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Current Affairs and General Awareness

369 questions

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Question 21Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the 'Mahtari Vandan Yojana' implemented in Chhattisgarh:

1. Under the scheme, eligible beneficiaries receive a monthly financial assistance of ₹1,000 directly transferred to their bank accounts.
2. To be eligible, a woman must be a married resident of the state and at least 21 years of age as of January 1 of the application year.
3. The scheme is executed under the administrative purview of the State Department of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 2 only are correct.
Under the Mahtari Vandan Yojana, the Government of Chhattisgarh provides direct financial assistance of ₹1,000 per month (₹12,000 annually) to eligible married women residing in the state who are at least 21 years of age as of January 1 of the respective year. Because the scheme is formulated and executed by the Department of Women and Child Development, the statement attributing implementation to the Department of Agriculture is factually incorrect. Therefore, only the first and second statements are correct.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the financial assistance component (Statement 1)
Statement 1 is correct.
The Mahtari Vandan Yojana provides ₹1,000 per month (totaling ₹12,000 per annum) directly credited to the beneficiary's Aadhaar-linked bank account through Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT).
2
Evaluate the demographic and age eligibility criteria (Statement 2)
Statement 2 is correct.
The scheme mandates that the applicant must be a domicile resident married woman of Chhattisgarh who has attained the minimum age of 21 years as of January 1 of the application year (widows, divorced, and abandoned women are also eligible).
3
Evaluate the implementing administrative department (Statement 3)
Statement 3 is incorrect.
The nodal authority responsible for implementing, supervising, and disbursing benefits under the scheme is the Department of Women and Child Development, Government of Chhattisgarh, rather than the Department of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.

Key Concept

Core financial entitlements, target beneficiary eligibility parameters, and nodal administrative departments of state flagship women welfare schemes.
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 22Question →

The Parliament of India enacted the Constitution (One Hundred and Sixth Amendment) Act, 2023, widely recognized as the Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam, to enhance women's political participation in legislative governance. Which of the following statements correctly describes a key statutory and constitutional feature of this governance initiative?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: It reserves one-third of all seats for women in the Lok Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies, and the Legislative Assembly of the National Capital Territory of Delhi, taking effect after a delimitation exercise conducted following the first post-enactment census.

Answer

The Constitution (One Hundred and Sixth Amendment) Act, 2023 reserves one-third of all seats for women in the Lok Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies, and the Legislative Assembly of the National Capital Territory of Delhi, taking effect following a delimitation exercise based on the first census conducted after its enactment.
The Constitution (One Hundred and Sixth Amendment) Act, 2023 (Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam) provides for reserving one-third of the total seats for women in the Lok Sabha (Article 330A), State Legislative Assemblies (Article 332A), and the Legislative Assembly of the National Capital Territory of Delhi (Article 239AA). Crucially, Article 334A specifies that this reservation shall come into effect only after a delimitation exercise is carried out based on the published figures of the first census undertaken after the Act's commencement, with an initial tenure of 15 years subject to parliamentary extension.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the constitutional scope and bodies covered under the 106th Amendment Act
The Act amends Article 239AA and inserts new Articles 330A and 332A to provide one-third reservation for women in the Lok Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies, and the Legislative Assembly of NCT of Delhi (excluding the Rajya Sabha and State Legislative Councils).
Constitutional provisions apply specifically to directly elected popular legislative houses.
2
Analyze the commencement mechanism and sunset conditions set out under Article 334A
Article 334A stipulates that the reservation will become effective after a delimitation exercise is conducted based on the relevant figures of the first census taken after the commencement of the Act, operating initially for a duration of 15 years.
Implementation is institutionally linked to demographic delimitation rather than being immediate upon presidential notification.

