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Current Affairs and General Awareness

369 questions

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Question 361Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the governance and statutory reforms introduced under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2023:

I. An Exploration Licence (EL) was established to incentivize private sector participation in the reconnaissance and prospecting of critical and deep-seated minerals.
II. Private commercial mining was prohibited by reclassifying strategic elements such as Lithium, Titanium, and Beryllium under the closed atomic minerals schedule.
III. The Central Government was authorized to conduct auctions for specified critical and strategic mineral concessions, with the entire revenue transferred to the respective State Governments.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Statements I and III only

Answer

Statements I and III only
The correct selection includes Statements I and III. The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2023 established an Exploration Licence (EL) to stimulate private capital and technology in prospecting deep-seated minerals. It also empowered the Central Government to exclusively conduct competitive auctions for 24 critical and strategic minerals, with all financial proceeds accruing directly to the host State Governments. Statement II is false because the legislation omitted Lithium, Titanium, and other critical elements from the list of restricted atomic minerals, specifically enabling private commercial extraction.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement I regarding the introduction of the Exploration Licence (EL).
Statement I is correct.
The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2023 introduced a dedicated Exploration Licence (EL) granted through competitive auction to incentivize private sector reconnaissance and prospecting for deep-seated and critical minerals.
2
Evaluate Statement II regarding the classification and mining permissions for critical and atomic minerals.
Statement II is incorrect.
The amendment delisted six minerals—Lithium, Beryllium, Titanium, Niobium, Tantalum, and Zirconium—from the restricted list of atomic minerals (Part B of the First Schedule), thereby allowing private commercial mining concessions rather than prohibiting them.
3
Evaluate Statement III regarding Central Government auction powers and revenue allocation.
Statement III is correct.
The Act authorizes the Central Government to exclusively conduct competitive auctions for mining leases and composite licences for specified critical and strategic minerals, while mandating that all accrued revenue, upfront payments, and royalties flow entirely to the respective State Governments.
4
Synthesize the statement evaluations to identify the valid combination.
Only Statements I and III are correct.
Statements I and III accurately capture the key statutory provisions, while Statement II reverses the liberalization reform of atomic mineral delisting.

Key Concept

Statutory and institutional reforms under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2023, including Exploration Licences, atomic mineral delisting, and Central auctioning of critical mineral blocks.
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 362Question →

Match the following national governance platforms and digital public infrastructure initiatives with their respective core objectives:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

PRAGATI Platform
CPGRAMS
e-Shram Portal
APAAR Initiative

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The PRAGATI Platform matches with the multi-modal ICT-based platform for project monitoring; CPGRAMS matches with the centralized web-based citizen grievance redressal mechanism; the e-Shram Portal matches with the comprehensive national database for unorganised workers; and the APAAR Initiative matches with the unified digital identifier for lifelong academic tracking.
The correct pairings accurately associate each digital governance system with its statutory and policy purpose: PRAGATI is designed for project implementation and high-level review; CPGRAMS is the nodal public grievance tracking portal; e-Shram serves as the national database for informal and unorganised sector workers; and APAAR acts as the permanent digital academic registry for students.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the mandate of the PRAGATI platform
PRAGATI is a multi-modal governance and project-monitoring platform connecting the Prime Minister's Office, Union Secretaries, and State Chief Secretaries.
PRAGATI specifically serves executive review and inter-ministerial resolution of stalled infrastructure projects.
2
Identify the mandate of CPGRAMS
CPGRAMS is dedicated to public grievance redressal across central and state administrative bodies.
It functions as the primary citizen-facing digital complaint portal under DARPG.
3
Identify the purpose of e-Shram and APAAR
e-Shram registers unorganised workers for welfare distribution, whereas APAAR registers students to record educational journeys and credits digitally.
Both create distinct domain-specific national registries (labor social security vs. academic identity).

