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Indian Polity and Governance

316 questions

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Question 281Question →

Match the statutory bodies listed in List-I with their corresponding distinctive statutory provisions or governing mandates listed in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Central Vigilance Commission (CVC)
National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)
Competition Commission of India (CCI)
National Green Tribunal (NGT)

Matches

Show answer & explanation

Answer

Central Vigilance Commission corresponds to a 4-year tenure (or age 65); National Human Rights Commission corresponds to a revised 3-year term (or age 70) under the 2019 Amendment; Competition Commission of India corresponds to regulating anti-competitive practices under the Competition Act, 2002; National Green Tribunal corresponds to the statutory 6-month disposal mandate guided by natural justice principles.
Each statutory body in India is established by a specific Act of Parliament detailing its tenure, composition, and legal mandates. The CVC operates on a distinct 4-year tenure under the CVC Act 2003. The NHRC tenure was amended in 2019 to 3 years or 70 years of age. The CCI derives its jurisdiction over anti-competitive practices from the Competition Act 2002. The NGT functions under a statutory 6-month case disposal objective guided by natural justice principles under the NGT Act 2010.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the governing statutory tenure of the Central Vigilance Commission.
The CVC Act, 2003 specifies a unique tenure of 4 years or age 65 (non-renewable), which sets it apart from standard 3-year or 5-year statutory terms.
Establishing the precise statutory tenure rule for CVC.
2
Analyze recent legislative amendments affecting the National Human Rights Commission.
The 2019 Amendment Act reduced the NHRC Chairperson's tenure from 5 years to 3 years while retaining the upper age limit of 70 years.
Matching statutory updates to human rights governance bodies.
3
Determine the primary statutory function of the Competition Commission of India.
Under the Competition Act, 2002, CCI regulates market practices to ensure fair competition and prevent abuse of dominance.
Linking economic governance statutory bodies to their enabling legislation.
4
Review procedural rules governing the National Green Tribunal.
The NGT Act, 2010 specifically mandates rapid disposal within 6 months based on principles of natural justice.
Connecting environmental adjudication bodies with their statutory timeline and legal framework.

Key Concept

Statutory Bodies and Public Policy Governance
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 282Question →

With reference to the creation of All-India Services under Article 312 of the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:

1. A resolution recommending the creation of a new All-India Service must originate in the Rajya Sabha and be supported by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting.
2. A law passed by Parliament to create a new All-India Service under this provision is deemed to be an amendment of the Constitution under Article 368.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 only

Answer

The statement stating that a resolution recommending the creation of a new All-India Service must originate in the Rajya Sabha supported by at least two-thirds of members present and voting is correct, while the statement regarding constitutional amendment under Article 368 is incorrect.
Under Article 312 of the Indian Constitution, the Rajya Sabha has the exclusive federal power to initiate the creation of a new All-India Service by passing a resolution supported by at least two-thirds of members present and voting. Once such a resolution is adopted, Parliament can create the service by ordinary law. Such ordinary legislation does not amount to a constitutional amendment under Article 368.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding the authority and majority required to initiate a new All-India Service.
Article 312 empowers the Rajya Sabha exclusively to pass a resolution declaring that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest to create one or more All-India Services. The resolution must be supported by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting. Therefore, Statement 1 is correct.
This special privilege reflects the federal character of the Rajya Sabha as the representative body of the states.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding whether parliamentary legislation under Article 312 constitutes an amendment under Article 368.
Laws enacted by Parliament pursuant to an Article 312 resolution to create or regulate All-India Services are simple parliamentary enactments and are explicitly excluded from the formal amendment procedure under Article 368. Therefore, Statement 2 is incorrect.
The Constitution permits Parliament to adjust administrative structures under Article 312 without invoking the rigorous process of constitutional amendment.

Key Concept

Exclusive Powers of Rajya Sabha and Creation of All-India Services (Article 312)
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 283Question →

With reference to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution, which of the following statements correctly describes its legal status and amendability as established by the Supreme Court of India in the landmark Kesavananda Bharati case (1973)?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: It is an integral part of the Constitution and can be amended under Article 368, provided its basic structure is not altered.

