An emaciated 79-year-old woman is evaluated in the emergency department for intractable vomiting and generalized abdominal pain that has progressively worsened over the past 48 hours. She has a long-standing history of anorexia nervosa, and her current body mass index is . Temperature is 38.4°C (101.1°F), blood pressure is 86/52 mmHg, pulse is 124/min, and respirations are 22/min. Physical examination reveals a distended abdomen with diffuse guarding and rebound tenderness. No masses are palpable in the bilateral groins or abdominal wall. During the examination, passive extension and medial rotation of her right hip elicits sudden, excruciating pain radiating down the anteromedial aspect of her right thigh. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of and a serum lactate of . An upright abdominal radiograph demonstrates multiple dilated loops of small bowel with prominent air-fluid levels and a paucity of colonic gas. There is no free subdiaphragmatic air. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Immediate exploratory laparotomyAnswer
- BNasogastric tube decompression and serial abdominal examinations
- CCT scan of the abdomen and pelvis with intravenous contrast
- DRight anterior inguinal exploration and tissue repair
- EIntravenous administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics and observation