Key Concept

Key provisions and implementation architecture of the Constitution (One Hundred and Sixth Amendment) Act, 2023 (Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam)
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 23Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the Three Seas Initiative (3SI):
1. It is a regional multilateral forum of European Union member states situated between the Baltic, Black, and Adriatic Seas focused on infrastructure, energy, and digital connectivity.
2. Greece became the 13th participating nation of the initiative, while Ukraine and Moldova were granted associate member status.
3. It operates as a formal treaty-based international organization with a permanent secretariat headquartered under the Council of Europe in Strasbourg.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

1 and 2 only
The option stating '1 and 2 only' is correct. The Three Seas Initiative (3SI) connects 13 EU member states in Central and Eastern Europe between the Baltic, Black, and Adriatic Seas to foster growth in energy, transport, and digital infrastructure. Greece joined as the 13th participating nation, while Ukraine and Moldova are associate partners. It has no permanent treaty-based secretariat under the Council of Europe, making Statement 3 false.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding the geographical scope and core objective of the Three Seas Initiative.
Statement 1 is accurate. The Three Seas Initiative (3SI) involves EU member countries in Central and Eastern Europe along a north-south axis connecting the Baltic, Adriatic, and Black Seas, aiming to boost infrastructure, energy, and digital connectivity.
Verifies geographical boundaries and core operational pillars.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding recent membership expansions.
Statement 2 is accurate. Greece officially joined as the 13th member state, and associate partner status was granted to Ukraine and Moldova.
Verifies expansion dynamics and participating state count.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding institutional structure and administrative secretariat.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The Three Seas Initiative operates as an informal, flexible presidential-level forum without a treaty-based permanent secretariat or headquarters under the Council of Europe.
Identifies the false institutional governance claim.

Key Concept

Three Seas Initiative (3SI) membership, geographic framework, and institutional governance
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 24Question →

Which of the following statements regarding the Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: It was established in 1997 through the Bangkok Declaration.; The chairmanship of BIMSTEC rotates among member states based on alphabetical order.

Answer

The correct statements are that BIMSTEC was established in 1997 through the Bangkok Declaration and its chairmanship rotates among member states in alphabetical order.
BIMSTEC was established through the Bangkok Declaration on June 6, 1997, initially as BIST-EC. Furthermore, the organization follows an alphabetical rotation mechanism for determining its chairmanship among its seven member nations.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate the establishment declaration and founding date.
BIMSTEC was formed on June 6, 1997, via the Bangkok Declaration.
Verifies historical founding facts of the grouping.
2
Verify the location of the BIMSTEC permanent secretariat.
The secretariat was inaugurated in Dhaka, Bangladesh, in 2014.
Differentiates BIMSTEC headquarters from SAARC headquarters in Kathmandu.
3
Analyze leadership structure and regional membership.
Chairmanship rotates alphabetically among member countries, and members include both South Asian (Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, Sri Lanka) and Southeast Asian (Myanmar, Thailand) nations.
Confirms structural procedures and inter-regional composition.

Key Concept

Founding treaty, headquarters, leadership rotation, and inter-regional membership of BIMSTEC
Question 25Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the Colombo Security Conclave (CSC):

1. It originated as a trilateral maritime security grouping comprising India, Sri Lanka, and the Maldives, before expanding to include Mauritius and Bangladesh.
2. The permanent secretariat of the Conclave is established in New Delhi, India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 only

Answer

1 only
The Colombo Security Conclave (CSC) evolved from a trilateral maritime security mechanism formed by India, Sri Lanka, and the Maldives into a broader regional framework that officially inducted Mauritius and Bangladesh. The permanent secretariat coordinating its pillar initiatives (maritime safety, counter-terrorism, cybersecurity, and humanitarian relief) is based in Colombo, Sri Lanka. Hence, only the first statement is correct.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding the membership trajectory of the Colombo Security Conclave.
Statement 1 is correct. The regional security framework began with India, Sri Lanka, and the Maldives, later formally admitting Mauritius as its fourth member and Bangladesh as its fifth member.
Verifying foundational timeline and membership expansion of Indian Ocean regional security bodies.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding the institutional headquarters of the Conclave.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The permanent secretariat of the Colombo Security Conclave operates out of Colombo, Sri Lanka.
Verifying permanent secretariat locations of multilateral groupings.