Answer

The Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution and can be amended under Article 368, provided its basic structure is not altered.
In the landmark Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala case (1973), the Supreme Court of India held that the Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution. The Court further clarified that Parliament can amend the Preamble under Article 368, provided such amendments do not alter or destroy its basic structure.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Examine the evolution of judicial interpretation regarding the Preamble's status.
In the Berubari Union case (1960), the Supreme Court held that the Preamble was not part of the Constitution.
Understanding historical legal precedents sets the baseline for analyzing constitutional changes.
2
Analyze the decision in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973).
The Supreme Court overruled the Berubari opinion and established that the Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution.
This landmark judgment integrated the Preamble into the core constitutional scheme.
3
Determine the scope and limits of amending the Preamble under Article 368.
The Court affirmed that while Parliament can amend the Preamble under Article 368, it cannot alter or destroy the basic structure or fundamental features contained within it.
The Basic Structure doctrine balances parliamentary amending power with constitutional supremacy.

Key Concept

Legal status and amendability of the Preamble of the Indian Constitution
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 284Question →

Match the Articles of the Constitution of India related to Centre-State Administrative Relations in List-I with their corresponding subject provisions in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Article 256
Article 257
Article 258
Article 262

Matches

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Answer

Article 256 matches with the obligation of States to ensure compliance with parliamentary laws; Article 257 matches with Union control over States regarding maintenance of communications of national importance; Article 258 matches with the power of the Union to entrust executive functions to States with consent; and Article 262 matches with adjudication of inter-State water disputes.
The matching correctly pairs each constitutional provision in Part XI with its exact scope: Article 256 relates to general compliance obligations of State executive power; Article 257 deals with Union directions on national communication infrastructure; Article 258 allows the President to entrust Union executive tasks to a State with its consent; and Article 262 deals with inter-State river water dispute adjudication.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze administrative directives under Article 256 and Article 257
Identify that Article 256 governs general compliance obligations of States to Central laws, whereas Article 257 relates to specific Union directions such as military communication routes and protection of railways.
Administrative relations specify how Union executive authority coordinates with and directs State administrative machinery.
2
Examine delegation of executive functions under Article 258
Determine that Article 258 provides a mechanism for mutual intergovernmental delegation where the Centre entrusts administrative duties to States with consent.
This avoids administrative rigidity in a federal framework.
3
Verify inter-State dispute resolution mechanism under Article 262
Confirm that Article 262 deals specifically with inter-State river water adjudication.
Article 262 empowers Parliament to exclude jurisdiction of the Supreme Court or other courts over inter-State river water disputes.

Key Concept

Centre-State Administrative Relations and Inter-State Water Dispute Adjudication under Part XI of the Constitution of India
Question 285Question →

Match the Constitutional Articles of the Union Executive in List-I with their respective constitutional provisions in List-II:

Click a left item, then click its matching right item

Items

Article 63
Article 75(3)
Article 77
Article 78

Matches

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Answer

Article 63 matches with the provision establishing the office of the Vice-President of India; Article 75(3) matches with collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers to the Lok Sabha; Article 77 matches with conduct of business of the Government of India in the name of the President; and Article 78 matches with duties of the Prime Minister regarding furnishing of information to the President.
The matching correctly identifies the precise constitutional mandate of each article under Chapter I of Part V of the Constitution of India: Article 63 creates the post of Vice-President, Article 75(3) defines cabinet accountability to the Lok Sabha, Article 77 regulates official executive orders under the President's name, and Article 78 outlines the Prime Minister's duty to report to the President.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Identify the core subject matter of Article 63 and Article 75(3)
Article 63 mandates the office of the Vice-President of India, while Article 75(3) establishes the principle of collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers to the Lok Sabha.
These are direct provisions governing executive offices and cabinet accountability.
2
Identify the procedural mandates of Article 77 and Article 78
Article 77 requires all executive notifications and actions to be formally taken in the President's name, while Article 78 defines the Prime Minister as the chief channel of communication between the Cabinet and the President.
These articles regulate administrative workflow and the constitutional dialogue between the Prime Minister and the Head of State.
3
Match each article code with its correct corresponding provision
Article 63 pairs with office of Vice-President; Article 75(3) pairs with collective responsibility; Article 77 pairs with conduct of business in President's name; Article 78 pairs with Prime Minister's duties to inform the President.
Establishes standard constitutional accuracy.