Key Concept

Key National Governance Initiatives and Digital Public Infrastructure Mandates
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 363Question →

To catalyze national research, innovation, and entrepreneurship across universities and higher educational institutions, the Parliament of India enacted legislation to establish an apex statutory body by repealing the Science and Engineering Research Board (SERB) Act, 2008. Which statutory apex body was established under this governance reform, operating with the Prime Minister of India as the ex-officio President of its Governing Board?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF)

Answer

Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF)
The Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF) was established under the Anusandhan National Research Foundation Act, 2023, following the recommendations of the National Education Policy (NEP). It acts as an apex body to seed, grow, and facilitate research and development across India's universities, colleges, and research institutions. The Act repealed the Science and Engineering Research Board (SERB) Act, 2008, subsuming SERB into ANRF. Its apex Governing Board is headed by the Prime Minister as ex-officio President.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the legislative act and repealed statutory body
The Parliament enacted the Anusandhan National Research Foundation Act, 2023, which explicitly repealed the Science and Engineering Research Board (SERB) Act, 2008.
Governance initiatives in scientific research required a unified apex body to expand funding across state universities and research institutions.
2
Examine the governance and administrative architecture of the new body
The Prime Minister of India acts as the ex-officio President of the Governing Board, while the Union Ministers of Science & Technology and Education act as Vice-Presidents.
High-level administrative leadership ensures multi-ministerial alignment and strategic direction across academia and industry.
3
Eliminate alternative autonomous councils and missions
Entities such as CSIR, TDB, and AIM operate under separate statutory or administrative mandates and do not replace SERB.
Differentiating statutory acts and establishing timelines confirms the unique status of ANRF.

Key Concept

Statutory framework and governance structure of the Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF) Act, 2023
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 364Question →

Arrange the following landmark national governance initiatives and legislative enactments in chronological order of their launch or enactment, from earliest to latest:

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

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Answer

The correct chronological sequence from earliest to latest is PM SVANidhi (June 2020), followed by PM GatiShakti National Master Plan (October 2021), Criminal Procedure (Identification) Act (April 2022), and Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act (August 2023).
PM SVANidhi was introduced in June 2020 as an economic relief initiative for street vendors; PM GatiShakti was rolled out in October 2021 to streamline multimodal logistics; the Criminal Procedure (Identification) Act was enacted in April 2022; and the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act was enacted in August 2023. Arranging these events from earliest to latest yields the exact sequence: PM SVANidhi (2020) → PM GatiShakti (2021) → Criminal Procedure (Identification) Act (2022) → Jan Vishwas Act (2023).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Determine the launch date of the PM SVANidhi scheme.
PM SVANidhi was launched in June 2020 as a special micro-credit facility under the Atmanirbhar Bharat package.
Establishes the starting baseline for the timeline.
2
Identify the roll-out date of the PM GatiShakti National Master Plan.
PM GatiShakti was launched on October 13, 2021, to unify multimodal infrastructure planning.
Places the infrastructure planning initiative after the 2020 pandemic response scheme.
3
Verify the enactment date of the Criminal Procedure (Identification) Act.
The Criminal Procedure (Identification) Act was passed by Parliament and received Presidential assent in April 2022.
Positions the statutory criminal identification reforms in early 2022.
4
Determine the enactment timeline of the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act.
The Jan Vishwas Act was passed and notified in August 2023 to decriminalize minor offences.
Finalizes the chronological sequence with the most recent legislative governance reform.

Key Concept

Chronological milestones of major governance missions and statutory policy reforms in India
Question 365Question →

Match the following flagship national governance initiatives and digital missions (List-I) with their primary objectives and mandates (List-II):

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

PM Vishwakarma Scheme
PM-Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana
Tele-MANAS Initiative
Project BHASHINI