Key Concept

Colombo Security Conclave (CSC) membership framework and permanent secretariat location
Question 26Question →

The 'PM-PRANAM' initiative, launched as part of India's national governance framework for sustainable development, primarily aims to achieve which of the following objectives?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Incentivize States and Union Territories to reduce the consumption of chemical fertilizers and promote alternative fertilizers

Answer

Incentivize States and Union Territories to reduce the consumption of chemical fertilizers and promote alternative fertilizers
The PM-PRANAM (PM Programme for Restoration, Awareness, Nourishment and Amelioration of Mother Earth) initiative was announced to incentivize States and Union Territories to reduce the consumption of chemical fertilizers and encourage the balanced use of alternative fertilizers, thereby reducing the fiscal subsidy burden and enhancing soil health.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the full title and core domain of the PM-PRANAM scheme.
PM-PRANAM stands for 'PM Programme for Restoration, Awareness, Nourishment and Amelioration of Mother Earth'.
The full title directly relates to soil restoration, agricultural sustainability, and environmental health.
2
Examine the policy mechanism of PM-PRANAM.
The scheme passes 50% of the subsidy savings generated by a State through reduced chemical fertilizer usage back to that State as a developmental grant.
This financial model encourages States and Union Territories to actively promote bio-fertilizers and organic farming practices.

Key Concept

PM-PRANAM Scheme Objectives and Sustainable Agricultural Governance
Question 27Question →

Match the state-specific welfare initiatives listed in Column I with their primary target objectives listed in Column II. Which of the following correct pair combinations connects each scheme to its respective mandate?

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Mukhya Mantri Nijut Moina Scheme (Assam)
Indiramma Indlu Housing Scheme (Telangana)
Mukhyamantri Solar Pump Yojana (Madhya Pradesh)
Kalaignar Magalir Urimai Thittam (Tamil Nadu)

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct matching pairs Mukhya Mantri Nijut Moina Scheme with incentives for female higher education to curb child marriage; Indiramma Indlu Housing Scheme with financial assistance for house construction on owned plots; Mukhyamantri Solar Pump Yojana with subsidized off-grid solar pumps for irrigation; and Kalaignar Magalir Urimai Thittam with a monthly grant of ₹1,000 to female heads of families.
Each scheme is accurately paired with its primary state mandate: Assam's Nijut Moina focuses on higher education stipends for girls, Telangana's Indiramma Indlu provides housing funds for plot owners, Madhya Pradesh's Solar Pump Yojana targets agricultural solar power infrastructure, and Tamil Nadu's Magalir Urimai Thittam supplies monthly financial grants to female heads of households.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Assam's Mukhya Mantri Nijut Moina Scheme
Identify that the scheme targets female students pursuing higher education with monthly stipends to eliminate child marriages.
It addresses social welfare and education for young women in Assam.
2
Analyze Telangana's Indiramma Indlu Housing Scheme
Identify that the scheme allocates ₹5 lakh financial aid to eligible families who own land to construct houses.
It is Telangana's primary housing scheme for plot-owning rural and urban poor.
3
Analyze Madhya Pradesh's Mukhyamantri Solar Pump Yojana
Identify that it facilitates off-grid agricultural solar pumps for farmers to reduce dependence on conventional grid power.
It supports clean energy adoption in agriculture.
4
Analyze Tamil Nadu's Kalaignar Magalir Urimai Thittam
Identify that it provides ₹1,000 per month directly to eligible female family heads.
It is Tamil Nadu's flagship basic income and women empowerment program.