Key Concept

Constitutional Articles governing the Union Executive
Question 286Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the distinction between Article 358 and Article 359 of the Indian Constitution during a Proclamation of National Emergency:

1. Article 358 automatically suspends the Fundamental Rights guaranteed under Article 19 only when the National Emergency is declared on grounds of war or external aggression, and not on the ground of armed rebellion.
2. Article 359 automatically suspends the right to move any court for the enforcement of all Fundamental Rights immediately upon the proclamation of emergency.
3. An order issued by the President under Article 359 may specify a enforcement suspension period that is shorter than the entire duration of the National Emergency.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Statement 1 and Statement 3

Answer

Statements 1 and 3 are correct.
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Following the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978, Article 358 operates automatically to suspend rights under Article 19 only in cases of External Emergency (war or external aggression), excluding internal emergency on grounds of armed rebellion. Under Article 359, the President has the discretion to specify an enforcement suspension period that is shorter than the entire duration of the emergency. Statement 2 is incorrect because Article 359 requires an explicit Presidential Order (it does not work automatically) and cannot touch Articles 20 and 21.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding Article 358 and the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978.
The 44th Amendment restricted the scope of Article 358 such that Fundamental Rights under Article 19 are suspended automatically only when an emergency is declared on the grounds of war or external aggression (External Emergency), and NOT on the ground of armed rebellion (Internal Emergency). Therefore, Statement 1 is correct.
To verify the constitutional limitation placed on Article 358.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding the operational nature of Article 359.
Article 359 does not operate automatically upon the proclamation of emergency. Instead, it empowers the President to issue a separate order suspending the right to move any court for the enforcement of specified Fundamental Rights. Furthermore, Articles 20 and 21 can never be suspended even by Presidential order. Therefore, Statement 2 is incorrect.
To distinguish between automatic suspension under Article 358 and non-automatic Presidential orders under Article 359.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding the duration of a Presidential Order under Article 359.
Under Article 359(2), an order issued by the President may extend to the whole or any part of the territory of India and may specify a period shorter than the total duration of the Proclamation of Emergency. Therefore, Statement 3 is correct.
To verify the temporal and territorial flexibility granted to Presidential orders under Article 359.

Key Concept

Constitutional provisions under Articles 358 and 359 governing the suspension of Fundamental Rights during National Emergency
Question 287Question →

Which of the following provisions and administrative features were introduced by the Indian Councils Act of 1861? Select all correct statements.

Select all that apply

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Answer: It initiated the process of legislative decentralization by restoring law-making powers to the Bombay and Madras Presidencies.; It granted statutory recognition to the portfolio system introduced by Lord Canning in 1859.; It empowered the Governor-General (Viceroy) to issue ordinances during emergencies without the concurrence of the Legislative Council.

Answer

The provisions concerning the initiation of legislative decentralization, statutory recognition of the portfolio system, and empowering the Viceroy to issue emergency ordinances are correct regarding the Indian Councils Act of 1861.
The Indian Councils Act of 1861 is a landmark in Indian constitutional history. It initiated legislative decentralization by restoring law-making powers to the Bombay and Madras Presidencies, gave legal recognition to the portfolio system initiated by Lord Canning in 1859, and granted the Viceroy power to issue ordinances during emergencies with a six-month tenure.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the impact of the Act of 1861 on provincial legislative powers.
The Act restored legislative power to the Bombay and Madras Presidencies, thereby initiating provincial legislative devolution.
To test whether decentralization began under this legislation.
2
Examine executive administration changes introduced in 1861.
The portfolio system of 1859 gained statutory backing, and the Viceroy received emergency ordinance-making powers lasting six months.
To verify the administrative and ordinance provisions of the Act.
3
Verify the origin of central bicameralism in British Indian administration.
Bicameralism was established by the Government of India Act 1919, not the Act of 1861.
To identify and eliminate the misattributed provision.

Key Concept

Key Provisions and Constitutional Significance of the Indian Councils Act of 1861
Question 288Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the State Human Rights Commission (SHRC) established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993:

1. The Chairperson and members of the SHRC are appointed by the Governor of the state on the recommendation of a statutory selection committee.
2. The Chairperson or any member of the SHRC can be removed from office only by an order of the Governor of the state on the grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
3. The statutory selection committee for recommending appointments includes the Leader of the Opposition in the State Legislative Assembly.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

1 and 3 only
The statements establishing appointment by the Governor (Statement 1) and inclusion of the Leader of the Opposition in the selection committee (Statement 3) are correct. The statement suggesting that the Governor can remove SHRC members (Statement 2) is incorrect because removal authority is vested solely in the President of India under Section 23 of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding the appointing authority of the State Human Rights Commission
Statement 1 is correct. Under Section 22 of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, the Chairperson and members of an SHRC are appointed by the Governor by warrant under his hand and seal.
Determine statutory appointment powers under the 1993 Act.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding the removal procedure and authority
Statement 2 is incorrect. Under Section 23 of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, the Chairperson or any member of an SHRC can only be removed from office by an order of the President of India (and not the Governor) after an inquiry by the Supreme Court.
Identify the distinct constitutional/statutory separation between appointment and removal authorities.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding the composition of the selection committee
Statement 3 is correct. The selection committee includes the Chief Minister (Head), Speaker of the Legislative Assembly, State Minister in charge of the Department of Home, and Leader of the Opposition in the Legislative Assembly.
Verify statutory membership requirements for the SHRC recommendation committee.