Matches

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Answer

PM Vishwakarma matches with end-to-end support for traditional artisans; PM-Surya Ghar matches with rooftop solar for up to 300 units of free monthly electricity; Tele-MANAS matches with the 24x7 national tele-counselling mental health network; and Project BHASHINI matches with the AI-powered multilingual translation platform.
Each initiative maps accurately to its specific statutory and operational governance mandate: PM Vishwakarma targets traditional artisans with enterprise credit and skilling; PM-Surya Ghar accelerates domestic rooftop solarization with a 300-unit monthly zero-cost electricity benchmark; Tele-MANAS establishes comprehensive round-the-clock digital psychological support; and Project BHASHINI builds the AI natural language foundation for vernacular digital governance.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the target demographic and mandate of PM Vishwakarma.
PM Vishwakarma is tailored specifically for eighteen traditional trades, offering financial, technological, and skilling support to traditional artisans and craftspeople.
This establishes the direct pair between the artisan welfare initiative and its specialized credit and skilling description.
2
Identify the core mechanism and target of PM-Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana.
The scheme facilitates residential rooftop solar adoption to provide up to 300 units of free electricity per month.
This aligns the clean energy governance initiative with residential solar electrification.
3
Determine the functional domain of Tele-MANAS and Project BHASHINI.
Tele-MANAS serves the healthcare domain as a 24x7 tele-mental health support system, while Project BHASHINI serves digital governance by translating digital services across official Indian languages using AI.
Distinct identification of digital health versus linguistic AI infrastructure completes the four unique pairs.

Key Concept

Core mandates and structural targets of recent Indian national missions and welfare schemes
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 366Question →

The Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Act, 2023 introduced major structural reforms to modernize India's civil registration architecture. Under the statutory provisions of this Act, which of the following documents is designated as the single, conclusive proof of date and place of birth for public services including admission to educational institutions, government appointments, passport issuance, and electoral roll preparation?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Digital birth certificate issued through the national Civil Registration System portal

Answer

Digital birth certificate issued through the national Civil Registration System portal
Under the Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Act, 2023 (enforced from October 1, 2023), the digital birth certificate generated through the centralized Civil Registration System (CRS) is made the single, mandatory document for determining the date and place of birth for school admissions, driving licence applications, voter list registration, Aadhaar enrolment, marriage registrations, and government appointments.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the statutory mandate of the Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Act, 2023.
The Act establishes a centralized national and state-level database under the Registrar General of India to streamline civil data across government registries.
Understanding the legislative intent is necessary to identify which document was granted singular legal status.
2
Examine the specific provisions regarding single documentary proof of birth.
Section 3 of the amended Act provides that for persons born on or after October 1, 2023, the birth certificate issued by the Registrar or Sub-Registrar through the Civil Registration System shall be the sole conclusive document to prove date and place of birth.
This provision supersedes earlier practices where alternative documents such as school certificates or affidavits were routinely substituted.

Key Concept

Statutory modernization of civil registration under the Registration of Births and Deaths (Amendment) Act, 2023
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 367Question →

Arrange the following national governance initiatives and missions in chronological order of their official launch, from earliest to latest:

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct chronological sequence from earliest to latest is: Mission Karmayogi (September 2020), Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (September 2021), Mission LiFE (October 2022), and Mera Yuva Bharat (October 2023).
The correct sequence begins with Mission Karmayogi (approved in September 2020), followed by the nationwide rollout of Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission in September 2021, the global launch of Mission LiFE in October 2022, and culminates with the launch of the Mera Yuva Bharat platform in October 2023.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the launch date of Mission Karmayogi
September 2020
Mission Karmayogi was approved by the Union Cabinet in September 2020 as a comprehensive reform initiative for civil services competency.
2
Identify the launch date of Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM)
September 2021
Following its pilot in Union Territories, the Prime Minister announced the pan-India rollout of ABDM in September 2021.
3
Identify the launch date of Mission LiFE
October 2022
Mission LiFE was formally launched jointly by the Prime Minister of India and the UN Secretary-General at Ekta Nagar (Kevadia), Gujarat in October 2022.
4
Identify the launch date of Mera Yuva Bharat (MY Bharat)
October 2023
Mera Yuva Bharat was launched on National Unity Day (31 October 2023) at Kartavya Path to empower youth leadership.
5
Synthesize the timeline from earliest to latest
2020 → 2021 → 2022 → 2023
Aligning the determined milestone years yields the exact chronological sequence.