Key Concept

State Welfare Schemes and Sectoral Objectives
Question 28Question →

Match the following key flagship national governance initiatives of the Government of India with their primary objectives:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

SVAMITVA Scheme
PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan
PM-eBus Sewa
Vibrant Villages Programme

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

SVAMITVA Scheme matches with survey and mapping of rural inhabited areas using drone technology; PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan matches with integrated spatial planning for multimodal infrastructure connectivity; PM-eBus Sewa matches with deployment of electric buses for urban public transport under PPP model; and Vibrant Villages Programme matches with comprehensive development of designated northern border villages.
Each scheme is accurately paired with its primary objective: SVAMITVA uses drone surveys to map rural inhabited land parcels; PM Gati Shakti provides a GIS-based multimodal infrastructure planning framework; PM-eBus Sewa expands urban public transport using electric buses; and Vibrant Villages Programme targets infrastructure and community development in northern border villages.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the objective of SVAMITVA Scheme.
SVAMITVA stands for Survey of Villages and Mapping with Improvised Technology in Village Areas, which deploys drones to issue legal ownership cards in rural inhabited lands.
Establishes clear ownership and reduces property disputes in rural areas.
2
Identify the core aim of PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan.
PM Gati Shakti integrates multiple economic zones and infrastructure ministries onto a single GIS platform for coordinated project execution.
Enhances logistics efficiency and reduces department-level silos.
3
Identify the focus of PM-eBus Sewa.
PM-eBus Sewa is designed to promote green urban mobility by deploying 10,000 electric buses in target cities.
Drives clean energy adoption in urban public transit.
4
Identify the scope of Vibrant Villages Programme.
Vibrant Villages Programme covers infrastructure development and livelihood generation in border villages along India's northern frontiers.
Improves living standards and secures strategic border settlements.

Key Concept

Flagship National Governance Initiatives and Their Primary Objectives
Question 29Question →

Match the multilateral agreements and initiatives in List-I with their primary subject matter or core objective in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Kigali Amendment
Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework
High Seas Treaty (BBNJ Agreement)
Ashgabat Agreement

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct pairings are: Kigali Amendment matches Phase-down of hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs); Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework matches Protecting 30% of land and marine areas by 2030; High Seas Treaty matches Conservation of marine biological diversity in areas beyond national jurisdiction; Ashgabat Agreement matches Establishment of an international transport and transit corridor connecting Central Asia and the Persian Gulf.
Each agreement matches its specific mandate: the Kigali Amendment regulates HFC reduction; the Kunming-Montreal Framework establishes the 30x30 conservation target; the High Seas Treaty covers marine conservation in waters beyond national jurisdiction; and the Ashgabat Agreement facilitates transit corridors between Central Asia and the Persian Gulf.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the primary objective of the Kigali Amendment.
It amends the Montreal Protocol to expand its mandate to regulate and gradually phase down climate-impacting Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs).
Linking international environmental protocols to their targeted pollutants.
2
Analyze the core objective of the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework.
Adopted under the UN Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), its signature commitment is the '30x30' conservation target by 2030.
Identifying global biodiversity goals set during major environmental summits.
3
Determine the scope of the High Seas Treaty (BBNJ).
It addresses ocean governance and marine genetic resource management specifically in international waters beyond national jurisdictions.
Associating maritime treaties under UNCLOS with their jurisdictional domains.
4
Identify the geographical focus of the Ashgabat Agreement.
It creates an international trade corridor connecting Central Asian countries with ports in the Persian Gulf.
Recognizing regional connectivity agreements and trade routes.

Key Concept

Multilateral Accords, Global Environmental Conventions, and International Transport Corridors
Question 30Question →

Consider the provisions of the 'Mukhyamantri Seekho-Kamao Yojana' (MMSKY) initiated by the Government of Madhya Pradesh to boost skill development and youth employability. Which of the following statements regarding the scheme are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: It is implemented under the nodal administration of the Department of Technical Education, Skill Development and Employment of Madhya Pradesh.; It offers a monthly financial stipend ranging between ₹8,000 and ₹10,000 to eligible youth aged 18 to 29 years during their on-the-job industrial training.; Stipend payments are credited directly into the beneficiaries' Aadhaar-linked bank accounts through Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT).