Key Concept

State Human Rights Commission (SHRC) appointment committee composition and President-only removal power under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 289Question →

Regarding the constitutional provisions and judicial precedents governing the pardoning power of the President of India under Article 72, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The President can grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions of punishment in all cases where the sentence is passed by a Court Martial.; The exercise of pardoning power under Article 72 is performed by the President on the aid and advice of the Union Council of Ministers.

Answer

The correct statements are that the President's pardoning power extends to sentences by a Court Martial and that this executive power is exercised on the aid and advice of the Union Council of Ministers.
The President's pardoning power under Article 72 extends to sentences awarded by a Court Martial, and this executive power is exercised on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers rather than as a personal discretion.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Examine the constitutional scope of Article 72 regarding military courts.
Article 72(1)(a) explicitly grants the President authority to suspend, remit, or commute sentences passed by a Court Martial, a power not shared by state Governors under Article 161.
To verify the specific jurisdictions covered under presidential pardoning power.
2
Evaluate the executive authority mechanism under Article 74 in relation to clemency.
In parliamentary governance, executive power under Article 72 is exercised on the aid and advice of the Union Council of Ministers.
To determine whether clemency is a personal discretion of the President or a Cabinet decision.
3
Analyze judicial precedents concerning procedural requirements and judicial oversight.
Judicial rulings establish that an oral hearing is not mandatory (Kehar Singh case), and presidential decisions remain subject to limited judicial review on grounds of arbitrariness or mala fides (Epuru Sudhakar case).
To test common misconceptions about constitutional procedures and judicial review.

Key Concept

Pardoning Power of the President under Article 72 and Constitutional Boundaries
Question 290Question →

Under the Constitutional framework of India, the composition of the electoral college that elects the President under Article 54 differs from the composition of the body that investigates and votes on the impeachment of the President under Article 61. Which of the following statements correctly describes this distinction?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Nominated members of Parliament participate in the impeachment process of the President but cannot vote in the presidential election, whereas elected members of State Legislative Assemblies vote in the presidential election but do not participate in impeachment.

Answer

Nominated members of Parliament participate in the impeachment process of the President but cannot vote in the presidential election, whereas elected members of State Legislative Assemblies vote in the presidential election but do not participate in impeachment.
Under Article 54, the electoral college for electing the President consists only of elected members of Parliament and elected members of State Legislative Assemblies (plus Legislative Assemblies of Delhi and Puducherry). Nominated MPs do not vote in the election. Conversely, under Article 61, the impeachment procedure takes place exclusively in Parliament and requires a special majority of the total membership of each House, which includes both elected and nominated members of Parliament. State Legislative Assemblies have no role in the impeachment process.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Examine the composition of the Presidential Electoral College under Article 54
Article 54 states that the President is elected by an electoral college consisting of: (1) elected members of both Houses of Parliament, and (2) elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States (including UTs of Delhi and Puducherry/J&K). Nominated members of Parliament and all members of Legislative Councils are excluded.
To establish who is entitled to vote in the presidential election.
2
Examine the composition of the body participating in Impeachment under Article 61
Article 61 specifies that an impeachment charge can be initiated by either House of Parliament and passed by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the total membership of that House. This includes both elected and nominated members of Parliament. State Legislative Assemblies play no role in impeachment.
To identify who participates in the removal procedure of the President.
3
Compare both provisions to evaluate the options
Nominated members of Parliament participate in impeachment but not in the election, while elected state MLAs participate in the election but not in impeachment.
To select the factually correct statement matching constitutional rules.

Key Concept

Distinction between Presidential Election (Article 54) and Impeachment Procedure (Article 61)
Question 291Question →

Regarding the administrative relations between the Union and the States under Articles 256 and 257 of the Constitution of India, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The executive power of every State must be exercised in compliance with laws made by Parliament, and the Union Executive can give directions to a State for this purpose.; The Union Executive is empowered to give directions to a State regarding the construction and maintenance of means of communication declared to be of national or military importance.; The Union Executive can issue directions to a State concerning the measures to be taken for the protection of railways within the State.