Key Concept

Chronological progression of post-2020 Indian national governance initiatives and digital missions
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 368Question →

Match the following recently launched national governance initiatives and schemes with their primary policy objectives:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

PM-PRANAM Scheme
ULLAS Initiative
SIGHT Programme
MedTech Mitra

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

PM-PRANAM Scheme matches with promoting alternative fertilizers and reducing chemical fertilizer dependence; ULLAS Initiative matches with foundational literacy and life skills for adults aged 15 and above; SIGHT Programme matches with financial incentives for electrolyzer manufacturing and green hydrogen production; and MedTech Mitra matches with regulatory approvals and clinical evaluation for medical device innovators.
Each initiative corresponds directly to its defined government mandate: PM-PRANAM tackles sustainable soil nutrient management, ULLAS addresses adult literacy and foundational lifelong education, SIGHT spurs green hydrogen infrastructure development, and MedTech Mitra mentors biomedical startups through regulatory pipelines.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the scope of the PM-PRANAM Scheme
PM-PRANAM is designed to support sustainable agriculture by encouraging States to adopt alternative bio-fertilizers and reduce chemical fertilizer subsidies.
The initiative addresses soil health deterioration and excessive fiscal burden on fertilizer subsidies.
2
Analyze the scope of the ULLAS Initiative
ULLAS focuses on adult education, digital literacy, and basic numeracy for citizens aged 15 years and above.
It operationalizes the adult literacy commitments under the National Education Policy.
3
Analyze the scope of the SIGHT Programme
SIGHT provides dedicated financial outlays for manufacturing electrolyzers and producing green hydrogen.
It serves as the core funding mechanism of the National Green Hydrogen Mission.
4
Analyze the scope of the MedTech Mitra initiative
MedTech Mitra guides indigenous healthtech innovators through preclinical research, clinical validations, and regulatory clearances.
It accelerates domestic medical device innovation and reduces import reliance.

Key Concept

Nodal objectives and administrative focus of flagship governance schemes and statutory missions in India.
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 369Question →

The Parliament of India enacted the Mediation Act, 2023 to institutionalize alternative dispute resolution and reduce the pendency of court cases. In this context, which of the following statements accurately describes a key statutory provision of the Act?

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Answer: It mandates that mediation proceedings must be completed within a maximum timeframe of 180 days and accords mediated settlement agreements the legal enforceability of a civil court decree.

Answer

The statement specifying that mediation proceedings must be completed within a maximum timeframe of 180 days and that mediated settlement agreements possess the legal enforceability of a civil court decree.
Under Section 18 of the Mediation Act, 2023, mediation proceedings must be completed within a statutory period of 120 days, which can be extended by a maximum of 60 days with the mutual consent of the parties, setting the upper cap at 180 days. In addition, Section 27 establishes that a mediated settlement agreement signed by the parties and authenticated by the mediator shall be final, binding, and enforceable in the same manner as a judgment or decree passed by a civil court under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the core objective and institutional scope of the Mediation Act, 2023.
The Act serves as standalone legislation to govern domestic and international mediation in India and establishes the statutory Mediation Council of India.
Understanding the legislative domain eliminates misattributions regarding ministry and authority names.
2
Examine the statutory time limit set for the mediation process.
Section 18 mandates completion within 120 days from first appearance, with an allowable 60-day extension upon mutual consent of the parties (maximum 180 days).
State PSC assessments regularly test prescribed numerical procedural limits.
3
Evaluate the legal character and enforceability of settlement agreements under Section 27.
A mediated settlement agreement is final, binding, and enforceable in the same manner as a court judgment or decree under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
Confirming legal enforceability distinguishes this statutory mechanism from informal arbitrations.

Key Concept

Statutory timelines, enforcement framework, and institutional regulatory architecture under the Mediation Act, 2023
Estimated Time:1m 15s
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