Answer

The correct statements are that the scheme is administered by the Department of Technical Education, Skill Development and Employment of Madhya Pradesh, offers a monthly stipend of ₹8,000 to ₹10,000 for eligible youth aged 18 to 29 years based on educational qualification, and transfers funds directly to Aadhaar-linked bank accounts via Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT).
The Mukhyamantri Seekho-Kamao Yojana (MMSKY) of Madhya Pradesh is designed to provide skill training and financial security to unemployed youth. It is executed by the state's Department of Technical Education, Skill Development and Employment. Youth between 18 and 29 years of age receive a monthly stipend ranging from ₹8,000 to ₹10,000 based on their educational background. All financial assistance is transferred transparently via Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) into Aadhaar-enabled bank accounts.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the nodal implementing agency for Mukhyamantri Seekho-Kamao Yojana (MMSKY).
The scheme is managed by the Department of Technical Education, Skill Development and Employment, Madhya Pradesh.
Establishing the correct administrative structure verifies government governance framework.
2
Evaluate beneficiary eligibility criteria regarding age and stipend structure.
Domiciled youth aged 18–29 years receive ₹8,000 (12th pass), ₹8,500 (ITI), ₹9,000 (Diploma), or ₹10,000 (Graduate/Post Graduate) per month.
Verifying age limits and qualification-based financial support confirms operational guidelines.
3
Examine the payment disbursement mode and educational qualification range.
Disbursement occurs via Aadhaar-linked DBT, and candidates from 12th standard up to graduation/post-graduation are eligible, making strict post-graduate restriction false.
Identifies correct payment mechanism while invalidating overly restrictive eligibility claims.

Key Concept

Mukhyamantri Seekho-Kamao Yojana (MMSKY) Governance, Stipend Slabs, and Target Beneficiary Framework
Question 31Question →

Match the recently implemented national governance initiatives and statutory acts of India in List-I with their primary objectives or core mandates in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Sanchar Saathi Portal
PM-eBus Sewa Scheme
Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023
Digital India Bhashini Mission

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Sanchar Saathi Portal matches with citizen-centric tracking of stolen mobile devices; PM-eBus Sewa Scheme matches with deployment of 10,000 electric buses under the PPP model; Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 matches with legal recognition for electronic evidence; and Digital India Bhashini Mission matches with building an AI-driven native language translation ecosystem.
The pairings correctly reflect the designated sectoral mandates of recent Indian national governance initiatives and landmark legislation. Sanchar Saathi focuses on mobile security; PM-eBus Sewa addresses electric transit infrastructure; Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam reformulates judicial evidence law for the digital age; and Bhashini provides artificial intelligence solutions for multi-lingual public service accessibility.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the mandate of Sanchar Saathi Portal
Matches with citizen-centric mobile handset tracking and security management.
It is developed by the Department of Telecommunications to help citizens block/find lost phones and identify mobile connections registered in their names.
2
Analyze the PM-eBus Sewa Scheme
Matches with deploying 10,000 electric buses through Public-Private Partnership (PPP).
The scheme focuses on green urban mobility, particularly targeting cities lacking organized public bus transport infrastructure.
3
Examine the scope of Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023
Matches with modernizing evidence law by granting full legal admissibility to digital and electronic records.
It replaces the colonial Indian Evidence Act, 1872, creating updated legal standards for electronic records, emails, and digital trails.
4
Evaluate the Digital India Bhashini Mission
Matches with establishing an AI-powered language translation framework across Indian languages.
Bhashini uses open-source AI tools and voice-based interfaces to ensure citizens can access public digital services in their local dialects.

Key Concept

National Governance Initiatives and Statutory Frameworks
Question 32Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the 'Gruha Lakshmi Scheme' implemented by the Government of Karnataka:

1. The scheme provides direct financial assistance of ₹2,000 per month to the designated woman head of eligible households.
2. The Department of Women and Child Development, Government of Karnataka, serves as the nodal implementing department.
3. Households where either the woman head or her spouse is an Income Tax payer or files Goods and Services Tax (GST) returns are explicitly included as eligible beneficiaries.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