Answer

The correct statements are that the executive power of every State must ensure compliance with Parliamentary laws under Union direction, the Union can direct States regarding national/military communications, and the Union can direct States regarding railway protection.
Articles 256 and 257 outline the administrative dominance of the Union in key matters. Article 256 mandates compliance with Parliamentary laws, Article 257(2) allows directions on communications of national or military importance, and Article 257(3) allows directions on railway protection.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the scope of Article 256 of the Constitution of India.
Article 256 imposes an obligation on States to ensure compliance with Parliamentary laws and allows the Union to issue directions for that purpose.
To verify the constitutional mandate on State compliance with Central legislation.
2
Examine the specific provisions under Article 257 regarding Union control over States in certain cases.
Article 257(2) covers directions for communications of national or military importance, while Article 257(3) covers directions for the protection of railways.
To verify the specific administrative areas where executive directions can be issued.
3
Evaluate the legal consequence of a State failing to comply with Union executive directions under Article 365.
Failure to comply allows the President to deem that a breakdown of constitutional machinery has occurred, bringing Article 356 into play, rather than granting exclusive dissolution power to the Governor.
To differentiate between Presidential powers under Article 365/356 and State Governor jurisdiction.

Key Concept

Centre-State Administrative Relations under Articles 256, 257, and 365 of the Indian Constitution
Question 292Question →

Consider the key milestones associated with the framing of the Constitution of India. Arrange the following events in the correct chronological order from earliest to latest. Which sequence represents the correct order?

Drag items to arrange them in the correct order

Show answer & explanation

Answer

The correct chronological sequence of constitutional framing milestones is: Introduction of the Objective Resolution (December 13, 1946), Adoption of the National Flag (July 22, 1947), Appointment of the Drafting Committee (August 29, 1947), and Enactment/Adoption of the Constitution (November 26, 1949).
The sequence is strictly chronological according to official Constituent Assembly records: the Objective Resolution was introduced on December 13, 1946; the National Flag was adopted on July 22, 1947; the Drafting Committee was appointed on August 29, 1947; and the Constitution was enacted on November 26, 1949.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Determine the date of the introduction of the Objective Resolution
Jawaharlal Nehru moved the historic 'Objective Resolution' on December 13, 1946.
It defined the aims and foundational philosophy of the Constituent Assembly.
2
Determine the date of adoption of the National Flag
The Constituent Assembly adopted the Tricolour as National Flag on July 22, 1947.
This took place shortly before India achieved independence.
3
Determine the date when the Drafting Committee was set up
The Assembly constituted the Drafting Committee under Dr. B.R. Ambedkar on August 29, 1947.
This committee was tasked with preparing a draft of the new Constitution.
4
Determine the date of adoption of the Constitution
The Constitution was formally passed, enacted, and adopted on November 26, 1949.
This completed the drafting and deliberation process of the Constituent Assembly.

Key Concept

Milestones in the Framing of the Indian Constitution
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 293Question →

With reference to the Zonal Councils in India, consider the following statements:

1. Zonal Councils are constitutional bodies created under Article 263 of the Constitution of India.
2. The Union Home Minister serves as the common Chairman of all Zonal Councils.
3. The Chief Ministers of the member states within a zone act as Vice-Chairman of that Zonal Council by rotation, holding office for one year at a time.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 2 and 3 only

Answer

Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Zonal Councils are statutory bodies established under Part III of the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, and not constitutional bodies established under Article 263 (which provides for an Inter-State Council). The Union Home Minister acts as the Chairman for all Zonal Councils, while the Chief Ministers of the constituent states act as Vice-Chairman by annual rotation.
The correct response identifies statements 2 and 3 as true while recognizing statement 1 as false. Zonal Councils were set up under Part III of the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, making them statutory bodies. The Union Home Minister is the Chairman of all Zonal Councils, and the Chief Ministers of participating states serve as Vice-Chairman by annual rotation.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding the legal status of Zonal Councils
Statement 1 is false. Zonal Councils were created by the States Reorganisation Act of 1956 (statutory bodies). Article 263 deals with the Inter-State Council.
Constitutional bodies are explicitly created by constitutional provisions, whereas statutory bodies are established by parliamentary legislation.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding the chairmanship of Zonal Councils
Statement 2 is true. The Union Home Minister is designated as the ex-officio Chairman of each of the Zonal Councils.
This ensures Central coordination and federal balance across inter-state zones.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding the vice-chairmanship rotation
Statement 3 is true. Chief Ministers of member states hold the office of Vice-Chairman by rotation for one year each.
This rotational structure guarantees equal representation and leadership among constituent member states.

