A 71-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with 18 hours of worsening, colicky lower abdominal pain and repeated bilious vomiting. She has not had a bowel movement or passed flatus since the symptoms began. Her temperature is 38.6°C (101.5°F), blood pressure is 92/60 mm Hg, and pulse is 118/min. Cardiopulmonary examination is unremarkable. Abdominal examination reveals a distended abdomen with diffuse rebound tenderness and involuntary guarding. A tender, erythematous, non-reducible bulge is palpated in the right groin, located inferior to the inguinal ligament and medial to the femoral artery pulse. Laboratory studies demonstrate a leukocyte count of 18,500/mm³ and a serum lactate level of 4.2 mmol/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Immediate surgical explorationAnswer
- BPlacement of a nasogastric tube and serial abdominal examinations
- CComputed tomography scan of the abdomen and pelvis
- DManual reduction of the groin bulge under conscious sedation
- EAdministration of broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics and observation