contributions. Statement 3 is wrong because the Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puruskar is conferred on organizations, corporate entities (both public and private), and sports control boards that play a key role in sports promotion and talent identification, rather than individual coaches.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding the Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (MAKA) Trophy.
Statement 1 is correct. MAKA Trophy was instituted in 1956-57 and is awarded annually to the top-performing university in inter-university games.
Verify the mandate and eligibility criteria for university sports honors.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding the Dhyan Chand Award for Lifetime Achievement.
Statement 2 is correct. Instituted in 2002, it recognizes sportspersons who continue to contribute to sports promotion after active retirement.
Verify the inception year and objective of the lifetime achievement award.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding the Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puruskar.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puruskar (instituted in 2009) is awarded to corporate bodies (public/private), NGOs, and sports control boards for sports promotion and development, whereas individual coaches are honored with the Dronacharya Award.
Distinguish between organizational encouragement awards and individual coaching honors.

Key Concept

Categories, Objectives, and Eligibility Criteria of National Sports Awards in India
Estimated Time:2m 0s
Question 218Question →

With reference to the High Seas Treaty (Agreement on Marine Biodiversity of Areas Beyond National Jurisdiction - BBNJ) adopted under global environmental governance, consider the following statements:

1. It is an international legally binding agreement established under the framework of the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS).
2. The scope of the agreement covers marine biological resources and conservation measures within member states' Exclusive Economic Zones (EEZs).
3. It creates a legal framework for establishing Area-Based Management Tools, including Marine Protected Areas (MPAs), in international waters.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The BBNJ treaty operates under UNCLOS and establishes MPAs in international waters, but excludes sovereign EEZs.
The option stating '1 and 3 only' is correct. The High Seas Treaty (BBNJ Agreement) was developed under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) and provides mechanisms for creating Marine Protected Areas in international waters. It strictly applies to areas beyond national jurisdiction, excluding Exclusive Economic Zones.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding the framework of the BBNJ Treaty.
Statement 1 is correct. The BBNJ Agreement was formally adopted as an international legally binding instrument under the framework of UNCLOS.
Verify the governance umbrella of international marine agreements.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding the territorial scope of the agreement.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Areas Beyond National Jurisdiction (ABNJ) explicitly refer to the high seas and the international seabed area, excluding Exclusive Economic Zones (EEZs) and territorial seas of coastal states.
Differentiate between sovereign EEZs (up to 200 nautical miles) and international high seas.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding the mechanisms provided by the agreement.
Statement 3 is correct. One of the main pillars of the BBNJ Agreement is setting up Area-Based Management Tools (ABMTs), including Marine Protected Areas (MPAs), to conserve ocean biodiversity in international waters.
Identify core pillars of the BBNJ agreement.

Key Concept

High Seas Treaty (BBNJ Agreement) Scope and UNCLOS Framework
Question 219Question →

Consider the following statements regarding Capital Expenditure (Capex) and its accounting treatment in the Union Budget:

1. Capital expenditure either creates physical or financial assets or results in a reduction of financial liabilities.
2. The economic multiplier effect of capital expenditure on Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is significantly higher than that of revenue expenditure.
3. Grants-in-aid provided by the Central Government to State Governments for the creation of capital assets are formally classified under Capital Expenditure in the main budgetary accounts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 2 are correct, while statement 3 is incorrect.
The correct response identifies statements 1 and 2 as true while recognizing statement 3 as false. Capital expenditure creates assets or reduces liabilities, and its economic multiplier on GDP significantly exceeds that of revenue expenditure. However, grants-in-aid to states for asset creation remain classified as revenue expenditure in formal government accounting, though they are summarized separately as effective capital expenditure.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding the definition of Capital Expenditure.
Capital expenditure is defined as government expenditure that results in the creation of physical or financial assets (like infrastructure, land, or machinery) or reduces financial liabilities (like debt repayment). Thus, Statement 1 is correct.
This matches standard fiscal accounting definitions.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding the multiplier effect of Capex vs Revenue Expenditure.
Economic Surveys consistently emphasize that capital expenditure has a significantly higher GDP multiplier (typically around 2.452.45 to 3.143.14) compared to revenue expenditure (typically around 0.450.45 to 0.990.99), because Capex generates long-term productive capacity and crowds in private investment. Thus, Statement 2 is correct.
Capex drives long-term economic growth more effectively than consumption-oriented revenue spending.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding the budgetary accounting classification of Grants-in-aid to States.
Under Article 112 of the Constitution of India and standard Union Budget accounting practices, all Grants-in-aid given by the Centre to States are recorded under Revenue Expenditure (as they do not directly create assets owned by the Central Government). To account for their asset-creating nature at the national level, the budget presents a derived metric called 'Effective Capital Expenditure'. Thus, Statement 3 is incorrect.
The formal budget classification places grants under the Revenue Account.

Key Concept

Capital Expenditure Classification and Multiplier Effect in Union Budgeting
Question 220Question →

Which of the following environmental initiatives launched by the Government of India specifically focuses on the conservation, reforestation, and sustainable management of mangrove ecosystems along the Indian coastline?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: MISHTI Initiative (Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats & Tangible Incomes)

Answer

MISHTI Initiative (Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats & Tangible Incomes)
The MISHTI (Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats & Tangible Incomes) scheme specifically aims to protect and expand India's mangrove cover along the coastline and salt pan lands through community involvement and convergent funding.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary objective stated in the question stem
The target objective is the conservation and reforestation of coastal mangrove ecosystems in India.
Understanding the specific ecosystem focus helps distinguish mangrove initiatives from general wetland or agricultural schemes.
2
Evaluate the national environmental conservation schemes introduced in recent policy announcements
The MISHTI (Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats & Tangible Incomes) initiative was launched specifically for intensive mangrove plantation along coastal belts using convergence between MGNREGS, CAMPA Fund, and other sources.
MISHTI directly addresses coastal mangrove protection and local livelihood opportunities.

Key Concept

National Conservation Initiatives for Coastal Ecosystems
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