Key Concept

Statutory nature and organisational structure of Zonal Councils for promoting inter-state cooperation and federal integration
Question 294Question →

With reference to the Objectives Resolution introduced during the framing of the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:

1. It was introduced in the Constituent Assembly by Jawaharlal Nehru on December 13, 1946.
2. It outlined the fundamental principles and philosophical groundwork that later inspired the Preamble.
3. It was unanimously adopted by the Constituent Assembly on November 26, 1949, alongside the enactment of the Constitution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 2 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 2 only are correct.
The option selecting statements 1 and 2 only is correct because Jawaharlal Nehru introduced the Objectives Resolution on December 13, 1946, laying down the fundamental principles that later guided the framing of the Constitution and inspired its Preamble. However, the resolution was unanimously adopted on January 22, 1947, making the third statement chronologically incorrect.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Evaluate Statement 1 regarding the introduction of the Objectives Resolution.
Jawaharlal Nehru moved the historic 'Objectives Resolution' in the Constituent Assembly on December 13, 1946.
This is a factual milestone in the framing process.
2
Evaluate Statement 2 regarding its philosophical link to the Preamble.
The Objectives Resolution defined the fundamental principles and values guiding the Constituent Assembly, which eventually shaped the Preamble of the Indian Constitution.
The modified version of the Objectives Resolution forms the present Preamble.
3
Evaluate Statement 3 regarding the adoption date.
The Objectives Resolution was unanimously adopted by the Constituent Assembly on January 22, 1947, not on November 26, 1949.
November 26, 1949, was the date when the Constituent Assembly adopted, enacted, and gave to themselves the Constitution of India.

Key Concept

Objectives Resolution and its adoption in the Constituent Assembly
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 295Question →

Which of the following statements regarding a Proclamation of Financial Emergency under Article 360 of the Constitution of India are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: A proclamation of Financial Emergency must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within two months from the date of its issue.; During the period of Financial Emergency, the President may issue directions requiring all Money Bills passed by a state legislature to be reserved for presidential consideration.; Once approved by both Houses of Parliament, the Financial Emergency continues indefinitely until it is revoked by the President, without requiring periodic parliamentary approval.

Answer

The correct statements are that a proclamation of Financial Emergency must be approved within two months by both Houses of Parliament, state Money Bills can be directed to be reserved for the President's consideration, and once approved, the emergency continues indefinitely until revoked without needing periodic parliamentary re-approval.
Under Article 360 of the Indian Constitution, a Financial Emergency must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within two months by a simple majority. During its operation, the Centre can direct states to observe financial discipline, including reserving Money Bills for the President's approval. Furthermore, once approved by Parliament, a Financial Emergency remains in force indefinitely until revoked by the President, with no requirement for periodic extensions.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the parliamentary approval timeframe for Article 360.
Article 360(2) specifies a two-month timeframe for approval by both Houses of Parliament from the date of issuance.
Establishing the constitutional timeline for parliamentary ratification of a Financial Emergency.
2
Examine the executive powers of the Union over state financial legislation during a Financial Emergency.
Under Article 360(4)(a)(ii), the Union can direct that Money Bills passed by state legislatures be reserved for the President.
Verifying Union legislative control over state finances during financial crises.
3
Evaluate the majority threshold required for passing the approval resolution.
Article 360 requires a simple majority (majority of members present and voting) in each House, not a special majority.
Distinguishing parliamentary voting requirements of Article 360 from Article 352.
4
Verify the duration and periodic renewal requirements for Financial Emergency.
Once ratified by Parliament, a Financial Emergency continues indefinitely until revoked by the President, with no requirement for 6-month periodic extensions.
Understanding the temporal limits and continuation procedures under Article 360.