1 and 2 only
The option stating '1 and 2 only' is correct because under the Gruha Lakshmi Scheme launched by Karnataka, the state provides ₹2,000 monthly financial assistance to eligible female household heads under the administration of the Department of Women and Child Development. However, households paying Income Tax or filing GST returns are specifically barred from receiving benefits, making the third statement factually wrong.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 (Financial Assistance Amount)
Statement 1 is correct. The Gruha Lakshmi Scheme provides ₹2,000 per month directly to the bank accounts of women designated as heads of eligible families.
Verifying the primary monetary benchmark of the welfare scheme.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 (Nodal Department)
Statement 2 is correct. The Department of Women and Child Development is the administrative nodal agency executing and supervising the scheme across Karnataka.
Identifying the administrative authority responsible for scheme delivery.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 (Eligibility & Exclusion Criteria)
Statement 3 is incorrect. The scheme explicitly excludes households where either the woman head or her spouse pays Income Tax or files GST returns.
Checking statutory exclusion thresholds defined under state policy rules.

Key Concept

Eligibility Parameters and Administrative Nodal Agencies of State Welfare Schemes
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 33Question →

With reference to the landmark Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, 2023 in India, consider the following statements:

1. It applies to the processing of digital personal data within India, as well as data processed outside India if it involves offering goods or services to data principals in India.
2. The Data Protection Board of India acts as the administrative body to determine non-compliance, whereas appeals against its decisions lie before the Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal (TDSAT).
3. The Act explicitly mandates that consent is strictly indispensable under all circumstances, prohibiting any personal data processing for state benefits or public emergencies without prior consent.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

The statement combination containing '1 and 2 only' is correct.
The combination indicating statement 1 and statement 2 only is correct because the DPDP Act, 2023 applies to digital personal data processed within India as well as foreign processing targeting Indian residents. Furthermore, the Data Protection Board of India handles primary non-compliance inquiries, and appeals against its orders lie directly with the Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal (TDSAT). Statement 3 is false because Section 7 allows processing without consent for specified legitimate uses such as public health emergencies and state benefit disbursement.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding territorial scope.
Statement 1 is correct. Section 3 of the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 specifies that the Act applies to digital personal data processed within India, as well as processing outside India if it relates to offering goods or services to data principals located within India.
Territorial jurisdiction includes extra-territorial application for cross-border digital services targetting Indian residents.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding institutional mechanism and appellate tribunal.
Statement 2 is correct. The Act provides for the establishment of the Data Protection Board of India (DPBI) as an adjudicatory body for inquiry and penalties, and designates the Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal (TDSAT) as the Appellate Tribunal to hear appeals against DPBI orders.
Institutional hierarchy maps DPBI for primary adjudication and TDSAT for statutory appeals.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding consent exemptions.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Section 7 of the Act outlines 'Certain Legitimate Uses' where personal data may be processed without explicit consent, such as for responding to medical emergencies, epidemic control, breakdown of public order, or state provisioning of subsidies, benefits, and services.
The Act recognizes specific non-consent grounds to prevent governance deadlock during emergency and statutory service delivery.

Key Concept

Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 - Scope, Adjudication Framework, and Legitimate Uses
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 34Question →

The 'PM-DevINE' (Prime Minister's Development Initiative for North East Region) scheme, launched by the Government of India to fund infrastructure and social development projects, is implemented under the administrative control of which Union Ministry?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region

Answer

Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region
The Prime Minister's Development Initiative for North East Region (PM-DevINE) is a 100% Central Sector Scheme administered by the Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region (MDoNER). It aims to fund infrastructure projects rapidly, create social development infrastructure, and enable livelihood activities for women and youth in the North East.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the specific mandate and geographic scope of the PM-DevINE initiative.
PM-DevINE is designed to fund infrastructure, support youth and women livelihoods, and fill developmental gaps in the North Eastern Region of India.
Identifying the target scope helps associate the scheme with its appropriate administrative authority.
2
Determine the nodal Union Ministry responsible for managing the scheme.
The scheme is fully funded by the Central Government and executed directly under the Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region (MDoNER).
Administrative oversight of region-specific developmental funds rests with the specialized regional ministry.

