A 38-year-old man arrives at the emergency department accompanied by his spouse, reporting excruciating abdominal pain that began 6 hours ago. He states that he has had a painless "bulge" in his right groin for two years, which typically disappears when he lies down. Earlier today, the bulge became noticeably larger, highly painful, and could no longer be pushed back in. Over the past 3 hours, the pain has generalized across his entire abdomen, and he has vomited dark, bilious fluid three times. He has not passed flatus since yesterday. His temperature is 38.6°C (101.5°F), blood pressure is 98/60 mm Hg, pulse is 118/min, and respirations are 22/min. On physical examination, the patient is diaphoretic and lying completely still. Abdominal examination reveals board-like rigidity, diffuse involuntary guarding, and severe rebound tenderness in all quadrants. Examination of the right groin demonstrates a 6-cm, tense, erythematous mass protruding into the scrotum that is exquisitely tender to palpation. Laboratory results show a leukocyte count of 17,500/mm³ and a serum lactate of 4.1 mmol/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Urgent surgical explorationAnswer
- BNasogastric tube decompression and serial abdominal examinations
- CComputed tomography scan of the abdomen and pelvis with intravenous contrast
- DAttempted manual reduction of the mass under conscious sedation
- EAdministration of broad-spectrum antibiotics and close observation