Key Concept

Constitutional provisions, parliamentary approval rules, and executive effects of Financial Emergency under Article 360
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Question 296Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the Estimates Committee of the Indian Parliament:

1. It consists of 30 members, all of whom are drawn exclusively from the Lok Sabha.
2. A Minister can be elected as a member of this committee provided the Speaker approves.
3. By parliamentary convention, the Chairman of the committee is appointed from amongst the members belonging to the ruling party.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Answer

Statements 1 and 3 are correct.
The correct response identifies that statements 1 and 3 are accurate. The Estimates Committee is the largest parliamentary committee, consisting of 30 members elected solely from the Lok Sabha (Rajya Sabha has zero representation). Ministers are excluded from election to ensure legislative independence over executive financial estimates. Furthermore, by political convention, the Speaker appoints a Chairman belonging to the ruling party, unlike the Public Accounts Committee whose Chairman is customarily from the opposition.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding the membership structure of the Estimates Committee.
The Estimates Committee has 30 members, and all 30 are elected from the Lok Sabha every year from amongst its members according to the principle of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote. Rajya Sabha has no representation in this committee.
This establishes that Statement 1 is correct.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding minister eligibility for committee membership.
A Minister cannot be elected as a member of the Estimates Committee. If a member, after election to the committee, becomes a Minister, he or she ceases to be a member of the committee from the date of such appointment.
This proves Statement 2 is incorrect.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding the convention of appointing the Chairman of the Estimates Committee.
The Chairman of the Estimates Committee is appointed by the Speaker from amongst its members. By established convention, the Chairman is invariably selected from the ruling party/coalition.
This confirms Statement 3 is correct.

Key Concept

Structure, membership rules, and chairmanship conventions of Parliamentary Financial Committees (Estimates Committee)
Question 297Question →

Regarding the Charter Act of 1833 passed by the British Parliament during colonial rule in India, which of the following provisions are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: It elevated the Governor-General of Bengal to the Governor-General of India, centralizing all civil, military, and legislative powers for British India under his council.; It ended all remaining commercial activities of the East India Company, converting it into a purely administrative body holding Indian territories in trust for the British Crown.

Answer

The correct provisions are the designation of the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India with centralized legislative powers, and the complete termination of the East India Company's commercial activities to make it a purely administrative body.
The Charter Act of 1833 marked a decisive step toward administrative centralization in British India. It elevated the Governor-General of Bengal to the Governor-General of India, conferring upon him full civil, military, and legislative jurisdiction over all British territories while depriving provincial governors of independent lawmaking. Additionally, it stripped the East India Company of its commercial character entirely, turning it into a purely administrative organ managing Indian territories in trust for the British Sovereign.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze administrative and legislative centralization provisions under colonial charters
The Charter Act of 1833 created the post of Governor-General of India (Lord William Bentinck being the first) and centralized all legislative powers for British India, stripping Bombay and Madras of legislative authority.
Comprehensive legislative centralization was the primary structural reform of the 1833 Act.
2
Evaluate the commercial status of the East India Company after 1833
The Act terminated the company's remaining commercial privileges (tea trade and China trade), transforming it into a purely administrative trustee body for the Crown.
While the 1813 Charter removed most commercial monopolies, the 1833 Charter ended the remaining ones.
3
Identify misattributed features from subsequent constitutional acts
The creation of a distinct legislative council occurred under the Charter Act of 1853, while separate electorates were established under the Indian Councils Act of 1909.
Distinguishing the specific contributions of sequential colonial legislations prevents misattribution errors.

Key Concept

Charter Act of 1833 Provisions and Administrative Centralization
Estimated Time:1m 0s
Question 298Question →

The Constituent Assembly of India performed several crucial sovereign functions during the transition period prior to the inauguration of the Republic of India. Which of the following functions were explicitly performed by the Constituent Assembly in addition to drafting the Constitution? Select all the correct statements.

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: Ratification of India's continued membership of the Commonwealth of Nations in May 1949; Adoption of the National Flag of India on July 22, 1947; Adoption of the National Anthem and National Song on January 24, 1950

Answer

The Constituent Assembly ratified India's Commonwealth membership in May 1949, adopted the National Flag on July 22, 1947, and adopted the National Anthem and National Song on January 24, 1950.
The Constituent Assembly of India discharged several crucial national responsibilities beyond drafting the Constitution. Specifically, it ratified India's membership of the Commonwealth in May 1949, adopted the National Flag on July 22, 1947, and adopted the National Anthem ('Jana Gana Mana') and National Song ('Vande Mataram') along with electing Dr. Rajendra Prasad as the first President of India on January 24, 1950.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the major non-constitution-making duties performed by the Constituent Assembly of India between 1947 and 1950.
Identified that the Constituent Assembly served both as a constitution-making body and a provisional legislature.
To distinguish between functions performed directly by the Constituent Assembly and those executed later by executive order or post-independence parliamentary legislation.
2
Evaluate the key historical dates and resolutions passed by the Assembly.
Verified that Commonwealth membership ratification occurred in May 1949, the National Flag adoption took place on July 22, 1947, and the National Anthem/Song adoptions occurred on January 24, 1950.
These three actions were officially resolved and recorded in the debates of the Constituent Assembly.
3
Examine the origin of the Planning Commission.
Determined that the Planning Commission was created via a cabinet executive resolution in March 1950 after the Constitution had already come into force.
It was neither a constitutional body nor established by a Legislative Act of the Constituent Assembly.