Key Concept

Nodal Ministry Allocation for Central Sector Governance Initiatives
Question 35Question →

With reference to the Global Biofuels Alliance (GBA) launched on the sidelines of the G20 Summit in New Delhi, consider the following statements:

1. It was initiated jointly by India, the United States, and Brazil to foster global collaboration for the adoption of biofuels.
2. The founding member countries of the alliance together account for more than 80 percent of global production and consumption of liquid biofuels.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Both 1 and 2

Answer

Both 1 and 2 are correct.
Both statements are correct. The Global Biofuels Alliance (GBA) was launched during the G20 Summit in New Delhi under India's presidency, jointly spearheaded by India, the United States, and Brazil. Together, these founding countries account for more than 80 percent of the world's production and consumption of liquid biofuels.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding the initiating leadership of the alliance.
The Global Biofuels Alliance (GBA) was spearheaded jointly by India, Brazil, and the United States—the world's largest biofuel producers—and launched during the 2023 G20 Summit in New Delhi. Thus, Statement 1 is correct.
To verify the key founding members and context of establishment.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding the global market share of biofuel production and consumption.
Together, the United States (~52%), Brazil (~30%), and India (~3%) contribute to over 80 percent of the global production and consumption of liquid biofuels. Thus, Statement 2 is correct.
To verify the numerical representation of biofuel output by the founding group.

Key Concept

Global Biofuels Alliance (GBA) origin, key member nations, and global market share
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 36Question →

Which central ministry serves as the nodal ministry for the implementation of the PM Vishwakarma Scheme, launched to provide end-to-end support to traditional artisans and craftspeople in India?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises

Answer

Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
The PM Vishwakarma Scheme was launched in September 2023 as a Central Sector Scheme with the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MoMSME) as the lead nodal ministry to provide holistic support, including collateral-free credit, skill upgrading, toolkit incentives, and marketing assistance to traditional artisans.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the primary objective of the PM Vishwakarma Scheme
The scheme aims to enhance the capabilities, financial inclusion, and market access for traditional artisans and craftspeople (Vishwakarmas).
Understanding the target beneficiary group helps identify the designated administrative ministry.
2
Determine the lead nodal ministry responsible for the initiative
The Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MoMSME) is designated as the nodal ministry, implementing the scheme in coordination with the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship and the Department of Financial Services.
Central schemes designate one specific ministry as the administrative anchor.

Key Concept

Nodal Ministries for Central Flagship Schemes
Question 37Question →

Arrange the following landmark statutory acts passed by the Parliament of India in chronological order of their enactment, from the earliest to the latest:

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct chronological sequence from earliest to latest is: Disaster Management Act (2005), National Green Tribunal Act (2010), Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act (2016), and Digital Personal Data Protection Act (2023).
The correct sequence begins with the Disaster Management Act (2005), followed by the National Green Tribunal Act (2010), the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act (2016), and ends with the Digital Personal Data Protection Act (2023).

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the year of enactment for each listed statutory act.
Disaster Management Act was enacted in 2005; National Green Tribunal Act in 2010; Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act in 2016; Digital Personal Data Protection Act in 2023.
Determining the enactment year of each legislation allows for accurate chronological sorting.
2
Arrange the acts in ascending order by their year of enactment.
The order is 2005 → 2010 → 2016 → 2023.
Sorting from the earliest year to the most recent year provides the correct chronological order.

Key Concept

Chronological timeline of landmark governance acts in India
Question 38Question →

Regarding the Minerals Security Partnership (MSP), which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: It is a multilateral initiative established to build diverse and sustainable supply chains for critical energy minerals.; India was formally inducted as a member country of the partnership during mid-2023.; The coalition focuses on securing supplies of strategic raw materials such as lithium, cobalt, nickel, and rare earth elements.

