A 43-year-old gentleman arrives at the triage center reporting intermittent, cramping abdominal pain that started ago. He has had multiple episodes of greenish vomiting and has not passed flatus since yesterday. His past surgical history is notable for an exploratory laparotomy for a gunshot wound a decade ago. Vital signs show a heart rate of , blood pressure of , and temperature of (). On physical examination, the abdomen is markedly distended with high-pitched 'tinkling' bowel sounds. There is generalized mild tenderness to palpation, but no rebound, rigidity, or guarding is elicited. Laboratory results reveal a leukocyte count of and a normal basic metabolic panel. An abdominal CT scan with intravenous contrast demonstrates multiple dilated loops of small intestine with a distinct transition point in the mid-abdomen, decompressed colon, and normal bowel wall enhancement without free fluid or free air. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- AUrgent exploratory laparotomy
- BInitiation of broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics
- Nasogastric tube decompression and intravenous fluid resuscitationAnswer
- DDiagnostic laparoscopy
- EBarium contrast enema