Key Concept

Functions of the Constituent Assembly beyond framing the Constitution
Question 299Question →

Consider the following statements regarding the legislative procedures and powers of the Houses of the Indian Parliament under the Constitution of India:

1. A resolution authorizing Parliament to legislate on a matter listed in the State List in the national interest under Article 249 must be passed by the Rajya Sabha by a simple majority of members present and voting.
2. A Money Bill governed by Article 110 can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha and requires the prior recommendation of the President.
3. The Rajya Sabha has no power to amend or reject a Financial Bill (Type I) introduced under Article 117(1), and must return it to the Lok Sabha within fourteen days.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Show answer & explanation

Answer: 2 only

Answer

Only statement 2 is correct.
Only statement 2 accurately reflects constitutional law. Article 109(1) explicitly provides that a Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha), and Article 117(1) prescribes that it shall be introduced only on the recommendation of the President. Statement 1 is erroneous because Article 249 mandates a special majority of two-thirds of members present and voting in the Rajya Sabha. Statement 3 is erroneous because the 14-day return limitation and lack of power to amend or reject apply strictly to Money Bills, whereas a Financial Bill (Type I) under Article 117(1) can be amended or rejected by the Rajya Sabha like any ordinary bill.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze Statement 1 regarding Article 249
Statement 1 is incorrect.
Under Article 249, if the Rajya Sabha declares that it is necessary in the national interest for Parliament to make laws on a matter in the State List, the resolution must be supported by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting, not a simple majority.
2
Analyze Statement 2 regarding Money Bills under Article 110
Statement 2 is correct.
According to Article 109(1) and Article 117(1), a Money Bill defined under Article 110 can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha and cannot be introduced without the prior recommendation of the President.
3
Analyze Statement 3 regarding Financial Bills (Type I) under Article 117(1)
Statement 3 is incorrect.
A Financial Bill (Type I) under Article 117(1) contains provisions of Article 110 alongside other general legislative provisions. While it can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha with presidential recommendation, once introduced, it follows the standard lawmaking procedure applicable to Ordinary Bills. Therefore, the Rajya Sabha has full powers to reject or amend it, and is not restricted by the 14-day rule that strictly applies to Money Bills under Article 109.

Key Concept

Constitutional distinction between Money Bills, Financial Bills (Type I), and Rajya Sabha's special powers under Article 249
Estimated Time:1m 15s
Question 300Question →

With reference to the parliamentary control and revocation mechanism of a National Emergency under Article 352 of the Constitution of India, which of the following statements are correct?

Select all that apply

Show answer & explanation

Answer: The President can revoke a Proclamation of National Emergency at any time by a subsequent proclamation without requiring parliamentary approval.; A resolution disapproving the continuation of a National Emergency requires approval only by the Lok Sabha by a simple majority.

Answer

The correct statements are that the President can revoke a National Emergency proclamation at any time without parliamentary approval, and that a resolution disapproving its continuation requires approval only by the Lok Sabha by a simple majority.
The statement regarding revocation without parliamentary approval is correct under Article 352. Additionally, the statement that disapproval requires a simple majority in Lok Sabha alone is correct as per the safeguards introduced by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the revocation powers of the President under Article 352
Confirm that the revocation of a National Emergency is at the discretion of the President and requires no parliamentary ratification.
Article 352(7) explicitly empowers the President to revoke a proclamation by a subsequent proclamation without Parliamentary approval.
2
Analyze the procedure for parliamentary disapproval of National Emergency
Confirm that disapproving continuation requires a simple majority in Lok Sabha only.
The 44th Amendment Act (1978) established that if Lok Sabha passes a resolution disapproving continuation by simple majority, the President must revoke the proclamation.
3
Evaluate ordinance-making and state assembly status during Article 352
Identify that ordinances are issued when Parliament is not in session, and state assemblies are not dissolved under Article 352.
Presidential ordinances under Article 123 require Parliament to be out of session, and state legislative power becomes concurrent rather than suspended/dissolved during National Emergency.

Key Concept

Parliamentary control and executive powers during National Emergency (Article 352)
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