Answer

The correct statements are those identifying the Minerals Security Partnership as a multilateral critical minerals initiative, confirming India's induction as a member in mid-2023, and highlighting its focus on key minerals like lithium, cobalt, nickel, and rare earth elements.
The correct statements accurately identify that the Minerals Security Partnership aims to strengthen critical mineral supply chains, note that India joined the partnership in mid-2023, and highlight its focus on essential energy transition minerals like lithium, cobalt, nickel, and rare earth elements.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the core objective and structure of the Minerals Security Partnership (MSP).
Confirm that MSP aims to secure clean energy supply chains for critical minerals across partner nations.
Evaluating foundational policy goals helps verify the initiative's primary focus.
2
Verify India's membership status and timeline.
India officially joined the Minerals Security Partnership in June 2023 during prime ministerial bilateral engagements in the United States.
Fact-checking membership timelines validates country participation records.
3
Examine the institutional secretariat mechanism.
MSP does not operate under IRENA; it is an executive multilateral partnership among partner governments.
Distinguishing between standalone multilateral coalitions and formal UN/international agencies prevents institutional misattributions.

Key Concept

Minerals Security Partnership (MSP) and Multilateral Critical Mineral Supply Chains
Question 39Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the 'Mukhyamantri Kanya Sumangala Yojana' implemented by the Department of Women and Child Development, Government of Uttar Pradesh:

1. The scheme provides conditional financial assistance across six distinct stages of a girl child's life, from birth to entry into higher education or diploma courses.
2. Effective from the financial year 2024–25, the total financial assistance per eligible beneficiary under the scheme was increased from ₹15,000 to ₹25,000.
3. The scheme enforces a strict upper limit on family income, requiring that the annual income of the beneficiary's family must not exceed ₹3,00,000.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1, 2, and 3

Answer

Statements 1, 2, and 3 are all correct.
All three statements are correct. The scheme covers six life stages of female children, received a budget allocation enhancement to ₹25,000 starting in FY 2024–25, and enforces a mandatory annual family income limit of ₹3,00,000.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding scheme structure and stages.
Statement 1 is correct. The Mukhyamantri Kanya Sumangala Yojana delivers financial aid to girl children in six defined stages: at birth, after complete immunization, upon enrollment in Class 1, Class 6, Class 9, and after passing Class 10/12 to enroll in a degree or diploma course.
Verifies the core structural objective of conditional cash transfer stages.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding recent policy amendments to funding amounts.
Statement 2 is correct. The Government of Uttar Pradesh enhanced the aggregate assistance amount under the scheme from ₹15,000 to ₹25,000 per beneficiary starting from April 1, 2024 (FY 2024–25).
Confirms financial updates and benchmark budget revisions.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding beneficiary eligibility thresholds.
Statement 3 is correct. The eligibility rules mandate that the beneficiary must be a resident of Uttar Pradesh and the total annual family income from all sources must not exceed ₹3,00,000.
Confirms socio-economic eligibility criteria prescribed by the nodal department.

Key Concept

State Welfare Scheme Eligibility, Funding Revisions, and Stage-based Assistance Rules
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 40Question →

Arrange the following key statutory acts enacted by the Parliament of India in chronological order based on the year of their enactment, from the earliest to the latest:

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct chronological sequence from earliest to latest is: Major Port Authorities Act (2021) → Criminal Procedure (Identification) Act (2022) → Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act (2023) → Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act (2024).
The sequence is established by tracing the timeline of presidential assents and legislative passage for key governance acts between 2021 and 2024. The Major Port Authorities Act was enacted in February 2021, followed by the Criminal Procedure (Identification) Act in April 2022, the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act in August 2023, and the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act in February 2024.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the enactment year of the Major Port Authorities Act.
The Major Port Authorities Act received Presidential Assent in February 2021.
It modernizes governance structures for India's 12 major ports.
2
Identify the enactment year of the Criminal Procedure (Identification) Act.
The Criminal Procedure (Identification) Act received Presidential Assent in April 2022.
It replaced the colonial-era Identification of Prisoners Act, 1920.
3
Identify the enactment year of the Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act.
The Jan Vishwas (Amendment of Provisions) Act received Presidential Assent in August 2023.
It amended existing laws to decriminalize minor procedural offences.
4
Identify the enactment year of the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act.
The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act received Presidential Assent in February 2024.
It introduced strict penal measures to prevent organized malpractices in competitive exams.

Key Concept

Chronology of Recent National Statutory Acts and Governance Legislation in India
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